DUET 2019 PhD in Biomedical Sciences Previous Queston Papers

Delhi University Entrance Test (DUET) 2019 PhD in Biomedical Sciences Previous Queston Papers

Sr.No
Question
Id
Question

Descripti
on
Question Body Options
3449: Imatinib,
3450:Bleomycin,
3451:Adriamycin,
3452:cisplatin,
3453:DNA glycosylase,
3454:DNA ligase,
3455:DNA polymerase,
3456:RNA polymerase,
3457:Subunit
association,
3458:Promoter binding,
3459:Initiation and
elongation,
3460:Cation binding,
3461:?70,
3462:?32,
3463:?54,
3464:?28,
3465:5? end of the
tRNA,
3466:3? end of the
tRNA,
3467:Amino acid,
3468:Variable loop of
tRNA,
3469: EF-Tu,
3470:EF-G,
2 864 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q02
The enzyme of E.coli that initiates the repair of double stranded DNA
breaks by homologous recombination (?base excision repair in DNA)
1 863 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q01
For chronic myeloid leukemia one of the best chemotherapy drugs
used is:
4 866 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q04
Four types of ? factors are known ,of them which one used during
Nitrogen deficiency?
3 865 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q03
What is the function of the ? subunit of RNA polymerase?
6 868 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q06
The completion of translocation requires the action of the factor
_________________
5 867 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q05
Once the tRNA is aminoacylated, EF-Tu binds to the tRNA at the
____________
DU PhD In Biomedical Sciences

FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
Sr.No
Question
Id
Question

Descripti
on
Question Body Options
3449: Imatinib,
3450:Bleomycin,
3451:Adriamycin,
3452:cisplatin,
3453:DNA glycosylase,
3454:DNA ligase,
3455:DNA polymerase,
3456:RNA polymerase,
3457:Subunit
association,
3458:Promoter binding,
3459:Initiation and
elongation,
3460:Cation binding,
3461:?70,
3462:?32,
3463:?54,
3464:?28,
3465:5? end of the
tRNA,
3466:3? end of the
tRNA,
3467:Amino acid,
3468:Variable loop of
tRNA,
3469: EF-Tu,
3470:EF-G,
2 864 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q02
The enzyme of E.coli that initiates the repair of double stranded DNA
breaks by homologous recombination (?base excision repair in DNA)
1 863 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q01
For chronic myeloid leukemia one of the best chemotherapy drugs
used is:
4 866 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q04
Four types of ? factors are known ,of them which one used during
Nitrogen deficiency?
3 865 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q03
What is the function of the ? subunit of RNA polymerase?
6 868 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q06
The completion of translocation requires the action of the factor
_________________
5 867 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q05
Once the tRNA is aminoacylated, EF-Tu binds to the tRNA at the
____________
DU PhD In Biomedical Sciences
3471:eIF2,
3472:eIF4G,
3473:E1,
3474:E2,
3475:E3,
3476:E4,
3477:Multiple
phosphorylations,
3478:De-
phosphorylation,
3479:Ubiquitinylation,
3480:Destabilizing by
proteolysis in a
proteasome,
3481:Major
Histocompatibility
Complex molecules
that regulate immunity,
3482:Memory Induced
Complementary
Antigen A and B,
3483:Mouse
Incomplete C-Reactive
Antigen A and B,
3484:Micro- Interleukin
Complex A and B,
3485: Minor antigen of
Inducible T cell,
3486:Mucosal
Associated Invariant T
cell,
6 868 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q06
The completion of translocation requires the action of the factor
_________________
8 870 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q08
At the end of each phase of cell cycle, cyclins activating Cdks in that
phase are inactivated irreversibly by
7 869 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q07
Which of the following is an Ubiquitin activating enzyme?
10 872 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q10
MAIT stands for:
9 871 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q09
MICA and MICB are

FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
Sr.No
Question
Id
Question

