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Download RGUHS MBBS 2nd Year 2023 May 1030 Microbiology Paper I Rs 4 Previous Question Paper

Download RGUHS (Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences) MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery) 2nd Year (Second Year) 2023 May 1030 Microbiology Paper I Rs 4 Previous Question Paper

This post was last modified on 02 December 2024

RGUHS MBBS 2nd Year Last 15 Years 2010-2025 Previous Question Papers (Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences)


FirstRanker.com QP CODE: 1030 FirstRanker.com

Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

MBBS Phase - II (CBME) Degree Examination - 24-May-2023

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Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

MICROBIOLOGY – PAPER I (RS-4)

Q.P. CODE: 1030

(QP contains two pages)

Your answers should be specific to the questions asked

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Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks

  1. A 35 year old male came with history of intravenous drug abuse and is admitted with complaints of unexplained fever progressive weight loss persistent diarrhoea and generalized lymph adenopathy for the past 8 months
    1. What is the most probable diagnosis?
    2. Discuss the pathogenesis of the disease
    3. The laboratory diagnosis with NACO guidelines
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    5. Precautions to be followed for prevention
  2. A 13 year old boy developed severe watery diarrhoea and vomiting. The stool collected has a rice water type of appearance. It was sent for bacterial culture
    1. What is the probable etiological agent of this condition?
    2. Describe in detail the pathogenesis of this condition
    3. Describe the laboratory diagnosis of this organism
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    5. Add a note on prophylaxis and prevention

SHORT ESSAYS 8 x 5 = 40 Marks

  1. Monoclonal antibodies
  2. Mechanisms of autoimmune disease
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  4. Modes of transmission of infections
  5. Dimorphic fungi causing infections
  6. Laboratory diagnosis of Falciparum malaria
  7. Classify protozoan infections with example
  8. Acid peptic disease - Causative organisms, pathogenesis and diagnosis
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  10. Laboratory diagnosis of Mycetoma

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

  1. List three functions of complement
  2. Mention three agglutination tests
  3. What are the risk categories of Spaulding classification and the definitions for each category?
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  5. Lab diagnosis of intestinal amoebiasis
  6. Lab diagnosis of tinea infections
  7. Tzanck smear
  8. Widal test
  9. Name six bacteria causing diabetic foot infection
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  11. Pathogenesis of Shigella
  12. Lab diagnosis of skin lesions caused by staphylococcus

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Multiple Choice Questions 10 x 1 = 10 Marks

  1. Fungi that do not affect nail
    1. Trichophyton
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    3. Epidermophyton
    4. Microsporum
    5. Candida albicans
  2. Tinea versicolor is caused by
    1. Candida albicans
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    3. Trichophyton rubrum
    4. Trichophyton mentagrophytes
    5. Malassezia furfur
  3. Vector for Leishmaniasis is
    1. Sandfly
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    3. Reduvid bug
    4. Tsetse fly
    5. Anopheles mosquito
  4. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) is a complication of which viral infection
    1. Mumps
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    3. Measles
    4. Rubella
    5. Influenza
  5. CAMP test is used to identify which of the following bacteria
    1. Streptococcus pyogenes
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    3. Streptococcus agalactiae
    4. Streptococcus pneumonia
    5. Viridans streptococci
  1. Scalded skin syndrome is mediated by
    1. Hemolysin
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    3. Coagulase
    4. Enterotoxin
    5. Epidermolytic toxin
  2. Which of the following is not a liver fluke
    1. Fasciolopsis buski
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    3. Fasciola hepatica
    4. Clonorchis sinensis
    5. Opisthorchis viverini
  3. Which is known as Australia antigen
    1. HBsAg
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    3. HBcAg
    4. HBeAg
    5. HBV DNA
  4. Antibodies against which of the following antigen appear in typhoid carrier
    1. O antigen
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    3. H antigen
    4. Vi antigen
    5. Capsular antigen
  5. Transfer of DNA from one bacterium to another by a bacteriophage is called
    1. Conjugation
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    3. Transduction
    4. Transformation
    5. Transposition

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