Delhi University Entrance Test (DUET) 2019 PhD in Biomedical Sciences Previous Queston Papers
Question
Id
Question
Descripti
on
Question Body Options
3449: Imatinib,
3450:Bleomycin,
3451:Adriamycin,
3452:cisplatin,
3453:DNA glycosylase,
3454:DNA ligase,
3455:DNA polymerase,
3456:RNA polymerase,
3457:Subunit
association,
3458:Promoter binding,
3459:Initiation and
elongation,
3460:Cation binding,
3461:?70,
3462:?32,
3463:?54,
3464:?28,
3465:5? end of the
tRNA,
3466:3? end of the
tRNA,
3467:Amino acid,
3468:Variable loop of
tRNA,
3469: EF-Tu,
3470:EF-G,
2 864 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q02
The enzyme of E.coli that initiates the repair of double stranded DNA
breaks by homologous recombination (?base excision repair in DNA)
1 863 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q01
For chronic myeloid leukemia one of the best chemotherapy drugs
used is:
4 866 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q04
Four types of ? factors are known ,of them which one used during
Nitrogen deficiency?
3 865 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q03
What is the function of the ? subunit of RNA polymerase?
6 868 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q06
The completion of translocation requires the action of the factor
_________________
5 867 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q05
Once the tRNA is aminoacylated, EF-Tu binds to the tRNA at the
____________
DU PhD In Biomedical Sciences
FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
Sr.No
Question
Id
Question
Descripti
on
Question Body Options
3449: Imatinib,
3450:Bleomycin,
3451:Adriamycin,
3452:cisplatin,
3453:DNA glycosylase,
3454:DNA ligase,
3455:DNA polymerase,
3456:RNA polymerase,
3457:Subunit
association,
3458:Promoter binding,
3459:Initiation and
elongation,
3460:Cation binding,
3461:?70,
3462:?32,
3463:?54,
3464:?28,
3465:5? end of the
tRNA,
3466:3? end of the
tRNA,
3467:Amino acid,
3468:Variable loop of
tRNA,
3469: EF-Tu,
3470:EF-G,
2 864 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q02
The enzyme of E.coli that initiates the repair of double stranded DNA
breaks by homologous recombination (?base excision repair in DNA)
1 863 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q01
For chronic myeloid leukemia one of the best chemotherapy drugs
used is:
4 866 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q04
Four types of ? factors are known ,of them which one used during
Nitrogen deficiency?
3 865 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q03
What is the function of the ? subunit of RNA polymerase?
6 868 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q06
The completion of translocation requires the action of the factor
_________________
5 867 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q05
Once the tRNA is aminoacylated, EF-Tu binds to the tRNA at the
____________
DU PhD In Biomedical Sciences
3471:eIF2,
3472:eIF4G,
3473:E1,
3474:E2,
3475:E3,
3476:E4,
3477:Multiple
phosphorylations,
3478:De-
phosphorylation,
3479:Ubiquitinylation,
3480:Destabilizing by
proteolysis in a
proteasome,
3481:Major
Histocompatibility
Complex molecules
that regulate immunity,
3482:Memory Induced
Complementary
Antigen A and B,
3483:Mouse
Incomplete C-Reactive
Antigen A and B,
3484:Micro- Interleukin
Complex A and B,
3485: Minor antigen of
Inducible T cell,
3486:Mucosal
Associated Invariant T
cell,
6 868 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q06
The completion of translocation requires the action of the factor
_________________
8 870 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q08
At the end of each phase of cell cycle, cyclins activating Cdks in that
phase are inactivated irreversibly by
7 869 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q07
Which of the following is an Ubiquitin activating enzyme?
10 872 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q10
MAIT stands for:
9 871 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q09
MICA and MICB are
FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
Sr.No
Question
Id
Question
Descripti
on
Question Body Options
3449: Imatinib,
3450:Bleomycin,
3451:Adriamycin,
3452:cisplatin,
3453:DNA glycosylase,
3454:DNA ligase,
3455:DNA polymerase,
3456:RNA polymerase,
3457:Subunit
association,
3458:Promoter binding,
3459:Initiation and
elongation,
3460:Cation binding,
3461:?70,
3462:?32,
3463:?54,
3464:?28,
3465:5? end of the
tRNA,
3466:3? end of the
tRNA,
3467:Amino acid,
3468:Variable loop of
tRNA,
3469: EF-Tu,
3470:EF-G,
2 864 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q02
The enzyme of E.coli that initiates the repair of double stranded DNA
breaks by homologous recombination (?base excision repair in DNA)
1 863 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q01
For chronic myeloid leukemia one of the best chemotherapy drugs
used is:
4 866 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q04
Four types of ? factors are known ,of them which one used during
Nitrogen deficiency?
3 865 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q03
What is the function of the ? subunit of RNA polymerase?
6 868 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q06
The completion of translocation requires the action of the factor
_________________
5 867 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q05
Once the tRNA is aminoacylated, EF-Tu binds to the tRNA at the
____________
DU PhD In Biomedical Sciences
3471:eIF2,
3472:eIF4G,
3473:E1,
3474:E2,
3475:E3,
3476:E4,
3477:Multiple
phosphorylations,
3478:De-
phosphorylation,
3479:Ubiquitinylation,
3480:Destabilizing by
proteolysis in a
proteasome,
3481:Major
Histocompatibility
Complex molecules
that regulate immunity,
3482:Memory Induced
Complementary
Antigen A and B,
3483:Mouse
Incomplete C-Reactive
Antigen A and B,
3484:Micro- Interleukin
Complex A and B,
3485: Minor antigen of
Inducible T cell,
3486:Mucosal
Associated Invariant T
cell,
6 868 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q06
The completion of translocation requires the action of the factor
_________________
8 870 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q08
At the end of each phase of cell cycle, cyclins activating Cdks in that
phase are inactivated irreversibly by
7 869 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q07
Which of the following is an Ubiquitin activating enzyme?
10 872 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q10
MAIT stands for:
9 871 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q09
MICA and MICB are
3487:Memory
Associated islet cell,
3488:Micro-RNA
Associated Inducible T
cells,
3489: Genes for B cell
maturation,
3490:Genes for T cell
maturation,
3491:miRNAs in
Introns for innate
immunity,
3492:Specific regions
in the immune synapse,
3493: Prone to allergy,
3494:Prone to
autoimmunity,
3495:Tolerant to
allergy,
3496:Tolerant to
infection,
3497: Allergens,
3498:Virulence factors
of Staphylococcus
aureus,
3499:Tumor antigens,
3500:B cell maturation
marker,
3501: T cell activation
markers,
3502:B cell activation
markers,
10 872 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q10
MAIT stands for:
12 874 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q12
Atopic individuals are:
11 873 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q11
Central ? Supramolecular Associated Clusters and Peripheral-
Suramolecular Associated clusters relate to:
14 876 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q14
CD69 and Ki-67 are
13 875 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q13
MAGE, PRAME and NY-ESO-1 are examples of
FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
Sr.No
Question
Id
Question
Descripti
on
Question Body Options
3449: Imatinib,
3450:Bleomycin,
3451:Adriamycin,
3452:cisplatin,
3453:DNA glycosylase,
3454:DNA ligase,
3455:DNA polymerase,
3456:RNA polymerase,
3457:Subunit
association,
3458:Promoter binding,
3459:Initiation and
elongation,
3460:Cation binding,
3461:?70,
3462:?32,
3463:?54,
3464:?28,
3465:5? end of the
tRNA,
3466:3? end of the
tRNA,
3467:Amino acid,
3468:Variable loop of
tRNA,
3469: EF-Tu,
3470:EF-G,
2 864 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q02
The enzyme of E.coli that initiates the repair of double stranded DNA
breaks by homologous recombination (?base excision repair in DNA)
1 863 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q01
For chronic myeloid leukemia one of the best chemotherapy drugs
used is:
4 866 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q04
Four types of ? factors are known ,of them which one used during
Nitrogen deficiency?
3 865 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q03
What is the function of the ? subunit of RNA polymerase?
6 868 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q06
The completion of translocation requires the action of the factor
_________________
5 867 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q05
Once the tRNA is aminoacylated, EF-Tu binds to the tRNA at the
____________
DU PhD In Biomedical Sciences
3471:eIF2,
3472:eIF4G,
3473:E1,
3474:E2,
3475:E3,
3476:E4,
3477:Multiple
phosphorylations,
3478:De-
phosphorylation,
3479:Ubiquitinylation,
3480:Destabilizing by
proteolysis in a
proteasome,
3481:Major
Histocompatibility
Complex molecules
that regulate immunity,
3482:Memory Induced
Complementary
Antigen A and B,
3483:Mouse
Incomplete C-Reactive
Antigen A and B,
3484:Micro- Interleukin
Complex A and B,
3485: Minor antigen of
Inducible T cell,
3486:Mucosal
Associated Invariant T
cell,
6 868 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q06
The completion of translocation requires the action of the factor
_________________
8 870 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q08
At the end of each phase of cell cycle, cyclins activating Cdks in that
phase are inactivated irreversibly by
7 869 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q07
Which of the following is an Ubiquitin activating enzyme?
10 872 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q10
MAIT stands for:
9 871 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q09
MICA and MICB are
3487:Memory
Associated islet cell,
3488:Micro-RNA
Associated Inducible T
cells,
3489: Genes for B cell
maturation,
3490:Genes for T cell
maturation,
3491:miRNAs in
Introns for innate
immunity,
3492:Specific regions
in the immune synapse,
3493: Prone to allergy,
3494:Prone to
autoimmunity,
3495:Tolerant to
allergy,
3496:Tolerant to
infection,
3497: Allergens,
3498:Virulence factors
of Staphylococcus
aureus,
3499:Tumor antigens,
3500:B cell maturation
marker,
3501: T cell activation
markers,
3502:B cell activation
markers,
10 872 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q10
MAIT stands for:
12 874 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q12
Atopic individuals are:
11 873 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q11
Central ? Supramolecular Associated Clusters and Peripheral-
Suramolecular Associated clusters relate to:
14 876 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q14
CD69 and Ki-67 are
13 875 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q13
MAGE, PRAME and NY-ESO-1 are examples of
3503:Dendritic cell
activation markers,
3504:Macrophage
activation marker,
3505: Transcription
factors that promote T
helper cell 1 and T
helper cell 2
differentiation,
respectively,
3506:Transcription
factors that promote T
helper cell 2 and T
helper cell 1
differentiation marker,
respectively,
3507:Cytokines that
regulate cell
differentiation into
plasma cells and
memory cells,
respectively,
3508:Proteins secreted
by cytotoxic T cells that
kill infected
macrophages,
3509: B cell receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3510:T cell receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3511:EGF receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
14 876 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q14
CD69 and Ki-67 are
16 878 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q16
MyD88, IRAK1 and IRAKM are molecules that belong to the:
15 877 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q15
T-bet and GATA are:
FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
Sr.No
Question
Id
Question
Descripti
on
Question Body Options
3449: Imatinib,
3450:Bleomycin,
3451:Adriamycin,
3452:cisplatin,
3453:DNA glycosylase,
3454:DNA ligase,
3455:DNA polymerase,
3456:RNA polymerase,
3457:Subunit
association,
3458:Promoter binding,
3459:Initiation and
elongation,
3460:Cation binding,
3461:?70,
3462:?32,
3463:?54,
3464:?28,
3465:5? end of the
tRNA,
3466:3? end of the
tRNA,
3467:Amino acid,
3468:Variable loop of
tRNA,
3469: EF-Tu,
3470:EF-G,
2 864 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q02
The enzyme of E.coli that initiates the repair of double stranded DNA
breaks by homologous recombination (?base excision repair in DNA)
1 863 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q01
For chronic myeloid leukemia one of the best chemotherapy drugs
used is:
4 866 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q04
Four types of ? factors are known ,of them which one used during
Nitrogen deficiency?