Descripti
on
Question Body Options
3449: Imatinib,
3450:Bleomycin,
3451:Adriamycin,
3452:cisplatin,
3453:DNA glycosylase,
3454:DNA ligase,
3455:DNA polymerase,
3456:RNA polymerase,
3457:Subunit
association,
3458:Promoter binding,
3459:Initiation and
elongation,
3460:Cation binding,
3461:?70,
3462:?32,
3463:?54,
3464:?28,
3465:5? end of the
tRNA,
3466:3? end of the
tRNA,
3467:Amino acid,
3468:Variable loop of
tRNA,
3469: EF-Tu,
3470:EF-G,
2 864 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q02
The enzyme of E.coli that initiates the repair of double stranded DNA
breaks by homologous recombination (?base excision repair in DNA)
1 863 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q01
For chronic myeloid leukemia one of the best chemotherapy drugs
used is:
4 866 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q04
Four types of ? factors are known ,of them which one used during
Nitrogen deficiency?
3 865 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q03
What is the function of the ? subunit of RNA polymerase?
6 868 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q06
The completion of translocation requires the action of the factor
_________________
5 867 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q05
Once the tRNA is aminoacylated, EF-Tu binds to the tRNA at the
____________
DU PhD In Biomedical Sciences
3471:eIF2,
3472:eIF4G,
3473:E1,
3474:E2,
3475:E3,
3476:E4,
3477:Multiple
phosphorylations,
3478:De-
phosphorylation,
3479:Ubiquitinylation,
3480:Destabilizing by
proteolysis in a
proteasome,
3481:Major
Histocompatibility
Complex molecules
that regulate immunity,
3482:Memory Induced
Complementary
Antigen A and B,
3483:Mouse
Incomplete C-Reactive
Antigen A and B,
3484:Micro- Interleukin
Complex A and B,
3485: Minor antigen of
Inducible T cell,
3486:Mucosal
Associated Invariant T
cell,
6 868 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q06
The completion of translocation requires the action of the factor
_________________
8 870 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q08
At the end of each phase of cell cycle, cyclins activating Cdks in that
phase are inactivated irreversibly by
7 869 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q07
Which of the following is an Ubiquitin activating enzyme?
10 872 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q10
MAIT stands for:
9 871 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q09
MICA and MICB are
3487:Memory
Associated islet cell,
3488:Micro-RNA
Associated Inducible T
cells,
3489: Genes for B cell
maturation,
3490:Genes for T cell
maturation,
3491:miRNAs in
Introns for innate
immunity,
3492:Specific regions
in the immune synapse,
3493: Prone to allergy,
3494:Prone to
autoimmunity,
3495:Tolerant to
allergy,
3496:Tolerant to
infection,
3497: Allergens,
3498:Virulence factors
of Staphylococcus
aureus,
3499:Tumor antigens,
3500:B cell maturation
marker,
3501: T cell activation
markers,
3502:B cell activation
markers,
10 872 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q10
MAIT stands for:
12 874 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q12
Atopic individuals are:
11 873 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q11
Central ? Supramolecular Associated Clusters and Peripheral-
Suramolecular Associated clusters relate to:
14 876 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q14
CD69 and Ki-67 are
13 875 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q13
MAGE, PRAME and NY-ESO-1 are examples of

FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
Sr.No
Question
Id
Question

