Download RGUHS MBBS 2nd Year 2023 May 1030 Microbiology Paper I Rs 4 Previous Question Paper

Download RGUHS (Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences) MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery) 2nd Year (Second Year) 2023 May 1030 Microbiology Paper I Rs 4 Previous Question Paper

QP CODE : 1030
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase ? II (CBME) Degree Examination - 24-May-2023

Time: Three Hours



Max. Marks: 100 Marks
MICROBIOLOGY ? PAPER I (RS-4)
Q.P. CODE: 1030
(QP contains two pages)
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
LONG ESSAYS
2 x 10 = 20 Marks

1.
A 35 year old male came with history of intravenous drug abuse and is admitted with
complaints of unexplained fever progressive weight loss persistant diarrhoea and
generalized lymph adenopathy for the past 8 months
a) What is the most probable diagnosis?
b) Discuss the pathogenesis of the disease
c) The laboratory diagnosis with NACO guidelines
d) Precautions to be followed for prevention
2.
A 13 year old boy developed severe watery diarrhoea and vomiting. The stool collected
has a rice water type of appearance. It was sent for bacterial culture
a) What is the probable etiological agent of this condition?
b) Describe in detail the pathogenesis of this condition
c) Describe the laboratory diagnosis of this organism
d) Add a note on prophylaxis and prevention
SHORT ESSAYS
8 x 5 = 40 Marks
3. 1. Monoclonal antibodies
4. 2. Mechanisms of autoimmune disease
5. 3. Modes of transmission of infections
6.
Dimorphic fungi causing infections
7.
Laboratory diagnosis of Falciparum malaria
8.
Classify protozoan infections with examples
9.
Acid peptic disease ? Causative organisms, pathogenesis and diagnosis
10. Laboratory diagnosis of Mycetoma
SHORT ANSWERS
10 x 3 = 30 Marks
11. List three functions of complement
12. Mention three agglutination tests
13. What are the risk categories of Spaulding classification and the definitions for each
category?
14. Lab diagnosis of intestinal amoebiasis
15. Lab diagnosis of tinea infections
16. Tzanck smear
17. Widal test
18. Name six bacteria causing diabetic foot infection
19. Pathogenesis of Shigella
20. Lab diagnosis of skin lesions caused by staphylococcus
Page 1 of 2

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QP CODE : 1030
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
Multiple Choice Questions
10 x 1 = 10 Marks
21 i) Fungi that do not affect nail
A. Trichophyton
B. Epidermophyton
C. Microsporum
D. Candida
albicans
21 ii
) Tinea versicolor is caused by
A. Candida albicans
B. Trichophyton rubrum
C. Trichophyton mentagrophytes
D. Ma
lassezia furfur
21 ii
i) Vector for Leishmaniasis is
A. Sandfly
B. Reduvid bug
C. Tsetse fly
D. An
opheles mosquito
21 iv)
Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) is a complication of which viral infection
A. Mumps
B. Measles
C. Rubella
D. Inf
luenza
21 v)
CAMP test is used to identify which of the following bacteria
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Streptococcus agalactiae
C. Streptococcus pneumonia
D. Viridans
streptococci
22 i) Scalded skin syndrome is mediated by
A. Hemolysin
B. Coagulase
C. Enterotoxin
D. Epi
dermolytic toxin
22
ii) Which of the following is a not a liver fluke
A. Fasciolopsis buski
B. Fasciola hepatica
C. Clonorchis sinensis
D. Opi
sthorchis viverini
22 iii) Which is known as Australia antigen
A. HBsAg
B. HBcAg
C. HBeAg
D. HBV
DNA
22 iv)
Antibodies against which of the following antigen appear in typhoid carrier
A. O antigen
B. H antigen
C. Vi antigen
D. Capsular
antigen
22 v)
Transfer of DNA from one bacterium to another by a bacteriophage is called
A. Conjugation
B. Transduction
C. Transformation
D. Transposition
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