Download RGUHS MBBS 2024 February 1023 Physiology Paper II Rs 4 Previous Question Paper

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OP CODE : 1023

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Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

MBBS Phase – I (CBME) Degree Examination - 05-Feb-2024

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Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

PHYSIOLOGY – PAPER - II (RS-4)

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Q.P. CODE: 1023

(QP contains two pages)

Your answers should be specific to the questions asked

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Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks

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1. Name the functional divisions of cerebellum. Explain the connections and functions of cerebellum


2. What is normal serum calcium level? Describe the hormones that maintain normal serum calcium. Add a note on Tetany



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SHORT ESSAYS 8 x 5 = 40 Marks

1. Describe the differences between upper motor neuron and lower motor neuron lesion

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2. Explain the metabolic actions of insulin


3. Describe the actions of estrogen



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4. A man aged 70 years was brought to hospital with history of difficulty in walking, stoops forwards while walking, abnormal rhythmic movements in hands were observed at rest. He shows tendency to fall forwards or backwards
   
   
   
   1. What is the provisional diagnosis?
   
   
   2. Discuss the pathophysiology behind this condition

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   3. What is the physiological basis of treatment?
   
   
   
   

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5. Describe the classification of nerve fibres


6. Explain visual pathway with a neat labelled diagram



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7. List the properties of synapse. Explain any two properties


8. Describe various female contraceptive methods

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SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

1. List the functions of limbic system



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2. Explain the mechanism of action of steroid hormones


3. Explain parturition reflex


4. Mention any two neuro muscular blocking drugs and their mechanism of action

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5. What is Aphasia? Discuss different types of aphasias


6. Explain the patho physiology of fever



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7. Explain the types of deafness


8. Explain Papez circuit


9. What is the pathophysiology of myasthenia gravis?

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10. Enumerate the heat loss mechanisms occurring in the body

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QP CODE : 1023

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Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

Multiple Choice Questions 10 x 1 = 10 Marks

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1. i) Kluver-Bucy syndrome is due to the lesion in which of the following structure:
   1. Amygdala
   2. Hippocampus
   3. Hypothalamus
   4. Temporal lobe

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2. ii) Increased secretion of growth hormone after puberty leads to
   1. Cretinism
   2. Dwarfism
   3. Acromegaly
   4. Gigantism

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3. iii) Diabetes insipidus occurs due to deficiency of
   1. Growth hormone
   2. Insulin
   3. ADH
   4. Thyroxine

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4. iv) Blood – testis barrier is formed by:
   1. Sertoli cells
   2. Leydig cells
   3. Epididymis
   4. Vas deferens

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5. v) Corpus luteum in pregnancy is maintained by which hormone:
   1. Progesterone
   2. Oestrogen
   3. HCG
   4. FSH

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6. i) Which of the following triggers muscle contraction
   1. Ca binding to tropomyosin
   2. Ca binding to troponin C
   3. ATP breakdown
   4. Ca binding to troponin I

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7. ii) Near vision is tested by
   1. Snellen's chart
   2. Jaeger's chart
   3. Ishihara chart
   4. Color vision

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8. iii) In nerve deafness while performing Weber's test, the sound is lateralized to (heard better in):
   1. Normal ear
   2. Defective ear
   3. Both the ears
   4. None of the ear

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9. iv) Following are the features of metabolic syndrome EXCEPT
   1. Blood pressure of more than 130/85 mmHg
   2. Fasting glucose of 100mg/dL or more
   3. Triglycerides of more than 150 mg/dL in the blood
   4. Normal BMI of 18-24 kg/m²

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10. v) Insulin causes
    1. Decreased blood glucose
    2. Inhibits protein synthesis
    3. Inhibits fatty acids synthesis
    4. Promotes breakdown of glycogen

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