DUET Last 10 Years 2011-2021 Question Papers With Answer Key || Delhi University Entrance Test conducted by the NTA
DU PhD In Biomedical Sciences Question
| Sr.No | Question Id | Description | Question Body | Options |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | 863 DU_J19_P HD_BIOS CI_Q01 | For chronic myeloid leukemia one of the best chemotherapy drugs used is: | 3449: Imatinib 3450: Bleomycin 3451: Adriamycin 3452: Cisplatin | |
| 2 | 864 DU_J19_P HD_BIOS CI_Q02 | The enzyme of E.coli that initiates the repair of double stranded DNA breaks by homologous recombination (base excision repair in DNA) | 3453: DNA gyrase 3454: DNA ligase 3455: DNA polymerase 3456: RNA polymerase | |
| 3 | 865 DU_J19_P HD_BIOS CI_Q03 | What is the function of the w subunit of RNA polymerase? | 3457: Subunit association 3458: Promoter binding 3459: Initiation and elongation 3460: Catalytic activity | |
| 4 | 866 DU_J19_P HD_BIOS CI_Q04 | Four types of s factors are known, of them which one is used during Nitrogen deficiency? | 3461: s70 3462: s32 3463: s54 3464: s28 | |
| 5 | 867 DU_J19_P HD_BIOS CI_Q05 | Once the tRNA is aminoacylated, EF-Tu binds to the tRNA at the | 3465: 5' end of tRNA 3466: 3' end of tRNA 3467: Aminoacyl end of tRNA 3468: Variable loop of tRNA | |
| 6 | 868 DU_J19_P HD_BIOS | The completion of translocation requires the action of the factor | 3469: EF-Ts 3470: EF-G | |
| 7 | 869 DU_J19_P HD_BIOS CI_Q07 | Which of the following is an Ubiquitin activating enzyme? | 3473: E1 3474: E2 3475: E3 3476: E4 | |
| 8 | 870 DU_J19_P HD_BIOS CI_Q08 | At the end of each phase of cell cycle, cyclins activating Cdks in that phase are inactivated irreversibly by | 3477: Multi-phosphorylation 3478: De-phosphorylation 3479: Ubiquitination 3480: Destruction | |
| 9 | 871 DU_J19_P HD_BIOS CI_Q09 | MICA and MICB are | 3481: Major Histocompatibility Complex non-classical that regulate innate immunity. | |
| 10 | 872 DU_J19_P HD_BIOS CI_Q10 | MAIT stands for: | 3485: Minor Inducible T cell. 3486: Mucosal Associated Invariant T cell. | |
| 11 | 873 DU_J19_P HD_BIOS CI_Q11 | Central - Supramolecular Associated Clusters and Peripheral- Suramolecular Associated clusters relate to: | 3487: Membrane Associated T cell clusters. 3488: Microenvironment Associated T cells. 3489: Germinal center maturation. 3490: Gene rearrangement maturation 3491: miRNA regulation of Introns for adaptive immunity. 3492: Specificity development in the immune system. | |
| 12 | 874 DU_J19_P HD_BIOS CI_Q12 | Atopic individuals are: | 3493: Prone to infection 3494: Prone to autoimmunity, 3495: Tolerant to allergy, 3496: Tolerant to infection, 3497: Allergic. | |
| 13 | 875 DU_J19_P HD_BIOS CI_Q13 | MAGE, PRAME and NY-ESO-1 are examples of | 3498: Virulence factors of Staphylococcus aureus, 3499: Tumor antigens 3500: B cell surface marker, | |
| 14 | 876 DU_J19_P HD_BIOS CI_Q14 | CD69 and Ki-67 are | 3501: T cell activation markers, 3502: B cell activation markers, | |
| 15 | 877 DU_J19_P HD_BIOS CI_Q15 | T-bet and GATA3 are: | 3503: Dendritic cell activation markers 3504: Macrophage activation markers 3505: Transcription factors that regulate T helper cell type 1 and T helper cell type 2 differentiation, respectively. 3506: Transcription factors that regulate T helper cell type 17 and T helper cell type 22 differentiation respectively. | |
| 16 | 878 DU_J19_P HD_BIOS | MyD88, IRAK1 and IRAKM are molecules that belong to the: | 3507: Cytokines that regulate cell differentiation into plasma cells and memory cells, respectively. 3508: Proteins secreted by cytotoxic T cells to kill infected macrophages, 3509: B cell receptor induced signaling pathway. 3510: T cell receptor induced signaling pathway. 3511: EGF receptor induced signaling pathway. | |
