Download RGUHS (Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences) MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery) 4th Year (Third Year Part II) 2024 June 1042 Obstetrics And Gynaecology Paper I Rs 4 Previous Question Paper
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase ? III (PART II) (CBME) Degree Examination - 07-Jun-2024
Time: Three Hours
Max. Marks: 100
OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY ? PAPER ? I (RS-4)
QP CODE: 1042
(QP Contains two pages)
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
LONG ESSAYS
2 x 10 = 20 Marks
1.
A 23-year-old G2P1L1 has come with history of severe growth restriction at 34 weeks of
gestation.
a) Define fetal growth restriction and describe the types of FGR.
b) Enumerate the causes fetal growth restriction.
c) What preventive measures can be taken before and during future pregnancies?
d) How would you monitor this woman during pregnancy?
2.
A 30-year-old G3P2 was admitted at 39 weeks of gestation with labour pains. Her
hemoglobin was 7g/dl.
a) How would you manage her during labour?
b) What complications should one anticipate in such a case?
SHORT ESSAYS
8 x 5 = 40 Marks
3.
Discuss Pathogenesis of pre-eclampsia.
4.
Describe the expectant management of PLACENTA PREVIA.
5.
Enumerate the causes of miscarriage.
6.
Describe management of HIV infection in pregnancy.
7.
Outline the steps of management of PPH.
8.
What criteria should be fulfilled for medical management of an ectopic pregnancy?
9.
Define preterm labour and enumerate its causes and risk factors.
10. What are the causes of prolonged pregnancy?
SHORT ANSWERS
10 x 3 = 30 Marks
11. What are the complications of Eclampsia?
12. Describe Indirect Coomb's test.
13. What are discordant twins?
14. What are the degrees of perineal tear?
15. Describe diagonal conjugate and its significance.
16. What are the complications of obstructed labour?
17. How is the diagnosis of transverse lie made?
18. List the complications of hyperemesis gravidarum.
19. What is the chemotherapy regimen for low risk non-metastatic GTN?
20. Define Couvelaire uterus.
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QP CODE : 1042
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
Multiple Choice Questions
10 x 1 = 10 Marks
21 i) Which of these is not true of mifepristone?
A. RU-486
B. Progesterone agonist
C. Softens the cervix
D. Sensitises uterus to misoprostol
21 ii
) In amniotic fluid embolism, which factor is increased?
A. Thromboplastin
B. Fibrinogen
C. Platelet
D. Clotting factor
21 ii
i) Which of these measures is NOT beneficial in reducing maternal mortality?
A. Active management of the third stage of labour
B. Presence of a trained birth attendant
C. Strengthening first referral units
D. Providing emergency obstetric care only at tertiary care centres
21 iv)
Which of the following is a drug used for tocolysis prior to External cephalic version?
A. Salbutamol
B. Terbutaline
C. Nifedipine
D. Atosiban
21 v)
The first symptom of Sheehan syndrome is
A. Failure of lactation
B. Subinvolution of uterus
C. Loss of axillary and pubic hair
D. Cold intolerance
22 i) Which of the following is not the risk factor for uterine rupture during labour?
A. Previous myomectomy
B. Previous cesarean
C. Prematurity
D. Obstructed labour
22
ii) In which of the following conditions is trial of labour not allowed?
A. Minor degree of CPD
B. Small gynaecoid pelvis
C. Platypelloid pelvis
D. Postdated pregnancy
22 iii) The Marshall- Burns method is used in the delivery of the
A. After coming head
B. Shoulder
C. Nuchal arm
D. Leg
22 iv)
Which of the following is the commonest heart disease complicating pregnancy?
A. Mitral stenosis
B. Mitral regurgitation
C. Aortic stenosis
D. Aortic regurgitation
22 v)
Which of the following does not cause Rh-isoimmunization in an Rh-negative woman?
A. Antepartum hemorrhage
B. External cephalic version
C. Postdated pregnancy
D. Advanced maternal age
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This post was last modified on 02 December 2024