Download RGUHS MBBS Final Year 2024 June 1042 Obstetrics And Gynaecology Paper I Rs 4 Previous Question Paper

OP CODE : 1042

Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

MBBS Phase – III (PART II) (CBME) Degree Examination - 07-Jun-2024

Time: Three Hours

Max. Marks: 100

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OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY – PAPER – I (RS-4)

QP CODE: 1042

(QP Contains two pages)

Your answers should be specific to the questions asked

Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

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LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks

1. A 23-year-old G2P1L1 has come with history of severe growth restriction at 34 weeks of gestation.
   1. Define fetal growth restriction and describe the types of FGR.
   2. Enumerate the causes fetal growth restriction.
   3. What preventive measures can be taken before and during future pregnancies?
   4. How would you monitor this woman during pregnancy?

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2. A 30-year-old G3P2 was admitted at 39 weeks of gestation with labour pains. Her hemoglobin was 7g/dl.
   1. How would you manage her during labour?
   2. What complications should one anticipate in such a case?

SHORT ESSAYS 8 x 5 = 40 Marks

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3. Discuss Pathogenesis of pre-eclampsia.
4. Describe the expectant management of PLACENTA PREVIA.
5. Enumerate the causes of miscarriage.
6. Describe management of HIV infection in pregnancy.
7. Outline the steps of management of PPH.

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8. What criteria should be fulfilled for medical management of an ectopic pregnancy?
9. Define preterm labour and enumerate its causes and risk factors.
10. What are the causes of prolonged pregnancy?

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

11. What are the complications of Eclampsia?

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12. Describe Indirect Coomb's test.
13. What are discordant twins?
14. What are the degrees of perineal tear?
15. Describe diagonal conjugate and its significance.
16. What are the complications of obstructed labour?

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17. How is the diagnosis of transverse lie made?
18. List the complications of hyperemesis gravidarum.
19. What is the chemotherapy regimen for low risk non-metastatic GTN?
20. Define Couvelaire uterus.

OP CODE : 1042

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Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

Multiple Choice Questions 10 x 1 = 10 Marks

21. i) Which of these is not true of mifepristone?
    1. RU-486
    2. Progesterone agonist
    3. Softens the cervix

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    4. Sensitises uterus to misoprostol
22. ii) In amniotic fluid embolism, which factor is increased?
    1. Thromboplastin
    2. Fibrinogen
    3. Platelet

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    4. Clotting factor
23. iii) Which of these measures is NOT beneficial in reducing maternal mortality?
    1. Active management of the third stage of labour
    2. Presence of a trained birth attendant
    3. Strengthening first referral units

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    4. Providing emergency obstetric care only at tertiary care centres
24. iv) Which of the following is a drug used for tocolysis prior to External cephalic version?
    1. Salbutamol
    2. Terbutaline
    3. Nifedipine

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    4. Atosiban
25. v) The first symptom of Sheehan syndrome is
    1. Failure of lactation
    2. Subinvolution of uterus
    3. Loss of axillary and pubic hair

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    4. Cold intolerance

22. i) Which of the following is not the risk factor for uterine rupture during labour?
    1. Previous myomectomy
    2. Previous cesarean
    3. Prematurity

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    4. Obstructed labour
23. ii) In which of the following conditions is trial of labour not allowed?
    1. Minor degree of CPD
    2. Small gynaecoid pelvis
    3. Platypelloid pelvis

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    4. Postdated pregnancy
24. iii) The Marshall- Burns method is used in the delivery of the
    1. After coming head
    2. Shoulder
    3. Nuchal arm

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    4. Leg
25. iv) Which of the following is the commonest heart disease complicating pregnancy?
    1. Mitral stenosis
    2. Mitral regurgitation
    3. Aortic stenosis

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    4. Aortic regurgitation
26. v) Which of the following does not cause Rh-isoimmunization in an Rh-negative woman?
    1. Antepartum hemorrhage
    2. External cephalic version
    3. Postdated pregnancy

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    4. Advanced maternal age

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