Download RGUHS MBBS Final Year 2024 May 1037 Internal Medicine Paper I Rs 4 Previous Question Paper

OP CODE : 1037

Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

MBBS Phase - III (PART II) (CBME) Degree Examination - 28-May-2024

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Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100

INTERNAL MEDICINE – PAPER – I (RS-4)

QP CODE: 1037

(QP Contains Two Pages)

Your answers should be specific to the questions asked

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Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks

1. A 32 year gentleman presents to Emergency room with sudden onset headache and diaphoresis O/E-BP-220/130 mm hg, papilloedema present, conscious, oriented
   1. Discuss the diagnosis and treatment
   2. Enumerate the causes of secondary hypertension
   3. Enumerate the investigations of Hypertension in young

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2. A farmer 45 years male is brought to casualty in a state of unconsciousness o/e-constricted pupil,pulse-50/min,bp-100/60 mmhg,unconscious,rr-30/min, typical smell of pesticide present
   1. Discuss probable diagnosis and substantiate
   2. Describe the management of this patient
   3. Enumerate common poisons and their antidotes

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SHORT ESSAYS 8 x 5 = 40 Marks

3. Describe the management of nonketotic hyperosmolar state in diabetes mellitus
4. Describe and discuss compensatory mechanisms involved in heart failure
5. Describe the clinical features and management of thiamine deficiency
6. Enumerate the viruses causing hepatitis, describe clinical features and treatment of acute viral Hepatitis A

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7. Discuss medicolegal, sociocultural, professional and ethical issues pertaining to medical negligence
8. Describe the management of oesophageal variceal bleed
9. Discuss the medical emergencies in Rheumatoid arthritis
10. Discuss the causes of metabolic acidosis

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

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11. Define and classify obesity
12. Describe management of thyrotoxic crisis
13. Enumerate the functions of liver
14. Describe the mechanism of action with examples for SGLT2 inhibitors
15. Describe the etiopathogenesis of coronary artery disease

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16. Enumerate the indications of heart transplantation
17. Discuss modified Dukes criteria
18. Describe drug to drug interaction with examples
19. Describe the clinical features and treatment of hypokalemia
20. Describe the cardiovascular examination findings in mitral regurgitation

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Multiple Choice Questions 10 x 1 = 10 Marks

21. Factors influencing myocardial oxygen supply and demand are all EXCEPT
    1. Heart rate
    2. Blood pressure
    3. Duration of systole
    4. Hemoglobin level

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22. Calcium channel blocker causing tachycardia is
    1. Nifedepine
    2. Verapamil
    3. Diltiazem
    4. Flunarizine

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23. SCHOBER 'S test is useful in
    1. Rheumatoid arthritis
    2. Ankylosing spondylitis
    3. Psoriatic arthritis
    4. Reactive arthritis

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24. Examples of drugs associated with drawl effects are all EXCEPT
    1. Selective Serotonin reuptake inhibitors
    2. Opiods
    3. Barbiturates
    4. Amphetamine

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25. Diseases associated with triplet expansions are all EXCEPT
    1. Spinocerebellar ataxia type 1
    2. Machado joseph disease
    3. Spinobulbar muscular atrophy
    4. Dubin johnson syndrome

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22. Vitamin which causes peripheral neuropathy in both deficiency and excess
    1. Folate
    2. Pyridoxine
    3. B 12
    4. C

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23. Causes of proximal muscle weakness are all EXCEPT
    1. Hypocalcemia
    2. Sarcoid
    3. Carnitine deficiency
    4. Polymyositis

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24. False statement about interpretation of urea and electrolyte result is
    1. Chloride levels generally change in parallel with plasma sodium
    2. Sodium levels largely reflect changes in water balance
    3. Bicarbonate is normal in acid base disorders
    4. Creatinine can increase with increase in people with high muscle mass

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25. Complications of obesity are all EXCEPT
    1. Obstructive sleep apnoea
    2. Osteoporosis
    3. Gastroesophageal reflux disease
    4. Coagulopathy

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26. Causes of salivary gland swelling are all EXCEPT
    1. Viral infection
    2. Sjogrens
    3. Calculi
    4. Rheumatoid arthritis

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