3 865 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q03
What is the function of the ? subunit of RNA polymerase?
6 868 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q06
The completion of translocation requires the action of the factor
_________________
5 867 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q05
Once the tRNA is aminoacylated, EF-Tu binds to the tRNA at the
____________
DU PhD In Biomedical Sciences
3471:eIF2,
3472:eIF4G,
3473:E1,
3474:E2,
3475:E3,
3476:E4,
3477:Multiple
phosphorylations,
3478:De-
phosphorylation,
3479:Ubiquitinylation,
3480:Destabilizing by
proteolysis in a
proteasome,
3481:Major
Histocompatibility
Complex molecules
that regulate immunity,
3482:Memory Induced
Complementary
Antigen A and B,
3483:Mouse
Incomplete C-Reactive
Antigen A and B,
3484:Micro- Interleukin
Complex A and B,
3485: Minor antigen of
Inducible T cell,
3486:Mucosal
Associated Invariant T
cell,
6 868 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q06
The completion of translocation requires the action of the factor
_________________
8 870 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q08
At the end of each phase of cell cycle, cyclins activating Cdks in that
phase are inactivated irreversibly by
7 869 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q07
Which of the following is an Ubiquitin activating enzyme?
10 872 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q10
MAIT stands for:
9 871 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q09
MICA and MICB are
3487:Memory
Associated islet cell,
3488:Micro-RNA
Associated Inducible T
cells,
3489: Genes for B cell
maturation,
3490:Genes for T cell
maturation,
3491:miRNAs in
Introns for innate
immunity,
3492:Specific regions
in the immune synapse,
3493: Prone to allergy,
3494:Prone to
autoimmunity,
3495:Tolerant to
allergy,
3496:Tolerant to
infection,
3497: Allergens,
3498:Virulence factors
of Staphylococcus
aureus,
3499:Tumor antigens,
3500:B cell maturation
marker,
3501: T cell activation
markers,
3502:B cell activation
markers,
10 872 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q10
MAIT stands for:
12 874 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q12
Atopic individuals are:
11 873 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q11
Central ? Supramolecular Associated Clusters and Peripheral-
Suramolecular Associated clusters relate to:
14 876 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q14
CD69 and Ki-67 are
13 875 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q13
MAGE, PRAME and NY-ESO-1 are examples of
3503:Dendritic cell
activation markers,
3504:Macrophage
activation marker,
3505: Transcription
factors that promote T
helper cell 1 and T
helper cell 2
differentiation,
respectively,
3506:Transcription
factors that promote T
helper cell 2 and T
helper cell 1
differentiation marker,
respectively,
3507:Cytokines that
regulate cell
differentiation into
plasma cells and
memory cells,
respectively,
3508:Proteins secreted
by cytotoxic T cells that
kill infected
macrophages,
3509: B cell receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3510:T cell receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3511:EGF receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
14 876 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q14
CD69 and Ki-67 are
16 878 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q16
MyD88, IRAK1 and IRAKM are molecules that belong to the:
15 877 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q15
T-bet and GATA are:
3512:Toll like receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3513: Costimulatory
molecules that regulate
immune response,
3514:Transcription
factors that regulate
immune responses,
3515:Kinases that
regulate immune
responses,
3516:Phophatases that
regulate immune
response,
3517: RepA,
3518:Ori gene,
3519:Par,
3520:Rop,
3521: Sythesizes DNA
in 5?- 3? direction,
3522:Facilitate
Phosphodiester bonds ,
3523:Maintain plasmid
supercoiling,
3524:Prevent DNA
from restriction
endonuclease mediated
digestion,
3525: 1,2-Ethanediol,
3526:Ethanol,
16 878 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q16
MyD88, IRAK1 and IRAKM are molecules that belong to the:
18 880 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q18
Plasmid stability in cells is maintained by
17 879 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q17
HVEM and LIGHT are
20 882 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q20
The reaction of water with ethylene oxide yields in the presence of acid
19 881 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q19
DNA ligase
FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
Sr.No
Question
Id
Question
Descripti
on
Question Body Options
3449: Imatinib,
3450:Bleomycin,
3451:Adriamycin,
3452:cisplatin,
3453:DNA glycosylase,
3454:DNA ligase,
3455:DNA polymerase,
3456:RNA polymerase,
3457:Subunit
association,
3458:Promoter binding,
3459:Initiation and
elongation,
3460:Cation binding,
3461:?70,
3462:?32,
3463:?54,
3464:?28,
3465:5? end of the
tRNA,
3466:3? end of the
tRNA,
3467:Amino acid,
3468:Variable loop of
tRNA,
3469: EF-Tu,
3470:EF-G,
2 864 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q02
The enzyme of E.coli that initiates the repair of double stranded DNA
breaks by homologous recombination (?base excision repair in DNA)
1 863 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q01
For chronic myeloid leukemia one of the best chemotherapy drugs
used is:
4 866 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q04
Four types of ? factors are known ,of them which one used during
Nitrogen deficiency?
3 865 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q03
What is the function of the ? subunit of RNA polymerase?
6 868 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q06
The completion of translocation requires the action of the factor
_________________
5 867 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q05
Once the tRNA is aminoacylated, EF-Tu binds to the tRNA at the
____________
DU PhD In Biomedical Sciences
3471:eIF2,
3472:eIF4G,
3473:E1,
3474:E2,
3475:E3,
3476:E4,
3477:Multiple
phosphorylations,
3478:De-
phosphorylation,
3479:Ubiquitinylation,
3480:Destabilizing by
proteolysis in a
proteasome,
3481:Major
Histocompatibility
Complex molecules
that regulate immunity,
3482:Memory Induced
Complementary
Antigen A and B,
3483:Mouse
Incomplete C-Reactive
Antigen A and B,
3484:Micro- Interleukin
Complex A and B,
3485: Minor antigen of
Inducible T cell,
3486:Mucosal
Associated Invariant T
cell,
6 868 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q06
The completion of translocation requires the action of the factor
_________________
8 870 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q08
At the end of each phase of cell cycle, cyclins activating Cdks in that
phase are inactivated irreversibly by
7 869 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q07
Which of the following is an Ubiquitin activating enzyme?
10 872 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q10
MAIT stands for:
9 871 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q09
MICA and MICB are
3487:Memory
Associated islet cell,
3488:Micro-RNA
Associated Inducible T
cells,
3489: Genes for B cell
maturation,
3490:Genes for T cell
maturation,
3491:miRNAs in
Introns for innate
immunity,
3492:Specific regions
in the immune synapse,
3493: Prone to allergy,
3494:Prone to
autoimmunity,
3495:Tolerant to
allergy,
3496:Tolerant to
infection,
3497: Allergens,
3498:Virulence factors
of Staphylococcus
aureus,
3499:Tumor antigens,
3500:B cell maturation
marker,
3501: T cell activation
markers,
3502:B cell activation
markers,
10 872 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q10
MAIT stands for:
12 874 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q12
Atopic individuals are:
11 873 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q11
Central ? Supramolecular Associated Clusters and Peripheral-
Suramolecular Associated clusters relate to:
14 876 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q14
CD69 and Ki-67 are
13 875 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q13
MAGE, PRAME and NY-ESO-1 are examples of
3503:Dendritic cell
activation markers,
3504:Macrophage
activation marker,
3505: Transcription
factors that promote T
helper cell 1 and T
helper cell 2
differentiation,
respectively,
3506:Transcription
factors that promote T
helper cell 2 and T
helper cell 1
differentiation marker,
respectively,
3507:Cytokines that
regulate cell
differentiation into
plasma cells and
memory cells,
respectively,
3508:Proteins secreted
by cytotoxic T cells that
kill infected
macrophages,
3509: B cell receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3510:T cell receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3511:EGF receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
14 876 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q14
CD69 and Ki-67 are
16 878 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q16
MyD88, IRAK1 and IRAKM are molecules that belong to the:
15 877 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q15
T-bet and GATA are:
3512:Toll like receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3513: Costimulatory
molecules that regulate
immune response,
3514:Transcription
factors that regulate
immune responses,
3515:Kinases that
regulate immune
responses,
3516:Phophatases that
regulate immune
response,
3517: RepA,
3518:Ori gene,
3519:Par,
3520:Rop,
3521: Sythesizes DNA
in 5?- 3? direction,
3522:Facilitate
Phosphodiester bonds ,
3523:Maintain plasmid
supercoiling,
3524:Prevent DNA
from restriction
endonuclease mediated
digestion,
3525: 1,2-Ethanediol,
3526:Ethanol,
16 878 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q16
MyD88, IRAK1 and IRAKM are molecules that belong to the:
18 880 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q18
Plasmid stability in cells is maintained by
17 879 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q17
HVEM and LIGHT are
20 882 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q20
The reaction of water with ethylene oxide yields in the presence of acid
19 881 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q19
DNA ligase
3527:Acetic acid,
3528:Acetaldehyde,
3529: SN1,
3530:SN2,
3531:E1,
3532:None of these,
3533: as an acid base
indicator,
3534:to dye silk and
wool,
3535:for dehydration,
3536:as a Lewis base,
3537: an alkaloid,
3538:a phytosteroid,
3539:a carboxylic acid,
3540:a triterpenoid,
3541: 1-Pentyne,
3542:1-Hexyne,
3543:1-Heptyne,
3544:1-Butyne,
3545: Benzaldehyde,
3546:Sodium benzoate
,
3547:Benzyne,
3548:1-Phenylethane,
3549: N,N-
dimethylaniline,
3550:Toluene,
3551:4-Methylaniline,
20 882 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q20
The reaction of water with ethylene oxide yields in the presence of acid
22 884 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q22
Crystal violet is used
21 883 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q21
A transition state of high energy is formed in the following reaction
24 886 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q24
The reaction of Lithium acetylide with n-Butyl bromide yields
23 885 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q23
Formation of turbidity on reaction of a plant extract with
Phosphomolybdic acid indicates the presence of
26 888 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q26
Aniline reacts with 2 moles of Methylchloride to yield
25 887 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q25
The reaction of benzoic acid and sodium bicarbonate yields
FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
Sr.No
Question
Id
Question
Descripti
on
Question Body Options
3449: Imatinib,
3450:Bleomycin,
3451:Adriamycin,
3452:cisplatin,
3453:DNA glycosylase,
3454:DNA ligase,
3455:DNA polymerase,
3456:RNA polymerase,
3457:Subunit
association,
3458:Promoter binding,
3459:Initiation and
elongation,
3460:Cation binding,
3461:?70,
3462:?32,
3463:?54,
3464:?28,
3465:5? end of the
tRNA,
3466:3? end of the
tRNA,
3467:Amino acid,
3468:Variable loop of
tRNA,
3469: EF-Tu,
3470:EF-G,
2 864 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q02
The enzyme of E.coli that initiates the repair of double stranded DNA
breaks by homologous recombination (?base excision repair in DNA)
1 863 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q01
For chronic myeloid leukemia one of the best chemotherapy drugs
used is:
4 866 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q04
Four types of ? factors are known ,of them which one used during
Nitrogen deficiency?
3 865 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q03
What is the function of the ? subunit of RNA polymerase?