| 17 | 879 DU_J19_P HD_BIOS CI_Q17 | HVEM and LIGHT are | 3512: Toll like receptor induced signaling pathway. 3513: Costimulatory molecules of the immune response | |
| 18 | 880 DU_J19_P HD_BIOS CI_Q18 | Plasmid stability in cells is maintained by | 3514: Transcription factors that regulate the immune response. 3515: Kinases that regulate inflammatory responses 3516: Phosphatases that regulate inflammatory response. 3517: Repetitive sequences | |
| 19 | 881 DU_J19_P HD_BIOS CI_Q19 | DNA ligase | 3521: Synthesizes DNA in 5'-3' direction. 3522: Facilitates Phosphodiester bond formation 3523: Maintains DNA supercoiling 3524: Prevents DNA from restriction endonuclease digestion | |
| 20 | 882 DU_J19_P HD_BIOS CI_Q20 | The reaction of water with ethylene oxide yields in the presence of acid | 3525: 1,2-Ethanediol 3526: Ethanol | |
| 21 | 883 DU_J19_P HD_BIOS CI_Q21 | A transition state of high energy is formed in the following reaction | 3527: Acetylation 3528: Acetal formation 3529: SN1 3530: SN2 3531: E1 3532: None of these | |
| 22 | 884 DU_J19_P HD_BIOS CI_Q22 | Crystal violet is used | 3533: as a pH indicator, 3534: to dye silk and wool, 3535: for detecting proteins 3536: as a biological stain | |
| 23 | 885 DU_J19_P HD_BIOS CI_Q23 | Formation of turbidity on reaction of a plant extract with Phosphomolybdic acid indicates the presence of | 3537: an alkaloid 3538: a phenol 3539: a carbohydrate 3540: a triterpene | |
| 24 | 886 DU_J19_P HD_BIOS CI_Q24 | The reaction of Lithium acetylide with n-Butyl bromide yields | 3541: 1-Pentyne 3542: 1-Hexyne 3543: 1-Heptyne 3544: 1-Butyne | |
| 25 | 887 DU_J19_P HD_BIOS CI_Q25 | The reaction of benzoic acid and sodium bicarbonate yields | 3545: Benzene 3546: Sodium benzoate 3547: Benzaldehyde 3548: 1-Phenylethanol | |
| 26 | 888 DU_J19_P HD_BIOS CI_Q26 | Aniline reacts with 2 moles of Methylchloride to yield | 3549: N,N- dimethylaniline 3550: Toluene 3551: 4-Methylaniline | |
| 27 | 889 DU_J19_P HD_BIOS CI_Q27 | n-Butane reacts with Sulphur at 5600C to yield | 3552: 2,4- Dimethylanthracene 3553: Butanethiol 3554: Dibutylsulphide 3555: Thiophene 3556: None of these | |
| 28 | 890 DU_J19_P HD_BIOS CI_Q28 | LDA is used as | 3557: A base 3558: An acid 3559: A dehydrating agent, 3560: None of these | |
| 29 | 891 DU_J19_P HD_BIOS CI_Q29 | Some neurons in the vagus nerve terminate on sinoatrial (pacemaker) cells in the heart. These neurons secrete acetylcholine, which ultimately results in a decreased heart rate. This is an example of | 3561: Neurotransmission 3562: Exocrine signalling 3563: Endocrine signalling | |
| 30 | 892 DU_J19_P HD_BIOS CI_Q30 | During isotonic contraction of a skeletal-muscle fibre the | 3565: Sarcomeres shorten., 3566: A band widens 3567: I band widens | |
| 31 | 893 DU_J19_P HD_BIOS | According to the Frank-Starling mechanism of the heart, | 3569: the heart always ejects a large proportion of blood with each systole than remains in the ventricle., | |
| 32 | 894 DU_J19_P HD_BIOS CI_Q32 | In order for the lungs to function normally, the intrapleural pressure must | 3573: be less than alveolar pressure 3574: be between -4 mm Hg and +10 mm Hg relative to atmospheric pressure 3575: alternate between below and above than and equal to atmospheric pressure 3576: change during respiratory maneuvers but not the body changes position. | |
| 33 | 895 DU_J19_P HD_BIOS CI_Q33 | Most of the CO2 that is transported in blood | 3577: is dissolved in the plasma 3578: is bound to hemoglobin 3579: is in carbonic acid., 3580: is in bicarbonate ion., | |
| 34 | 896 DU_J19_P HD_BIOS CI_Q34 | Which is true about composition of Blood | 3581: Plasma/Blood Protein/Water 90%, and Cell Protein/Water 45%, | |
| 35 | 897 DU_J19_P HD_BIOS CI_Q35 | Erythropoietin secretion is stimulated by | 3585: Low blood O2 volume, Arterial O2 content, blood flow 3586: Low arterial O2 content excess blood volume, 3587: Pulmonary diseases, hypererythrocytemia/high excess blood volume. | |
