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Download RGUHS MBBS 2nd Year 2023 May 1026 Pathology Paper I Rs 4 Previous Question Paper

Download RGUHS (Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences) MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery) 2nd Year (Second Year) 2023 May 1026 Pathology Paper I Rs 4 Previous Question Paper

This post was last modified on 02 December 2024

RGUHS MBBS 2nd Year Last 15 Years 2010-2025 Previous Question Papers (Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences)


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Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

MBBS Phase – II (CBME) Degree Examination - 16-May-2023

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Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

PATHOLOGY – PAPER I (RS-4)

Q.P. CODE: 1026

(QP contains two pages)

Your answers should be specific to the questions asked

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Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks

  1. 60 year old male presented with complaints of pedal edema and exertional dyspnoea. On investigation his Hemoglobin was 3.5 g/dl and he had raised brain natriuretic peptide. Blood pressure was 90/50 mm of Hg and heart rate was 60 bpm. He is not a diabetic or hypertensive. He was diagnosed with congestive heart failure.

    1. List the types of edema
    2. Identify the type of edema in the above clinical history
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    4. Describe the pathophysiology, clinical features and consequences of this condition
  2. 30 year old male on pure vegetarian diet presents with restlessness, fatigue, dizziness, tingling and numbness in his legs. On routine blood evaluation his hemoglobin was found to be 7gms/dl and MCV of 110 fl. Patient was also found to have reticulocytopenia

    1. What is the most probable diagnosis?
    2. Describe the etiology, pathogenesis, peripheral smear and bone marrow findings of Megaloblastic anemia.
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SHORT ESSAYS 8 x 5 = 40 Marks

  1. Differences between necrosis and apoptosis.
  2. Vascular changes in Acute inflammation.
  3. Chemical Carcinogenesis.
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  5. Discuss different methods of blood grouping
  6. Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia.
  7. Thalassemia major.
  8. Discuss various stains for amyloid.
  9. Classification of Hodgkin's lymphoma.
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SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

  1. Metaplasia.
  2. Arthus reaction.
  3. Ghon's complex.
  4. Tuberculoid leprosy.
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  6. Exfoliative cytology.
  7. Define chemotaxis. Name two chemotactic agents
  8. Stages of E.S.R
  9. Auer rods.
  10. Fate of thrombus
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  12. Causes of proteinuria.

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Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

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Multiple Choice Questions 10 x 1 = 10 Marks

  1. i) Vasoactive amines play an important role in vascular events of inflammation. Histamine causes all EXCEPT
    1. Smooth muscle contraction
    2. Decreased vascular permeability
    3. Increased permeability
    4. Increased secretions
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  2. ii) Which of the following is an example for labile cells
    1. Bone marrow
    2. Hepatocytes
    3. Neurons
    4. Fibroblasts
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  3. iii) Caspases are involved in
    1. Acute inflammation
    2. Chronic inflammation
    3. Apoptosis
    4. Regeneration
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  4. iv) 24 year old male sustains multiple fratures of long bone in a road traffic accident. Which of the following stains is used to detect fat embolism
    1. Oil-red-O
    2. Best carmine
    3. PAS
    4. Von Kossa
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  5. v) Starry sky appearances is seen in
    1. Large cell lymphoma
    2. Hodgkin's lymphoma
    3. Burkitt lymphoma
    4. T-cell lymphoma
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  1. i) ESR is increased markedly in
    1. Dengue fever
    2. Tuberculosis
    3. Malaria
    4. Typhoid
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  2. ii) Pernicious anemia is due to
    1. Iron deficiency
    2. Intrinsic factory deficiency
    3. Sickling of RBCS
    4. Red cell membrane deficiency
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  3. iii) Peripheral smear is reported as poikilocytosis in a patient with long standing anemia. Poikilocytosis refers to
    1. Different shapes of RBCS
    2. Different sizes of RBCs
    3. Inclusions in RBCs
    4. Increase in RBCs
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  4. iv) Hemophilia is a
    1. B12 deficiency anemia
    2. Type of leukemia
    3. Hemolytic anemia
    4. Bleeding disorder
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  5. v) Gamna Gandy bodies are seen in
    1. Spleen
    2. Liver
    3. Oral cavity
    4. RBCS
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