6 868 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q06
The completion of translocation requires the action of the factor
_________________
5 867 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q05
Once the tRNA is aminoacylated, EF-Tu binds to the tRNA at the
____________
DU PhD In Biomedical Sciences
3471:eIF2,
3472:eIF4G,
3473:E1,
3474:E2,
3475:E3,
3476:E4,
3477:Multiple
phosphorylations,
3478:De-
phosphorylation,
3479:Ubiquitinylation,
3480:Destabilizing by
proteolysis in a
proteasome,
3481:Major
Histocompatibility
Complex molecules
that regulate immunity,
3482:Memory Induced
Complementary
Antigen A and B,
3483:Mouse
Incomplete C-Reactive
Antigen A and B,
3484:Micro- Interleukin
Complex A and B,
3485: Minor antigen of
Inducible T cell,
3486:Mucosal
Associated Invariant T
cell,
6 868 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q06
The completion of translocation requires the action of the factor
_________________
8 870 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q08
At the end of each phase of cell cycle, cyclins activating Cdks in that
phase are inactivated irreversibly by
7 869 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q07
Which of the following is an Ubiquitin activating enzyme?
10 872 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q10
MAIT stands for:
9 871 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q09
MICA and MICB are
3487:Memory
Associated islet cell,
3488:Micro-RNA
Associated Inducible T
cells,
3489: Genes for B cell
maturation,
3490:Genes for T cell
maturation,
3491:miRNAs in
Introns for innate
immunity,
3492:Specific regions
in the immune synapse,
3493: Prone to allergy,
3494:Prone to
autoimmunity,
3495:Tolerant to
allergy,
3496:Tolerant to
infection,
3497: Allergens,
3498:Virulence factors
of Staphylococcus
aureus,
3499:Tumor antigens,
3500:B cell maturation
marker,
3501: T cell activation
markers,
3502:B cell activation
markers,
10 872 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q10
MAIT stands for:
12 874 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q12
Atopic individuals are:
11 873 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q11
Central ? Supramolecular Associated Clusters and Peripheral-
Suramolecular Associated clusters relate to:
14 876 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q14
CD69 and Ki-67 are
13 875 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q13
MAGE, PRAME and NY-ESO-1 are examples of
3503:Dendritic cell
activation markers,
3504:Macrophage
activation marker,
3505: Transcription
factors that promote T
helper cell 1 and T
helper cell 2
differentiation,
respectively,
3506:Transcription
factors that promote T
helper cell 2 and T
helper cell 1
differentiation marker,
respectively,
3507:Cytokines that
regulate cell
differentiation into
plasma cells and
memory cells,
respectively,
3508:Proteins secreted
by cytotoxic T cells that
kill infected
macrophages,
3509: B cell receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3510:T cell receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3511:EGF receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
14 876 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q14
CD69 and Ki-67 are
16 878 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q16
MyD88, IRAK1 and IRAKM are molecules that belong to the:
15 877 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q15
T-bet and GATA are:
3512:Toll like receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3513: Costimulatory
molecules that regulate
immune response,
3514:Transcription
factors that regulate
immune responses,
3515:Kinases that
regulate immune
responses,
3516:Phophatases that
regulate immune
response,
3517: RepA,
3518:Ori gene,
3519:Par,
3520:Rop,
3521: Sythesizes DNA
in 5?- 3? direction,
3522:Facilitate
Phosphodiester bonds ,
3523:Maintain plasmid
supercoiling,
3524:Prevent DNA
from restriction
endonuclease mediated
digestion,
3525: 1,2-Ethanediol,
3526:Ethanol,
16 878 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q16
MyD88, IRAK1 and IRAKM are molecules that belong to the:
18 880 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q18
Plasmid stability in cells is maintained by
17 879 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q17
HVEM and LIGHT are
20 882 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q20
The reaction of water with ethylene oxide yields in the presence of acid
19 881 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q19
DNA ligase
3527:Acetic acid,
3528:Acetaldehyde,
3529: SN1,
3530:SN2,
3531:E1,
3532:None of these,
3533: as an acid base
indicator,
3534:to dye silk and
wool,
3535:for dehydration,
3536:as a Lewis base,
3537: an alkaloid,
3538:a phytosteroid,
3539:a carboxylic acid,
3540:a triterpenoid,
3541: 1-Pentyne,
3542:1-Hexyne,
3543:1-Heptyne,
3544:1-Butyne,
3545: Benzaldehyde,
3546:Sodium benzoate
,
3547:Benzyne,
3548:1-Phenylethane,
3549: N,N-
dimethylaniline,
3550:Toluene,
3551:4-Methylaniline,
20 882 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q20
The reaction of water with ethylene oxide yields in the presence of acid
22 884 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q22
Crystal violet is used
21 883 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q21
A transition state of high energy is formed in the following reaction
24 886 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q24
The reaction of Lithium acetylide with n-Butyl bromide yields
23 885 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q23
Formation of turbidity on reaction of a plant extract with
Phosphomolybdic acid indicates the presence of
26 888 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q26
Aniline reacts with 2 moles of Methylchloride to yield
25 887 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q25
The reaction of benzoic acid and sodium bicarbonate yields
3552:2,4-
Dimethylaniline,
3553: Butane thiol,
3554:Dibutyldisulfide,
3555:Thiophene,
3556:None of these,
3557: A base,
3558:An acid,
3559:A dehydrating
agent,
3560:None of these,
3561: Neural Control,
3562:Exocrine Control,
3563:Endocrine Control,
3564: Hormonal
Control,
3565:Sarcomeres
shorten. ,
3566:A bands shorten. ,
3567:I bands shorten. ,
3568:Sarcomeres
shorten?and?I bands
shorten. ,
3569:the left ventricle
ejects a larger volume
of blood with each
systole than the right
ventricle.,
26 888 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q26
Aniline reacts with 2 moles of Methylchloride to yield
28 890 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q28
LDA is used as
27 889 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q27
n-Butane reacts with Sulphur at 5600C to yield
30 892 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q30
During isotonic contraction of a skeletal-muscle fibre the
29 891 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q29
Some neurons in the vagus nerve terminate on sinoatrial (pacemaker)
cells in the heart. These neurons secrete acetylcholine, which
ultimately results in a decreased heart rate. This is an example of
31 893 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q31
According to the Frank-Starling mechanism of the heart,
FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
Sr.No
Question
Id
Question
Descripti
on
Question Body Options
3449: Imatinib,
3450:Bleomycin,
3451:Adriamycin,
3452:cisplatin,
3453:DNA glycosylase,
3454:DNA ligase,
3455:DNA polymerase,
3456:RNA polymerase,
3457:Subunit
association,
3458:Promoter binding,
3459:Initiation and
elongation,
3460:Cation binding,
3461:?70,
3462:?32,
3463:?54,
3464:?28,
3465:5? end of the
tRNA,
3466:3? end of the
tRNA,
3467:Amino acid,
3468:Variable loop of
tRNA,
3469: EF-Tu,
3470:EF-G,
2 864 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q02
The enzyme of E.coli that initiates the repair of double stranded DNA
breaks by homologous recombination (?base excision repair in DNA)
1 863 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q01
For chronic myeloid leukemia one of the best chemotherapy drugs
used is:
4 866 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q04
Four types of ? factors are known ,of them which one used during
Nitrogen deficiency?
3 865 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q03
What is the function of the ? subunit of RNA polymerase?
6 868 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q06
The completion of translocation requires the action of the factor
_________________
5 867 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q05
Once the tRNA is aminoacylated, EF-Tu binds to the tRNA at the
____________
DU PhD In Biomedical Sciences
3471:eIF2,
3472:eIF4G,
3473:E1,
3474:E2,
3475:E3,
3476:E4,
3477:Multiple
phosphorylations,
3478:De-
phosphorylation,
3479:Ubiquitinylation,
3480:Destabilizing by
proteolysis in a
proteasome,
3481:Major
Histocompatibility
Complex molecules
that regulate immunity,
3482:Memory Induced
Complementary
Antigen A and B,
3483:Mouse
Incomplete C-Reactive
Antigen A and B,
3484:Micro- Interleukin
Complex A and B,
3485: Minor antigen of
Inducible T cell,
3486:Mucosal
Associated Invariant T
cell,
6 868 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q06
The completion of translocation requires the action of the factor
_________________
8 870 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q08
At the end of each phase of cell cycle, cyclins activating Cdks in that
phase are inactivated irreversibly by
7 869 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q07
Which of the following is an Ubiquitin activating enzyme?
10 872 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q10
MAIT stands for:
9 871 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q09
MICA and MICB are
3487:Memory
Associated islet cell,
3488:Micro-RNA
Associated Inducible T
cells,
3489: Genes for B cell
maturation,
3490:Genes for T cell
maturation,
3491:miRNAs in
Introns for innate
immunity,
3492:Specific regions
in the immune synapse,
3493: Prone to allergy,
3494:Prone to
autoimmunity,
3495:Tolerant to
allergy,
3496:Tolerant to
infection,
3497: Allergens,
3498:Virulence factors
of Staphylococcus
aureus,
3499:Tumor antigens,
3500:B cell maturation
marker,
3501: T cell activation
markers,
3502:B cell activation
markers,
10 872 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q10
MAIT stands for:
12 874 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q12
Atopic individuals are:
11 873 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q11
Central ? Supramolecular Associated Clusters and Peripheral-
Suramolecular Associated clusters relate to:
14 876 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q14
CD69 and Ki-67 are
13 875 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q13
MAGE, PRAME and NY-ESO-1 are examples of
3503:Dendritic cell
activation markers,
3504:Macrophage
activation marker,
3505: Transcription
factors that promote T
helper cell 1 and T
helper cell 2
differentiation,
respectively,
3506:Transcription
factors that promote T
helper cell 2 and T
helper cell 1
differentiation marker,
respectively,
3507:Cytokines that
regulate cell
differentiation into
plasma cells and
memory cells,
respectively,
3508:Proteins secreted
by cytotoxic T cells that
kill infected
macrophages,
3509: B cell receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3510:T cell receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3511:EGF receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
14 876 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q14
CD69 and Ki-67 are
16 878 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q16
MyD88, IRAK1 and IRAKM are molecules that belong to the:
15 877 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q15
T-bet and GATA are:
3512:Toll like receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3513: Costimulatory
molecules that regulate
immune response,
3514:Transcription
factors that regulate
immune responses,
3515:Kinases that
regulate immune
responses,
3516:Phophatases that
regulate immune
response,
3517: RepA,
3518:Ori gene,
3519:Par,
3520:Rop,
3521: Sythesizes DNA
in 5?- 3? direction,
3522:Facilitate
Phosphodiester bonds ,
3523:Maintain plasmid
supercoiling,
3524:Prevent DNA
from restriction
endonuclease mediated
digestion,
3525: 1,2-Ethanediol,
3526:Ethanol,
16 878 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q16
MyD88, IRAK1 and IRAKM are molecules that belong to the:
18 880 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q18
Plasmid stability in cells is maintained by
17 879 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q17
HVEM and LIGHT are
20 882 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q20
The reaction of water with ethylene oxide yields in the presence of acid
19 881 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q19
DNA ligase
3527:Acetic acid,
3528:Acetaldehyde,
3529: SN1,
3530:SN2,
3531:E1,
3532:None of these,
3533: as an acid base
indicator,
3534:to dye silk and
wool,
3535:for dehydration,
3536:as a Lewis base,
3537: an alkaloid,
3538:a phytosteroid,
3539:a carboxylic acid,
3540:a triterpenoid,
3541: 1-Pentyne,
3542:1-Hexyne,
3543:1-Heptyne,
3544:1-Butyne,
3545: Benzaldehyde,
3546:Sodium benzoate
,
3547:Benzyne,
3548:1-Phenylethane,
3549: N,N-
dimethylaniline,
3550:Toluene,
3551:4-Methylaniline,
20 882 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q20
The reaction of water with ethylene oxide yields in the presence of acid
22 884 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q22
Crystal violet is used
21 883 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q21
A transition state of high energy is formed in the following reaction
24 886 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q24
The reaction of Lithium acetylide with n-Butyl bromide yields
23 885 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q23
Formation of turbidity on reaction of a plant extract with
Phosphomolybdic acid indicates the presence of
26 888 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q26
Aniline reacts with 2 moles of Methylchloride to yield
25 887 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q25
The reaction of benzoic acid and sodium bicarbonate yields
3552:2,4-
Dimethylaniline,
3553: Butane thiol,
3554:Dibutyldisulfide,
3555:Thiophene,
3556:None of these,
3557: A base,
3558:An acid,
3559:A dehydrating
agent,
3560:None of these,
3561: Neural Control,
3562:Exocrine Control,
3563:Endocrine Control,
3564: Hormonal
Control,
3565:Sarcomeres
shorten. ,
3566:A bands shorten. ,
3567:I bands shorten. ,
3568:Sarcomeres
shorten?and?I bands
shorten. ,
3569:the left ventricle
ejects a larger volume
of blood with each
systole than the right
ventricle.,
26 888 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q26
Aniline reacts with 2 moles of Methylchloride to yield
28 890 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q28
LDA is used as
27 889 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q27
n-Butane reacts with Sulphur at 5600C to yield
30 892 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q30
During isotonic contraction of a skeletal-muscle fibre the
29 891 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q29
Some neurons in the vagus nerve terminate on sinoatrial (pacemaker)
cells in the heart. These neurons secrete acetylcholine, which
ultimately results in a decreased heart rate. This is an example of
31 893 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q31
According to the Frank-Starling mechanism of the heart,
3570:the intrinsic rate
of the heart's
pacemaker is 100
beats/min.,
3571:cardiac output
increases with
increased heart rate.,
3572: stroke volume
increases with
increased venous
return.,
3573: be lower than
alveolar pressure.,
3574:be between +5
and +10 mmHg above
atmospheric pressure.,
3575:alternate
between being less
than and greater than
atmospheric pressure.,
3576:change as the
respiratory demands of
the body change.,
3577: is dissolved in
the plasma.,
3578:is bound to
hemoglobin.,
3579:is in carbonic
acid.,
3580:is in bicarbonate
ion.,
3581:Plasma-55%,
Protein/WBC-1%, RBC-
45% ,
32 894 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q32
In order for the lungs to function normally, the intrapleural pressure
must
31 893 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q31
According to the Frank-Starling mechanism of the heart,
34 896 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q34
Which is true about composition of Blood
33 895 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q33
Most of the CO2 that is transported in blood
FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
Sr.No
Question
Id
Question
Descripti
on
Question Body Options
3449: Imatinib,
3450:Bleomycin,
3451:Adriamycin,
3452:cisplatin,
3453:DNA glycosylase,
3454:DNA ligase,
3455:DNA polymerase,
3456:RNA polymerase,
3457:Subunit
association,
3458:Promoter binding,
3459:Initiation and
elongation,
3460:Cation binding,
3461:?70,
3462:?32,
3463:?54,
3464:?28,
3465:5? end of the
tRNA,
3466:3? end of the
tRNA,
3467:Amino acid,
3468:Variable loop of
tRNA,
3469: EF-Tu,
3470:EF-G,
2 864 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q02
The enzyme of E.coli that initiates the repair of double stranded DNA
breaks by homologous recombination (?base excision repair in DNA)
1 863 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q01
For chronic myeloid leukemia one of the best chemotherapy drugs
used is:
4 866 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q04
Four types of ? factors are known ,of them which one used during
Nitrogen deficiency?