| 36 | 898 DU_J19_P HD_BIOS CI_Q36 | Mendel's principle of dominance stated that when an individual has a hybrid genotype, it will only express the dominant trait in its phenotype. Which of the following types of inheritance do not agree with this principle? I) co-dominance II) multiple alleles III) incomplete dominance | 3589: I and II 3590: II and III 3591: I and III 3592: I, II and III | |
| 37 | 899 DU_J19_P HD_BIOS CI_Q37 | Chromosomes found in the salivary gland of Drosophila is | 3593: Lampbrush 3594: Polytene 3595: Supernumerary 3596: B-chromosome | |
| 38 | 900 DU_J19_P HD_BIOS | Drosophila has four pairs of chromosomes. How many linkage groups does it have | 3597: Eight 3598: Four | |
| 39 | 901 DU_J19_P HD_BIOS CI_Q39 | During the development, if a cell has committed to a particular fate, it is said to be | 3601: Pluripotent 3602: totipotent 3603: determined 3604: differentiated | |
| 40 | 902 DU_J19_P HD_BIOS CI_Q40 | The initial dorsal ventral axis in amphibian embryo is determined by | 3605: the point of sperm entry 3606: gravity 3607: the point of contact with the substrate 3608: gene expression differences | |
| 41 | 903 DU_J19_P HD_BIOS CI_Q41 | Gram Positive bacteria | 3609: Have a single membrane and readily retain the crystal violet stain. 3610: Have multiple layers of peptidoglycan that help retain the crystal violet stain. 3611: Have a thick capsule that prevents crystal violet staining 3612: Have a periplasmic space that traps the crystal violet stain. | |
| 42 | 904 DU_J19_P HD_BIOS CI_Q42 | Plasmids are important to many bacteria because | 3613: They may carry genes that give their host a selective advantage 3614: They are essential for bacteria during cell division 3615: None of the above, 3616: Both, they can render bacteria drug resistant) and they may carry genes that give their hosts a selective advantage | |
| 43 | 905 DU_J19_P HD_BIOS CI_Q43 | Magnetosomes present in some bacteria | 3617: Help them attach to metal oxides 3618: help them move magnetically towards each other 3619: Help them float on the surface of water bodies 3620: Help them orient in earth’s magnetic field | |
| 44 | 906 DU_J19_P HD_BIOS CI_Q44 | Action of traditional NSAID'S | 3621: Inhibit COX-2 3622: Inhibit COX-3 3623: Do not inhibit COX-1 or COX-2 3624: Both Inhibit COX- 1 and Inhibit COX-2 | |
| 45 | 907 DU_J19_P HD_BIOS CI_Q45 | Which of the following is an Antihistamine? | 3625: Chlorpheniramine 3626: Pseudoephedrine 3627: Glyceryl Guaiacolate 3628: Epinephrine | |
| 46 | 908 DU_J19_P HD_BIOS CI_Q46 | What is bioavailability? | 3629: The amount of drug available during clinical used for biological testing. 3630: The rate and extent of medication that reaches blood that are available to produce their effect. 3631: The amount of drug in blood that is available for transfusion purposes. 3632: The amount of drug that is detected biometrically in your blood sample. | |
| 47 | 909 DU_J19_P HD_BIOS CI_Q47 | Which of the following is the primary site of activity for the drug Warfarin? | 3633: Kidney 3634: Liver 3635: Blood 3636: Heart | |
| 48 | 910 DU_J19_P HD_BIOS CI_Q48 | The LD50 is calculated from: | 3637: a quantal dose- response curve 3638: a hormonal dose -response curve 3639: a graded dose response curve | |
| 49 | 911 DU_J19_P HD_BIOS CI_Q49 | Potassium sparing diuretics have the primary effect upon which part of the kidney. | 3641: Proximal convoluted tubule, 3642: Loop of Henle 3643: Collecting Duct 3644: Distal convoluted tubule, | |
| 50 | 912 DU_J19_P HD_BIOS CI_Q50 | Which of the following is a long-term side effect of amphetamine? | 3645: Euphoria 3646: hair Loss 3647: constipation 3648: depression |
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