3 865 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q03
What is the function of the ? subunit of RNA polymerase?
6 868 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q06
The completion of translocation requires the action of the factor
_________________
5 867 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q05
Once the tRNA is aminoacylated, EF-Tu binds to the tRNA at the
____________
DU PhD In Biomedical Sciences
3471:eIF2,
3472:eIF4G,
3473:E1,
3474:E2,
3475:E3,
3476:E4,
3477:Multiple
phosphorylations,
3478:De-
phosphorylation,
3479:Ubiquitinylation,
3480:Destabilizing by
proteolysis in a
proteasome,
3481:Major
Histocompatibility
Complex molecules
that regulate immunity,
3482:Memory Induced
Complementary
Antigen A and B,
3483:Mouse
Incomplete C-Reactive
Antigen A and B,
3484:Micro- Interleukin
Complex A and B,
3485: Minor antigen of
Inducible T cell,
3486:Mucosal
Associated Invariant T
cell,
6 868 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q06
The completion of translocation requires the action of the factor
_________________
8 870 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q08
At the end of each phase of cell cycle, cyclins activating Cdks in that
phase are inactivated irreversibly by
7 869 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q07
Which of the following is an Ubiquitin activating enzyme?
10 872 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q10
MAIT stands for:
9 871 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q09
MICA and MICB are
3487:Memory
Associated islet cell,
3488:Micro-RNA
Associated Inducible T
cells,
3489: Genes for B cell
maturation,
3490:Genes for T cell
maturation,
3491:miRNAs in
Introns for innate
immunity,
3492:Specific regions
in the immune synapse,
3493: Prone to allergy,
3494:Prone to
autoimmunity,
3495:Tolerant to
allergy,
3496:Tolerant to
infection,
3497: Allergens,
3498:Virulence factors
of Staphylococcus
aureus,
3499:Tumor antigens,
3500:B cell maturation
marker,
3501: T cell activation
markers,
3502:B cell activation
markers,
10 872 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q10
MAIT stands for:
12 874 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q12
Atopic individuals are:
11 873 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q11
Central ? Supramolecular Associated Clusters and Peripheral-
Suramolecular Associated clusters relate to:
14 876 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q14
CD69 and Ki-67 are
13 875 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q13
MAGE, PRAME and NY-ESO-1 are examples of
3503:Dendritic cell
activation markers,
3504:Macrophage
activation marker,
3505: Transcription
factors that promote T
helper cell 1 and T
helper cell 2
differentiation,
respectively,
3506:Transcription
factors that promote T
helper cell 2 and T
helper cell 1
differentiation marker,
respectively,
3507:Cytokines that
regulate cell
differentiation into
plasma cells and
memory cells,
respectively,
3508:Proteins secreted
by cytotoxic T cells that
kill infected
macrophages,
3509: B cell receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3510:T cell receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3511:EGF receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
14 876 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q14
CD69 and Ki-67 are
16 878 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q16
MyD88, IRAK1 and IRAKM are molecules that belong to the:
15 877 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q15
T-bet and GATA are:
3512:Toll like receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3513: Costimulatory
molecules that regulate
immune response,
3514:Transcription
factors that regulate
immune responses,
3515:Kinases that
regulate immune
responses,
3516:Phophatases that
regulate immune
response,
3517: RepA,
3518:Ori gene,
3519:Par,
3520:Rop,
3521: Sythesizes DNA
in 5?- 3? direction,
3522:Facilitate
Phosphodiester bonds ,
3523:Maintain plasmid
supercoiling,
3524:Prevent DNA
from restriction
endonuclease mediated
digestion,
3525: 1,2-Ethanediol,
3526:Ethanol,
16 878 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q16
MyD88, IRAK1 and IRAKM are molecules that belong to the:
18 880 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q18
Plasmid stability in cells is maintained by
17 879 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q17
HVEM and LIGHT are
20 882 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q20
The reaction of water with ethylene oxide yields in the presence of acid
19 881 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q19
DNA ligase
3527:Acetic acid,
3528:Acetaldehyde,
3529: SN1,
3530:SN2,
3531:E1,
3532:None of these,
3533: as an acid base
indicator,
3534:to dye silk and
wool,
3535:for dehydration,
3536:as a Lewis base,
3537: an alkaloid,
3538:a phytosteroid,
3539:a carboxylic acid,
3540:a triterpenoid,
3541: 1-Pentyne,
3542:1-Hexyne,
3543:1-Heptyne,
3544:1-Butyne,
3545: Benzaldehyde,
3546:Sodium benzoate
,
3547:Benzyne,
3548:1-Phenylethane,
3549: N,N-
dimethylaniline,
3550:Toluene,
3551:4-Methylaniline,
20 882 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q20
The reaction of water with ethylene oxide yields in the presence of acid
22 884 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q22
Crystal violet is used
21 883 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q21
A transition state of high energy is formed in the following reaction
24 886 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q24
The reaction of Lithium acetylide with n-Butyl bromide yields
23 885 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q23
Formation of turbidity on reaction of a plant extract with
Phosphomolybdic acid indicates the presence of
26 888 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q26
Aniline reacts with 2 moles of Methylchloride to yield
25 887 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q25
The reaction of benzoic acid and sodium bicarbonate yields
3552:2,4-
Dimethylaniline,
3553: Butane thiol,
3554:Dibutyldisulfide,
3555:Thiophene,
3556:None of these,
3557: A base,
3558:An acid,
3559:A dehydrating
agent,
3560:None of these,
3561: Neural Control,
3562:Exocrine Control,
3563:Endocrine Control,
3564: Hormonal
Control,
3565:Sarcomeres
shorten. ,
3566:A bands shorten. ,
3567:I bands shorten. ,
3568:Sarcomeres
shorten?and?I bands
shorten. ,
3569:the left ventricle
ejects a larger volume
of blood with each
systole than the right
ventricle.,
26 888 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q26
Aniline reacts with 2 moles of Methylchloride to yield
28 890 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q28
LDA is used as
27 889 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q27
n-Butane reacts with Sulphur at 5600C to yield
30 892 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q30
During isotonic contraction of a skeletal-muscle fibre the
29 891 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q29
Some neurons in the vagus nerve terminate on sinoatrial (pacemaker)
cells in the heart. These neurons secrete acetylcholine, which
ultimately results in a decreased heart rate. This is an example of
31 893 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q31
According to the Frank-Starling mechanism of the heart,
3570:the intrinsic rate
of the heart's
pacemaker is 100
beats/min.,
3571:cardiac output
increases with
increased heart rate.,
3572: stroke volume
increases with
increased venous
return.,
3573: be lower than
alveolar pressure.,
3574:be between +5
and +10 mmHg above
atmospheric pressure.,
3575:alternate
between being less
than and greater than
atmospheric pressure.,
3576:change as the
respiratory demands of
the body change.,
3577: is dissolved in
the plasma.,
3578:is bound to
hemoglobin.,
3579:is in carbonic
acid.,
3580:is in bicarbonate
ion.,
3581:Plasma-55%,
Protein/WBC-1%, RBC-
45% ,
32 894 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q32
In order for the lungs to function normally, the intrapleural pressure
must
31 893 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q31
According to the Frank-Starling mechanism of the heart,
34 896 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q34
Which is true about composition of Blood
33 895 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q33
Most of the CO2 that is transported in blood
3582:Plasma-50%,
Protein/WBC-3%, RBC-
47% ,
3583:Plasma-45%,
Protein/WBC-4%, RBC-
51% ,
3584:Plasma-35%,
Protein/WBC-2%, RBC-
65% ,
3585: Low blood
volume, Anemia, poor
blood flow,
3586:Low Hemoglobin,
excess blood flow,
3587:Pulmonary
diseases,
hypererythremia,
excess blood flow,
3588:Low blood
volume,
hypererythremia,
pulmonary diseases,
3589:I and II only ,
3590:II and III only,
3591:I and III only ,
3592:I, II and III,
3593:Lampbrush,
3594:Polytene,
3595:Supernumerary,
3596:B-chromosomes.,
3597: Eight,
3598:Four,
34 896 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q34
Which is true about composition of Blood
36 898 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q36
Mendel?s principle of dominance stated that when an individual has a
hybrid genotype, it will only express thedominant trait in its
phenotype. Which of the following types of inheritance do not agree
with this principle??I) co-dominance?II) multiple alleles?III) incomplete
dominance
35 897 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q35
Erythropoietin secretion is stimulated by
38 900 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q38
Drosophila has four pairs of chromosomes. How many linkage groups
does it have
37 899 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q37
Chromosomes found in the salivary gland of Drosophila is
FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
Sr.No
Question
Id
Question
Descripti
on
Question Body Options
3449: Imatinib,
3450:Bleomycin,
3451:Adriamycin,
3452:cisplatin,
3453:DNA glycosylase,
3454:DNA ligase,
3455:DNA polymerase,
3456:RNA polymerase,
3457:Subunit
association,
3458:Promoter binding,
3459:Initiation and
elongation,
3460:Cation binding,
3461:?70,
3462:?32,
3463:?54,
3464:?28,
3465:5? end of the
tRNA,
3466:3? end of the
tRNA,
3467:Amino acid,
3468:Variable loop of
tRNA,
3469: EF-Tu,
3470:EF-G,
2 864 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q02
The enzyme of E.coli that initiates the repair of double stranded DNA
breaks by homologous recombination (?base excision repair in DNA)
1 863 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q01
For chronic myeloid leukemia one of the best chemotherapy drugs
used is:
4 866 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q04
Four types of ? factors are known ,of them which one used during
Nitrogen deficiency?
3 865 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q03
What is the function of the ? subunit of RNA polymerase?
6 868 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q06
The completion of translocation requires the action of the factor
_________________
5 867 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q05
Once the tRNA is aminoacylated, EF-Tu binds to the tRNA at the
____________
DU PhD In Biomedical Sciences
3471:eIF2,
3472:eIF4G,
3473:E1,
3474:E2,
3475:E3,
3476:E4,
3477:Multiple
phosphorylations,
3478:De-
phosphorylation,
3479:Ubiquitinylation,
3480:Destabilizing by
proteolysis in a
proteasome,
3481:Major
Histocompatibility
Complex molecules
that regulate immunity,
3482:Memory Induced
Complementary
Antigen A and B,
3483:Mouse
Incomplete C-Reactive
Antigen A and B,
3484:Micro- Interleukin
Complex A and B,
3485: Minor antigen of
Inducible T cell,
3486:Mucosal
Associated Invariant T
cell,
6 868 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q06
The completion of translocation requires the action of the factor
_________________
8 870 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q08
At the end of each phase of cell cycle, cyclins activating Cdks in that
phase are inactivated irreversibly by
7 869 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q07
Which of the following is an Ubiquitin activating enzyme?
10 872 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q10
MAIT stands for:
9 871 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q09
MICA and MICB are
3487:Memory
Associated islet cell,
3488:Micro-RNA
Associated Inducible T
cells,
3489: Genes for B cell
maturation,
3490:Genes for T cell
maturation,
3491:miRNAs in
Introns for innate
immunity,
3492:Specific regions
in the immune synapse,
3493: Prone to allergy,
3494:Prone to
autoimmunity,
3495:Tolerant to
allergy,
3496:Tolerant to
infection,
3497: Allergens,
3498:Virulence factors
of Staphylococcus
aureus,
3499:Tumor antigens,
3500:B cell maturation
marker,
3501: T cell activation
markers,
3502:B cell activation
markers,
10 872 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q10
MAIT stands for:
12 874 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q12
Atopic individuals are:
11 873 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q11
Central ? Supramolecular Associated Clusters and Peripheral-
Suramolecular Associated clusters relate to:
14 876 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q14
CD69 and Ki-67 are
13 875 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q13
MAGE, PRAME and NY-ESO-1 are examples of
3503:Dendritic cell
activation markers,
3504:Macrophage
activation marker,
3505: Transcription
factors that promote T
helper cell 1 and T
helper cell 2
differentiation,
respectively,
3506:Transcription
factors that promote T
helper cell 2 and T
helper cell 1
differentiation marker,
respectively,
3507:Cytokines that
regulate cell
differentiation into
plasma cells and
memory cells,
respectively,
3508:Proteins secreted
by cytotoxic T cells that
kill infected
macrophages,
3509: B cell receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3510:T cell receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3511:EGF receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
14 876 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q14
CD69 and Ki-67 are
16 878 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q16
MyD88, IRAK1 and IRAKM are molecules that belong to the:
15 877 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q15
T-bet and GATA are:
3512:Toll like receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3513: Costimulatory
molecules that regulate
immune response,
3514:Transcription
factors that regulate
immune responses,
3515:Kinases that
regulate immune
responses,
3516:Phophatases that
regulate immune
response,
3517: RepA,
3518:Ori gene,
3519:Par,
3520:Rop,
3521: Sythesizes DNA
in 5?- 3? direction,
3522:Facilitate
Phosphodiester bonds ,
3523:Maintain plasmid
supercoiling,
3524:Prevent DNA
from restriction
endonuclease mediated
digestion,
3525: 1,2-Ethanediol,
3526:Ethanol,
16 878 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q16
MyD88, IRAK1 and IRAKM are molecules that belong to the:
18 880 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q18
Plasmid stability in cells is maintained by
17 879 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q17
HVEM and LIGHT are
20 882 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q20
The reaction of water with ethylene oxide yields in the presence of acid
19 881 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q19
DNA ligase
3527:Acetic acid,
3528:Acetaldehyde,
3529: SN1,
3530:SN2,
3531:E1,
3532:None of these,
3533: as an acid base
indicator,
3534:to dye silk and
wool,
3535:for dehydration,
3536:as a Lewis base,
3537: an alkaloid,
3538:a phytosteroid,
3539:a carboxylic acid,
3540:a triterpenoid,
3541: 1-Pentyne,
3542:1-Hexyne,
3543:1-Heptyne,
3544:1-Butyne,
3545: Benzaldehyde,
3546:Sodium benzoate
,
3547:Benzyne,
3548:1-Phenylethane,
3549: N,N-
dimethylaniline,
3550:Toluene,
3551:4-Methylaniline,
20 882 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q20
The reaction of water with ethylene oxide yields in the presence of acid
22 884 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q22
Crystal violet is used
21 883 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q21
A transition state of high energy is formed in the following reaction
24 886 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q24
The reaction of Lithium acetylide with n-Butyl bromide yields
23 885 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q23
Formation of turbidity on reaction of a plant extract with
Phosphomolybdic acid indicates the presence of
26 888 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q26
Aniline reacts with 2 moles of Methylchloride to yield
25 887 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q25
The reaction of benzoic acid and sodium bicarbonate yields
3552:2,4-
Dimethylaniline,
3553: Butane thiol,
3554:Dibutyldisulfide,
3555:Thiophene,
3556:None of these,
3557: A base,
3558:An acid,
3559:A dehydrating
agent,
3560:None of these,
3561: Neural Control,
3562:Exocrine Control,
3563:Endocrine Control,
3564: Hormonal
Control,
3565:Sarcomeres
shorten. ,
3566:A bands shorten. ,
3567:I bands shorten. ,
3568:Sarcomeres
shorten?and?I bands
shorten. ,
3569:the left ventricle
ejects a larger volume
of blood with each
systole than the right
ventricle.,
26 888 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q26
Aniline reacts with 2 moles of Methylchloride to yield
28 890 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q28
LDA is used as
27 889 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q27
n-Butane reacts with Sulphur at 5600C to yield
30 892 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q30
During isotonic contraction of a skeletal-muscle fibre the
29 891 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q29
Some neurons in the vagus nerve terminate on sinoatrial (pacemaker)
cells in the heart. These neurons secrete acetylcholine, which
ultimately results in a decreased heart rate. This is an example of
31 893 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q31
According to the Frank-Starling mechanism of the heart,
3570:the intrinsic rate
of the heart's
pacemaker is 100
beats/min.,
3571:cardiac output
increases with
increased heart rate.,
3572: stroke volume
increases with
increased venous
return.,
3573: be lower than
alveolar pressure.,
3574:be between +5
and +10 mmHg above
atmospheric pressure.,
3575:alternate
between being less
than and greater than
atmospheric pressure.,
3576:change as the
respiratory demands of
the body change.,
3577: is dissolved in
the plasma.,
3578:is bound to
hemoglobin.,
3579:is in carbonic
acid.,
3580:is in bicarbonate
ion.,
3581:Plasma-55%,
Protein/WBC-1%, RBC-
45% ,
32 894 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q32
In order for the lungs to function normally, the intrapleural pressure
must
31 893 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q31
According to the Frank-Starling mechanism of the heart,
34 896 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q34
Which is true about composition of Blood
33 895 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q33
Most of the CO2 that is transported in blood
3582:Plasma-50%,
Protein/WBC-3%, RBC-
47% ,
3583:Plasma-45%,
Protein/WBC-4%, RBC-
51% ,
3584:Plasma-35%,
Protein/WBC-2%, RBC-
65% ,
3585: Low blood
volume, Anemia, poor
blood flow,
3586:Low Hemoglobin,
excess blood flow,
3587:Pulmonary
diseases,
hypererythremia,
excess blood flow,
3588:Low blood
volume,
hypererythremia,
pulmonary diseases,
3589:I and II only ,
3590:II and III only,
3591:I and III only ,
3592:I, II and III,
3593:Lampbrush,
3594:Polytene,
3595:Supernumerary,
3596:B-chromosomes.,
3597: Eight,
3598:Four,
34 896 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q34
Which is true about composition of Blood
36 898 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q36
Mendel?s principle of dominance stated that when an individual has a
hybrid genotype, it will only express thedominant trait in its
phenotype. Which of the following types of inheritance do not agree
with this principle??I) co-dominance?II) multiple alleles?III) incomplete
dominance
35 897 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q35
Erythropoietin secretion is stimulated by
38 900 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q38
Drosophila has four pairs of chromosomes. How many linkage groups
does it have
37 899 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q37
Chromosomes found in the salivary gland of Drosophila is
3599:One less than the
pairs of chromosomes,
3600:One more than
the pairs of
chromosomes,
3601:Pluripotent ,
3602:totipotent ,
3603:determined ,
3604:differentiated ,
3605: the point of
sperm entry,
3606:gravity,
3607:the point of
contact with uterus,
3608:genetics
difference in the cells,
3609:Have one more
membrane that helps
retain the crystal violet
stain,
3610:Have multiple
layers of peptidoglycan
that help retain the
crystal violet stain,
3611:Have a thick
capsule that traps the
crystal violet stain,
3612:Have periplasmic
space that trap the
crystal violet,
38 900 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q38
Drosophila has four pairs of chromosomes. How many linkage groups
does it have
40 902 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q40
The initial dorsal ventral axis in amphibian embryo is determined by
39 901 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q39
During the development, if a cell has committed to a particular fate, it
is said to be
41 903 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q41
Gram Positive bacteria
FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
Sr.No
Question
Id
Question
Descripti
on
Question Body Options
3449: Imatinib,
3450:Bleomycin,
3451:Adriamycin,
3452:cisplatin,
3453:DNA glycosylase,
3454:DNA ligase,
3455:DNA polymerase,
3456:RNA polymerase,
3457:Subunit
association,
3458:Promoter binding,
3459:Initiation and
elongation,
3460:Cation binding,
3461:?70,
3462:?32,
3463:?54,
3464:?28,
3465:5? end of the
tRNA,
3466:3? end of the
tRNA,
3467:Amino acid,
3468:Variable loop of
tRNA,
3469: EF-Tu,
3470:EF-G,
2 864 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q02
The enzyme of E.coli that initiates the repair of double stranded DNA
breaks by homologous recombination (?base excision repair in DNA)
1 863 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q01
For chronic myeloid leukemia one of the best chemotherapy drugs
used is:
4 866 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q04
Four types of ? factors are known ,of them which one used during
Nitrogen deficiency?
3 865 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q03
What is the function of the ? subunit of RNA polymerase?
6 868 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q06
The completion of translocation requires the action of the factor
_________________
5 867 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q05
Once the tRNA is aminoacylated, EF-Tu binds to the tRNA at the
____________
DU PhD In Biomedical Sciences
3471:eIF2,
3472:eIF4G,
3473:E1,
3474:E2,
3475:E3,
3476:E4,
3477:Multiple
phosphorylations,
3478:De-
phosphorylation,
3479:Ubiquitinylation,
3480:Destabilizing by
proteolysis in a
proteasome,
3481:Major
Histocompatibility
Complex molecules
that regulate immunity,
3482:Memory Induced
Complementary
Antigen A and B,
3483:Mouse
Incomplete C-Reactive
Antigen A and B,
3484:Micro- Interleukin
Complex A and B,
3485: Minor antigen of
Inducible T cell,
3486:Mucosal
Associated Invariant T
cell,
6 868 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q06
The completion of translocation requires the action of the factor
_________________
8 870 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q08
At the end of each phase of cell cycle, cyclins activating Cdks in that
phase are inactivated irreversibly by
7 869 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q07
Which of the following is an Ubiquitin activating enzyme?
10 872 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q10
MAIT stands for:
9 871 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q09
MICA and MICB are
3487:Memory
Associated islet cell,
3488:Micro-RNA
Associated Inducible T
cells,
3489: Genes for B cell
maturation,
3490:Genes for T cell
maturation,
3491:miRNAs in
Introns for innate
immunity,
3492:Specific regions
in the immune synapse,
3493: Prone to allergy,
3494:Prone to
autoimmunity,
3495:Tolerant to
allergy,
3496:Tolerant to
infection,
3497: Allergens,
3498:Virulence factors
of Staphylococcus
aureus,
3499:Tumor antigens,
3500:B cell maturation
marker,
3501: T cell activation
markers,
3502:B cell activation
markers,
10 872 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q10
MAIT stands for:
12 874 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q12
Atopic individuals are:
11 873 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q11
Central ? Supramolecular Associated Clusters and Peripheral-
Suramolecular Associated clusters relate to:
14 876 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q14
CD69 and Ki-67 are
13 875 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q13
MAGE, PRAME and NY-ESO-1 are examples of
3503:Dendritic cell
activation markers,
3504:Macrophage
activation marker,
3505: Transcription
factors that promote T
helper cell 1 and T
helper cell 2
differentiation,
respectively,
3506:Transcription
factors that promote T
helper cell 2 and T
helper cell 1
differentiation marker,
respectively,
3507:Cytokines that
regulate cell
differentiation into
plasma cells and
memory cells,
respectively,
3508:Proteins secreted
by cytotoxic T cells that
kill infected
macrophages,
3509: B cell receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3510:T cell receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3511:EGF receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
14 876 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q14
CD69 and Ki-67 are
16 878 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q16
MyD88, IRAK1 and IRAKM are molecules that belong to the:
15 877 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q15
T-bet and GATA are:
3512:Toll like receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3513: Costimulatory
molecules that regulate
immune response,
3514:Transcription
factors that regulate
immune responses,
3515:Kinases that
regulate immune
responses,
3516:Phophatases that
regulate immune
response,
3517: RepA,
3518:Ori gene,
3519:Par,
3520:Rop,
3521: Sythesizes DNA
in 5?- 3? direction,
3522:Facilitate
Phosphodiester bonds ,
3523:Maintain plasmid
supercoiling,
3524:Prevent DNA
from restriction
endonuclease mediated
digestion,
3525: 1,2-Ethanediol,
3526:Ethanol,
16 878 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q16
MyD88, IRAK1 and IRAKM are molecules that belong to the:
18 880 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q18
Plasmid stability in cells is maintained by
17 879 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q17
HVEM and LIGHT are
20 882 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q20
The reaction of water with ethylene oxide yields in the presence of acid
19 881 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q19
DNA ligase
3527:Acetic acid,
3528:Acetaldehyde,
3529: SN1,
3530:SN2,
3531:E1,
3532:None of these,
3533: as an acid base
indicator,
3534:to dye silk and
wool,
3535:for dehydration,
3536:as a Lewis base,
3537: an alkaloid,
3538:a phytosteroid,
3539:a carboxylic acid,
3540:a triterpenoid,
3541: 1-Pentyne,
3542:1-Hexyne,
3543:1-Heptyne,
3544:1-Butyne,
3545: Benzaldehyde,
3546:Sodium benzoate
,
3547:Benzyne,
3548:1-Phenylethane,
3549: N,N-
dimethylaniline,
3550:Toluene,
3551:4-Methylaniline,
20 882 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q20
The reaction of water with ethylene oxide yields in the presence of acid
22 884 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q22
Crystal violet is used
21 883 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q21
A transition state of high energy is formed in the following reaction
24 886 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q24
The reaction of Lithium acetylide with n-Butyl bromide yields
23 885 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q23
Formation of turbidity on reaction of a plant extract with
Phosphomolybdic acid indicates the presence of
26 888 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q26
Aniline reacts with 2 moles of Methylchloride to yield
25 887 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q25
The reaction of benzoic acid and sodium bicarbonate yields
3552:2,4-
Dimethylaniline,
3553: Butane thiol,
3554:Dibutyldisulfide,
3555:Thiophene,
3556:None of these,
3557: A base,
3558:An acid,
3559:A dehydrating
agent,
3560:None of these,
3561: Neural Control,
3562:Exocrine Control,
3563:Endocrine Control,
3564: Hormonal
Control,
3565:Sarcomeres
shorten. ,
3566:A bands shorten. ,
3567:I bands shorten. ,
3568:Sarcomeres
shorten?and?I bands
shorten. ,
3569:the left ventricle
ejects a larger volume
of blood with each
systole than the right
ventricle.,
26 888 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q26
Aniline reacts with 2 moles of Methylchloride to yield
28 890 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q28
LDA is used as
27 889 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q27
n-Butane reacts with Sulphur at 5600C to yield
30 892 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q30
During isotonic contraction of a skeletal-muscle fibre the
29 891 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q29
Some neurons in the vagus nerve terminate on sinoatrial (pacemaker)
cells in the heart. These neurons secrete acetylcholine, which
ultimately results in a decreased heart rate. This is an example of
31 893 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q31
According to the Frank-Starling mechanism of the heart,
3570:the intrinsic rate
of the heart's
pacemaker is 100
beats/min.,
3571:cardiac output
increases with
increased heart rate.,
3572: stroke volume
increases with
increased venous
return.,
3573: be lower than
alveolar pressure.,
3574:be between +5
and +10 mmHg above
atmospheric pressure.,
3575:alternate
between being less
than and greater than
atmospheric pressure.,
3576:change as the
respiratory demands of
the body change.,
3577: is dissolved in
the plasma.,
3578:is bound to
hemoglobin.,
3579:is in carbonic
acid.,
3580:is in bicarbonate
ion.,
3581:Plasma-55%,
Protein/WBC-1%, RBC-
45% ,
32 894 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q32
In order for the lungs to function normally, the intrapleural pressure
must
31 893 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q31
According to the Frank-Starling mechanism of the heart,
34 896 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q34
Which is true about composition of Blood
33 895 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q33
Most of the CO2 that is transported in blood
3582:Plasma-50%,
Protein/WBC-3%, RBC-
47% ,
3583:Plasma-45%,
Protein/WBC-4%, RBC-
51% ,
3584:Plasma-35%,
Protein/WBC-2%, RBC-
65% ,
3585: Low blood
volume, Anemia, poor
blood flow,
3586:Low Hemoglobin,
excess blood flow,
3587:Pulmonary
diseases,
hypererythremia,
excess blood flow,
3588:Low blood
volume,
hypererythremia,
pulmonary diseases,
3589:I and II only ,
3590:II and III only,
3591:I and III only ,
3592:I, II and III,
3593:Lampbrush,
3594:Polytene,
3595:Supernumerary,
3596:B-chromosomes.,
3597: Eight,
3598:Four,
34 896 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q34
Which is true about composition of Blood
36 898 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q36
Mendel?s principle of dominance stated that when an individual has a
hybrid genotype, it will only express thedominant trait in its
phenotype. Which of the following types of inheritance do not agree
with this principle??I) co-dominance?II) multiple alleles?III) incomplete
dominance
35 897 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q35
Erythropoietin secretion is stimulated by
38 900 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q38
Drosophila has four pairs of chromosomes. How many linkage groups
does it have
37 899 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q37
Chromosomes found in the salivary gland of Drosophila is
3599:One less than the
pairs of chromosomes,
3600:One more than
the pairs of
chromosomes,
3601:Pluripotent ,
3602:totipotent ,
3603:determined ,
3604:differentiated ,
3605: the point of
sperm entry,
3606:gravity,
3607:the point of
contact with uterus,
3608:genetics
difference in the cells,
3609:Have one more
membrane that helps
retain the crystal violet
stain,
3610:Have multiple
layers of peptidoglycan
that help retain the
crystal violet stain,
3611:Have a thick
capsule that traps the
crystal violet stain,
3612:Have periplasmic
space that trap the
crystal violet,
38 900 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q38
Drosophila has four pairs of chromosomes. How many linkage groups
does it have
40 902 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q40
The initial dorsal ventral axis in amphibian embryo is determined by
39 901 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q39
During the development, if a cell has committed to a particular fate, it
is said to be
41 903 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q41
Gram Positive bacteria
3613:They may carry
genes that give their
host a selective
advantage ,
3614:They can render
bacteria drug resistant.
,
3615:None of the
above ,
3616:Both (They can
render bacteria drug
resistant) and (They
may carry genes that
give their host a
selective advantage) ,
3617: Help cells attach
to metal object,
3618:help cells to
magnetically attach to
each other,
3619:Help cells to float
on the surface of fresh
water bodies,
3620:Help cells to
orient in earth
magnetic field,
3621: Inhibit COX-1,
3622:Inhibit COX-2,
3623:Do not inhibit
COX-1 or COX-2,
3624:Both Inhibit COX-
1 and Inhibit COX-2,
42 904 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q42
Plasmids are important to many bacteria because
44 906 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q44
Action of traditional NSAID's
43 905 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q43
Magnetosomes present in some bacteria
FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
Sr.No
Question
Id
Question
Descripti
on
Question Body Options
3449: Imatinib,
3450:Bleomycin,
3451:Adriamycin,
3452:cisplatin,
3453:DNA glycosylase,
3454:DNA ligase,
3455:DNA polymerase,
3456:RNA polymerase,
3457:Subunit
association,
3458:Promoter binding,
3459:Initiation and
elongation,
3460:Cation binding,
3461:?70,
3462:?32,
3463:?54,
3464:?28,
3465:5? end of the
tRNA,
3466:3? end of the
tRNA,
3467:Amino acid,
3468:Variable loop of
tRNA,
3469: EF-Tu,
3470:EF-G,
2 864 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q02
The enzyme of E.coli that initiates the repair of double stranded DNA
breaks by homologous recombination (?base excision repair in DNA)
1 863 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q01
For chronic myeloid leukemia one of the best chemotherapy drugs
used is:
4 866 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q04
Four types of ? factors are known ,of them which one used during
Nitrogen deficiency?
3 865 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q03
What is the function of the ? subunit of RNA polymerase?
6 868 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q06
The completion of translocation requires the action of the factor
_________________
5 867 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q05
Once the tRNA is aminoacylated, EF-Tu binds to the tRNA at the
____________
DU PhD In Biomedical Sciences
3471:eIF2,
3472:eIF4G,
3473:E1,
3474:E2,
3475:E3,
3476:E4,
3477:Multiple
phosphorylations,
3478:De-
phosphorylation,
3479:Ubiquitinylation,
3480:Destabilizing by
proteolysis in a
proteasome,
3481:Major
Histocompatibility
Complex molecules
that regulate immunity,
3482:Memory Induced
Complementary
Antigen A and B,
3483:Mouse
Incomplete C-Reactive
Antigen A and B,
3484:Micro- Interleukin
Complex A and B,
3485: Minor antigen of
Inducible T cell,
3486:Mucosal
Associated Invariant T
cell,
6 868 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q06
The completion of translocation requires the action of the factor
_________________
8 870 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q08
At the end of each phase of cell cycle, cyclins activating Cdks in that
phase are inactivated irreversibly by
7 869 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q07
Which of the following is an Ubiquitin activating enzyme?
10 872 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q10
MAIT stands for:
9 871 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q09
MICA and MICB are
3487:Memory
Associated islet cell,
3488:Micro-RNA
Associated Inducible T
cells,
3489: Genes for B cell
maturation,
3490:Genes for T cell
maturation,
3491:miRNAs in
Introns for innate
immunity,
3492:Specific regions
in the immune synapse,
3493: Prone to allergy,
3494:Prone to
autoimmunity,
3495:Tolerant to
allergy,
3496:Tolerant to
infection,
3497: Allergens,
3498:Virulence factors
of Staphylococcus
aureus,
3499:Tumor antigens,
3500:B cell maturation
marker,
3501: T cell activation
markers,
3502:B cell activation
markers,
10 872 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q10
MAIT stands for:
12 874 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q12
Atopic individuals are:
11 873 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q11
Central ? Supramolecular Associated Clusters and Peripheral-
Suramolecular Associated clusters relate to:
14 876 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q14
CD69 and Ki-67 are
13 875 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q13
MAGE, PRAME and NY-ESO-1 are examples of
3503:Dendritic cell
activation markers,
3504:Macrophage
activation marker,
3505: Transcription
factors that promote T
helper cell 1 and T
helper cell 2
differentiation,
respectively,
3506:Transcription
factors that promote T
helper cell 2 and T
helper cell 1
differentiation marker,
respectively,
3507:Cytokines that
regulate cell
differentiation into
plasma cells and
memory cells,
respectively,
3508:Proteins secreted
by cytotoxic T cells that
kill infected
macrophages,
3509: B cell receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3510:T cell receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3511:EGF receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
14 876 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q14
CD69 and Ki-67 are
16 878 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q16
MyD88, IRAK1 and IRAKM are molecules that belong to the:
15 877 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q15
T-bet and GATA are:
3512:Toll like receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3513: Costimulatory
molecules that regulate
immune response,
3514:Transcription
factors that regulate
immune responses,
3515:Kinases that
regulate immune
responses,
3516:Phophatases that
regulate immune
response,
3517: RepA,
3518:Ori gene,
3519:Par,
3520:Rop,
3521: Sythesizes DNA
in 5?- 3? direction,
3522:Facilitate
Phosphodiester bonds ,
3523:Maintain plasmid
supercoiling,
3524:Prevent DNA
from restriction
endonuclease mediated
digestion,
3525: 1,2-Ethanediol,
3526:Ethanol,
16 878 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q16
MyD88, IRAK1 and IRAKM are molecules that belong to the:
18 880 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q18
Plasmid stability in cells is maintained by
17 879 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q17
HVEM and LIGHT are
20 882 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q20
The reaction of water with ethylene oxide yields in the presence of acid
19 881 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q19
DNA ligase
3527:Acetic acid,
3528:Acetaldehyde,
3529: SN1,
3530:SN2,
3531:E1,
3532:None of these,
3533: as an acid base
indicator,
3534:to dye silk and
wool,
3535:for dehydration,
3536:as a Lewis base,
3537: an alkaloid,
3538:a phytosteroid,
3539:a carboxylic acid,
3540:a triterpenoid,
3541: 1-Pentyne,
3542:1-Hexyne,
3543:1-Heptyne,
3544:1-Butyne,
3545: Benzaldehyde,
3546:Sodium benzoate
,
3547:Benzyne,
3548:1-Phenylethane,
3549: N,N-
dimethylaniline,
3550:Toluene,
3551:4-Methylaniline,
20 882 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q20
The reaction of water with ethylene oxide yields in the presence of acid
22 884 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q22
Crystal violet is used
21 883 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q21
A transition state of high energy is formed in the following reaction
24 886 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q24
The reaction of Lithium acetylide with n-Butyl bromide yields
23 885 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q23
Formation of turbidity on reaction of a plant extract with
Phosphomolybdic acid indicates the presence of
26 888 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q26
Aniline reacts with 2 moles of Methylchloride to yield
25 887 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q25
The reaction of benzoic acid and sodium bicarbonate yields
3552:2,4-
Dimethylaniline,
3553: Butane thiol,
3554:Dibutyldisulfide,
3555:Thiophene,
3556:None of these,
3557: A base,
3558:An acid,
3559:A dehydrating
agent,
3560:None of these,
3561: Neural Control,
3562:Exocrine Control,
3563:Endocrine Control,
3564: Hormonal
Control,
3565:Sarcomeres
shorten. ,
3566:A bands shorten. ,
3567:I bands shorten. ,
3568:Sarcomeres
shorten?and?I bands
shorten. ,
3569:the left ventricle
ejects a larger volume
of blood with each
systole than the right
ventricle.,
26 888 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q26
Aniline reacts with 2 moles of Methylchloride to yield
28 890 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q28
LDA is used as
27 889 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q27
n-Butane reacts with Sulphur at 5600C to yield
30 892 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q30
During isotonic contraction of a skeletal-muscle fibre the
29 891 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q29
Some neurons in the vagus nerve terminate on sinoatrial (pacemaker)
cells in the heart. These neurons secrete acetylcholine, which
ultimately results in a decreased heart rate. This is an example of
31 893 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q31
According to the Frank-Starling mechanism of the heart,
3570:the intrinsic rate
of the heart's
pacemaker is 100
beats/min.,
3571:cardiac output
increases with
increased heart rate.,
3572: stroke volume
increases with
increased venous
return.,
3573: be lower than
alveolar pressure.,
3574:be between +5
and +10 mmHg above
atmospheric pressure.,
3575:alternate
between being less
than and greater than
atmospheric pressure.,
3576:change as the
respiratory demands of
the body change.,
3577: is dissolved in
the plasma.,
3578:is bound to
hemoglobin.,
3579:is in carbonic
acid.,
3580:is in bicarbonate
ion.,
3581:Plasma-55%,
Protein/WBC-1%, RBC-
45% ,
32 894 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q32
In order for the lungs to function normally, the intrapleural pressure
must
31 893 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q31
According to the Frank-Starling mechanism of the heart,
34 896 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q34
Which is true about composition of Blood
33 895 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q33
Most of the CO2 that is transported in blood
3582:Plasma-50%,
Protein/WBC-3%, RBC-
47% ,
3583:Plasma-45%,
Protein/WBC-4%, RBC-
51% ,
3584:Plasma-35%,
Protein/WBC-2%, RBC-
65% ,
3585: Low blood
volume, Anemia, poor
blood flow,
3586:Low Hemoglobin,
excess blood flow,
3587:Pulmonary
diseases,
hypererythremia,
excess blood flow,
3588:Low blood
volume,
hypererythremia,
pulmonary diseases,
3589:I and II only ,
3590:II and III only,
3591:I and III only ,
3592:I, II and III,
3593:Lampbrush,
3594:Polytene,
3595:Supernumerary,
3596:B-chromosomes.,
3597: Eight,
3598:Four,
34 896 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q34
Which is true about composition of Blood
36 898 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q36
Mendel?s principle of dominance stated that when an individual has a
hybrid genotype, it will only express thedominant trait in its
phenotype. Which of the following types of inheritance do not agree
with this principle??I) co-dominance?II) multiple alleles?III) incomplete
dominance
35 897 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q35
Erythropoietin secretion is stimulated by
38 900 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q38
Drosophila has four pairs of chromosomes. How many linkage groups
does it have
37 899 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q37
Chromosomes found in the salivary gland of Drosophila is
3599:One less than the
pairs of chromosomes,
3600:One more than
the pairs of
chromosomes,
3601:Pluripotent ,
3602:totipotent ,
3603:determined ,
3604:differentiated ,
3605: the point of
sperm entry,
3606:gravity,
3607:the point of
contact with uterus,
3608:genetics
difference in the cells,
3609:Have one more
membrane that helps
retain the crystal violet
stain,
3610:Have multiple
layers of peptidoglycan
that help retain the
crystal violet stain,
3611:Have a thick
capsule that traps the
crystal violet stain,
3612:Have periplasmic
space that trap the
crystal violet,
38 900 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q38
Drosophila has four pairs of chromosomes. How many linkage groups
does it have
40 902 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q40
The initial dorsal ventral axis in amphibian embryo is determined by
39 901 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q39
During the development, if a cell has committed to a particular fate, it
is said to be
41 903 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q41
Gram Positive bacteria
3613:They may carry
genes that give their
host a selective
advantage ,
3614:They can render
bacteria drug resistant.
,
3615:None of the
above ,
3616:Both (They can
render bacteria drug
resistant) and (They
may carry genes that
give their host a
selective advantage) ,
3617: Help cells attach
to metal object,
3618:help cells to
magnetically attach to
each other,
3619:Help cells to float
on the surface of fresh
water bodies,
3620:Help cells to
orient in earth
magnetic field,
3621: Inhibit COX-1,
3622:Inhibit COX-2,
3623:Do not inhibit
COX-1 or COX-2,
3624:Both Inhibit COX-
1 and Inhibit COX-2,
42 904 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q42
Plasmids are important to many bacteria because
44 906 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q44
Action of traditional NSAID's
43 905 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q43
Magnetosomes present in some bacteria
3625:
Chlorpheniramine,
3626:Pseudoephedrine,
3627:Glycopyrrolate,
3628:Epinephrin,
3629: The amount of
available drug to be
used for biological
testing,
3630:The amount of
medication in your
blood that is available
to produce an effect,
3631:The amount of
blood that is available
for transfusion,
3632:The amount of
drug that is
biometrically excreted
in your blood,
3633: Kidney ,
3634:Liver ,
3635:Blood ,
3636:Heart,
3637:aquantal dose-
response curve,
3638:ahormesis dose
?response curve,
3639: a graded dose-
response curve,
46 908 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q46
What is bioavailability?
45 907 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q45
Which of the following is an Antihistamine?
48 910 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q48
The LD50 is calculated from:
47 909 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q47
Which of the following is the primary site of activity for the drug
Warfarin?
FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
Sr.No
Question
Id
Question
Descripti
on
Question Body Options
3449: Imatinib,
3450:Bleomycin,
3451:Adriamycin,
3452:cisplatin,
3453:DNA glycosylase,
3454:DNA ligase,
3455:DNA polymerase,
3456:RNA polymerase,
3457:Subunit
association,
3458:Promoter binding,
3459:Initiation and
elongation,
3460:Cation binding,
3461:?70,
3462:?32,
3463:?54,
3464:?28,
3465:5? end of the
tRNA,
3466:3? end of the
tRNA,
3467:Amino acid,
3468:Variable loop of
tRNA,
3469: EF-Tu,
3470:EF-G,
2 864 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q02
The enzyme of E.coli that initiates the repair of double stranded DNA
breaks by homologous recombination (?base excision repair in DNA)
1 863 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q01
For chronic myeloid leukemia one of the best chemotherapy drugs
used is:
4 866 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q04
Four types of ? factors are known ,of them which one used during
Nitrogen deficiency?
3 865 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q03
What is the function of the ? subunit of RNA polymerase?
6 868 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q06
The completion of translocation requires the action of the factor
_________________
5 867 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q05
Once the tRNA is aminoacylated, EF-Tu binds to the tRNA at the
____________
DU PhD In Biomedical Sciences
3471:eIF2,
3472:eIF4G,
3473:E1,
3474:E2,
3475:E3,
3476:E4,
3477:Multiple
phosphorylations,
3478:De-
phosphorylation,
3479:Ubiquitinylation,
3480:Destabilizing by
proteolysis in a
proteasome,
3481:Major
Histocompatibility
Complex molecules
that regulate immunity,
3482:Memory Induced
Complementary
Antigen A and B,
3483:Mouse
Incomplete C-Reactive
Antigen A and B,
3484:Micro- Interleukin
Complex A and B,
3485: Minor antigen of
Inducible T cell,
3486:Mucosal
Associated Invariant T
cell,
6 868 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q06
The completion of translocation requires the action of the factor
_________________
8 870 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q08
At the end of each phase of cell cycle, cyclins activating Cdks in that
phase are inactivated irreversibly by
7 869 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q07
Which of the following is an Ubiquitin activating enzyme?
10 872 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q10
MAIT stands for:
9 871 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q09
MICA and MICB are
3487:Memory
Associated islet cell,
3488:Micro-RNA
Associated Inducible T
cells,
3489: Genes for B cell
maturation,
3490:Genes for T cell
maturation,
3491:miRNAs in
Introns for innate
immunity,
3492:Specific regions
in the immune synapse,
3493: Prone to allergy,
3494:Prone to
autoimmunity,
3495:Tolerant to
allergy,
3496:Tolerant to
infection,
3497: Allergens,
3498:Virulence factors
of Staphylococcus
aureus,
3499:Tumor antigens,
3500:B cell maturation
marker,
3501: T cell activation
markers,
3502:B cell activation
markers,
10 872 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q10
MAIT stands for:
12 874 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q12
Atopic individuals are:
11 873 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q11
Central ? Supramolecular Associated Clusters and Peripheral-
Suramolecular Associated clusters relate to:
14 876 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q14
CD69 and Ki-67 are
13 875 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q13
MAGE, PRAME and NY-ESO-1 are examples of
3503:Dendritic cell
activation markers,
3504:Macrophage
activation marker,
3505: Transcription
factors that promote T
helper cell 1 and T
helper cell 2
differentiation,
respectively,
3506:Transcription
factors that promote T
helper cell 2 and T
helper cell 1
differentiation marker,
respectively,
3507:Cytokines that
regulate cell
differentiation into
plasma cells and
memory cells,
respectively,
3508:Proteins secreted
by cytotoxic T cells that
kill infected
macrophages,
3509: B cell receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3510:T cell receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3511:EGF receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
14 876 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q14
CD69 and Ki-67 are
16 878 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q16
MyD88, IRAK1 and IRAKM are molecules that belong to the:
15 877 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q15
T-bet and GATA are:
3512:Toll like receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3513: Costimulatory
molecules that regulate
immune response,
3514:Transcription
factors that regulate
immune responses,
3515:Kinases that
regulate immune
responses,
3516:Phophatases that
regulate immune
response,
3517: RepA,
3518:Ori gene,
3519:Par,
3520:Rop,
3521: Sythesizes DNA
in 5?- 3? direction,
3522:Facilitate
Phosphodiester bonds ,
3523:Maintain plasmid
supercoiling,
3524:Prevent DNA
from restriction
endonuclease mediated
digestion,
3525: 1,2-Ethanediol,
3526:Ethanol,
16 878 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q16
MyD88, IRAK1 and IRAKM are molecules that belong to the:
18 880 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q18
Plasmid stability in cells is maintained by
17 879 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q17
HVEM and LIGHT are
20 882 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q20
The reaction of water with ethylene oxide yields in the presence of acid
19 881 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q19
DNA ligase
3527:Acetic acid,
3528:Acetaldehyde,
3529: SN1,
3530:SN2,
3531:E1,
3532:None of these,
3533: as an acid base
indicator,
3534:to dye silk and
wool,
3535:for dehydration,
3536:as a Lewis base,
3537: an alkaloid,
3538:a phytosteroid,
3539:a carboxylic acid,
3540:a triterpenoid,
3541: 1-Pentyne,
3542:1-Hexyne,
3543:1-Heptyne,
3544:1-Butyne,
3545: Benzaldehyde,
3546:Sodium benzoate
,
3547:Benzyne,
3548:1-Phenylethane,
3549: N,N-
dimethylaniline,
3550:Toluene,
3551:4-Methylaniline,
20 882 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q20
The reaction of water with ethylene oxide yields in the presence of acid
22 884 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q22
Crystal violet is used
21 883 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q21
A transition state of high energy is formed in the following reaction
24 886 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q24
The reaction of Lithium acetylide with n-Butyl bromide yields
23 885 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q23
Formation of turbidity on reaction of a plant extract with
Phosphomolybdic acid indicates the presence of
26 888 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q26
Aniline reacts with 2 moles of Methylchloride to yield
25 887 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q25
The reaction of benzoic acid and sodium bicarbonate yields
3552:2,4-
Dimethylaniline,
3553: Butane thiol,
3554:Dibutyldisulfide,
3555:Thiophene,
3556:None of these,
3557: A base,
3558:An acid,
3559:A dehydrating
agent,
3560:None of these,
3561: Neural Control,
3562:Exocrine Control,
3563:Endocrine Control,
3564: Hormonal
Control,
3565:Sarcomeres
shorten. ,
3566:A bands shorten. ,
3567:I bands shorten. ,
3568:Sarcomeres
shorten?and?I bands
shorten. ,
3569:the left ventricle
ejects a larger volume
of blood with each
systole than the right
ventricle.,
26 888 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q26
Aniline reacts with 2 moles of Methylchloride to yield
28 890 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q28
LDA is used as
27 889 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q27
n-Butane reacts with Sulphur at 5600C to yield
30 892 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q30
During isotonic contraction of a skeletal-muscle fibre the
29 891 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q29
Some neurons in the vagus nerve terminate on sinoatrial (pacemaker)
cells in the heart. These neurons secrete acetylcholine, which
ultimately results in a decreased heart rate. This is an example of
31 893 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q31
According to the Frank-Starling mechanism of the heart,
3570:the intrinsic rate
of the heart's
pacemaker is 100
beats/min.,
3571:cardiac output
increases with
increased heart rate.,
3572: stroke volume
increases with
increased venous
return.,
3573: be lower than
alveolar pressure.,
3574:be between +5
and +10 mmHg above
atmospheric pressure.,
3575:alternate
between being less
than and greater than
atmospheric pressure.,
3576:change as the
respiratory demands of
the body change.,
3577: is dissolved in
the plasma.,
3578:is bound to
hemoglobin.,
3579:is in carbonic
acid.,
3580:is in bicarbonate
ion.,
3581:Plasma-55%,
Protein/WBC-1%, RBC-
45% ,
32 894 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q32
In order for the lungs to function normally, the intrapleural pressure
must
31 893 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q31
According to the Frank-Starling mechanism of the heart,
34 896 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q34
Which is true about composition of Blood
33 895 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q33
Most of the CO2 that is transported in blood
3582:Plasma-50%,
Protein/WBC-3%, RBC-
47% ,
3583:Plasma-45%,
Protein/WBC-4%, RBC-
51% ,
3584:Plasma-35%,
Protein/WBC-2%, RBC-
65% ,
3585: Low blood
volume, Anemia, poor
blood flow,
3586:Low Hemoglobin,
excess blood flow,
3587:Pulmonary
diseases,
hypererythremia,
excess blood flow,
3588:Low blood
volume,
hypererythremia,
pulmonary diseases,
3589:I and II only ,
3590:II and III only,
3591:I and III only ,
3592:I, II and III,
3593:Lampbrush,
3594:Polytene,
3595:Supernumerary,
3596:B-chromosomes.,
3597: Eight,
3598:Four,
34 896 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q34
Which is true about composition of Blood
36 898 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q36
Mendel?s principle of dominance stated that when an individual has a
hybrid genotype, it will only express thedominant trait in its
phenotype. Which of the following types of inheritance do not agree
with this principle??I) co-dominance?II) multiple alleles?III) incomplete
dominance
35 897 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q35
Erythropoietin secretion is stimulated by
38 900 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q38
Drosophila has four pairs of chromosomes. How many linkage groups
does it have
37 899 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q37
Chromosomes found in the salivary gland of Drosophila is
3599:One less than the
pairs of chromosomes,
3600:One more than
the pairs of
chromosomes,
3601:Pluripotent ,
3602:totipotent ,
3603:determined ,
3604:differentiated ,
3605: the point of
sperm entry,
3606:gravity,
3607:the point of
contact with uterus,
3608:genetics
difference in the cells,
3609:Have one more
membrane that helps
retain the crystal violet
stain,
3610:Have multiple
layers of peptidoglycan
that help retain the
crystal violet stain,
3611:Have a thick
capsule that traps the
crystal violet stain,
3612:Have periplasmic
space that trap the
crystal violet,
38 900 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q38
Drosophila has four pairs of chromosomes. How many linkage groups
does it have
40 902 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q40
The initial dorsal ventral axis in amphibian embryo is determined by
39 901 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q39
During the development, if a cell has committed to a particular fate, it
is said to be
41 903 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q41
Gram Positive bacteria
3613:They may carry
genes that give their
host a selective
advantage ,
3614:They can render
bacteria drug resistant.
,
3615:None of the
above ,
3616:Both (They can
render bacteria drug
resistant) and (They
may carry genes that
give their host a
selective advantage) ,
3617: Help cells attach
to metal object,
3618:help cells to
magnetically attach to
each other,
3619:Help cells to float
on the surface of fresh
water bodies,
3620:Help cells to
orient in earth
magnetic field,
3621: Inhibit COX-1,
3622:Inhibit COX-2,
3623:Do not inhibit
COX-1 or COX-2,
3624:Both Inhibit COX-
1 and Inhibit COX-2,
42 904 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q42
Plasmids are important to many bacteria because
44 906 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q44
Action of traditional NSAID's
43 905 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q43
Magnetosomes present in some bacteria
3625:
Chlorpheniramine,
3626:Pseudoephedrine,
3627:Glycopyrrolate,
3628:Epinephrin,
3629: The amount of
available drug to be
used for biological
testing,
3630:The amount of
medication in your
blood that is available
to produce an effect,
3631:The amount of
blood that is available
for transfusion,
3632:The amount of
drug that is
biometrically excreted
in your blood,
3633: Kidney ,
3634:Liver ,
3635:Blood ,
3636:Heart,
3637:aquantal dose-
response curve,
3638:ahormesis dose
?response curve,
3639: a graded dose-
response curve,
46 908 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q46
What is bioavailability?
45 907 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q45
Which of the following is an Antihistamine?
48 910 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q48
The LD50 is calculated from:
47 909 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q47
Which of the following is the primary site of activity for the drug
Warfarin?
3640:a log-log dose-
response curve,
3641:Proximal
convoluted tubule ,
3642:Loop of Henle,
3643:Collecting duct ,
3644:Distal convoluted
tubule,
3645: Euphoria,
3646: hair loss,
3647:constipation,
3648:depression,
50 912 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q50
Which of the following is a long-term side effect of amphetamine?
49 911 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q49
Potassium sparing diuretics have the primary effect upon which part of
the kidney.
48 910 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q48
The LD50 is calculated from:
FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
This post was last modified on 19 June 2020