Descripti
on
Question Body Options
3449: Imatinib,
3450:Bleomycin,
3451:Adriamycin,
3452:cisplatin,
3453:DNA glycosylase,
3454:DNA ligase,
3455:DNA polymerase,
3456:RNA polymerase,
3457:Subunit
association,
3458:Promoter binding,
3459:Initiation and
elongation,
3460:Cation binding,
3461:?70,
3462:?32,
3463:?54,
3464:?28,
3465:5? end of the
tRNA,
3466:3? end of the
tRNA,
3467:Amino acid,
3468:Variable loop of
tRNA,
3469: EF-Tu,
3470:EF-G,
2 864 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q02
The enzyme of E.coli that initiates the repair of double stranded DNA
breaks by homologous recombination (?base excision repair in DNA)
1 863 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q01
For chronic myeloid leukemia one of the best chemotherapy drugs
used is:
4 866 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q04
Four types of ? factors are known ,of them which one used during
Nitrogen deficiency?
3 865 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q03
What is the function of the ? subunit of RNA polymerase?
6 868 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q06
The completion of translocation requires the action of the factor
_________________
5 867 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q05
Once the tRNA is aminoacylated, EF-Tu binds to the tRNA at the
____________
DU PhD In Biomedical Sciences
3471:eIF2,
3472:eIF4G,
3473:E1,
3474:E2,
3475:E3,
3476:E4,
3477:Multiple
phosphorylations,
3478:De-
phosphorylation,
3479:Ubiquitinylation,
3480:Destabilizing by
proteolysis in a
proteasome,
3481:Major
Histocompatibility
Complex molecules
that regulate immunity,
3482:Memory Induced
Complementary
Antigen A and B,
3483:Mouse
Incomplete C-Reactive
Antigen A and B,
3484:Micro- Interleukin
Complex A and B,
3485: Minor antigen of
Inducible T cell,
3486:Mucosal
Associated Invariant T
cell,
6 868 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q06
The completion of translocation requires the action of the factor
_________________
8 870 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q08
At the end of each phase of cell cycle, cyclins activating Cdks in that
phase are inactivated irreversibly by
7 869 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q07
Which of the following is an Ubiquitin activating enzyme?
10 872 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q10
MAIT stands for:
9 871 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q09
MICA and MICB are
3487:Memory
Associated islet cell,
3488:Micro-RNA
Associated Inducible T
cells,
3489: Genes for B cell
maturation,
3490:Genes for T cell
maturation,
3491:miRNAs in
Introns for innate
immunity,
3492:Specific regions
in the immune synapse,
3493: Prone to allergy,
3494:Prone to
autoimmunity,
3495:Tolerant to
allergy,
3496:Tolerant to
infection,
3497: Allergens,
3498:Virulence factors
of Staphylococcus
aureus,
3499:Tumor antigens,
3500:B cell maturation
marker,
3501: T cell activation
markers,
3502:B cell activation
markers,
10 872 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q10
MAIT stands for:
12 874 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q12
Atopic individuals are:
11 873 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q11
Central ? Supramolecular Associated Clusters and Peripheral-
Suramolecular Associated clusters relate to:
14 876 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q14
CD69 and Ki-67 are
13 875 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q13
MAGE, PRAME and NY-ESO-1 are examples of
3503:Dendritic cell
activation markers,
3504:Macrophage
activation marker,
3505: Transcription
factors that promote T
helper cell 1 and T
helper cell 2
differentiation,
respectively,
3506:Transcription
factors that promote T
helper cell 2 and T
helper cell 1
differentiation marker,
respectively,
3507:Cytokines that
regulate cell
differentiation into
plasma cells and
memory cells,
respectively,
3508:Proteins secreted
by cytotoxic T cells that
kill infected
macrophages,
3509: B cell receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3510:T cell receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3511:EGF receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
14 876 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q14
CD69 and Ki-67 are
16 878 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q16
MyD88, IRAK1 and IRAKM are molecules that belong to the:
15 877 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q15
T-bet and GATA are:

FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
Sr.No
Question
Id
Question

Descripti
on
Question Body Options
3449: Imatinib,
3450:Bleomycin,
3451:Adriamycin,
3452:cisplatin,
3453:DNA glycosylase,
3454:DNA ligase,
3455:DNA polymerase,
3456:RNA polymerase,
3457:Subunit
association,
3458:Promoter binding,
3459:Initiation and
elongation,
3460:Cation binding,
3461:?70,
3462:?32,
3463:?54,
3464:?28,
3465:5? end of the
tRNA,
3466:3? end of the
tRNA,
3467:Amino acid,
3468:Variable loop of
tRNA,
3469: EF-Tu,
3470:EF-G,
2 864 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q02
The enzyme of E.coli that initiates the repair of double stranded DNA
breaks by homologous recombination (?base excision repair in DNA)
1 863 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q01
For chronic myeloid leukemia one of the best chemotherapy drugs
used is:
4 866 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q04
Four types of ? factors are known ,of them which one used during
Nitrogen deficiency?
3 865 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q03
What is the function of the ? subunit of RNA polymerase?
6 868 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q06
The completion of translocation requires the action of the factor
_________________
5 867 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q05
Once the tRNA is aminoacylated, EF-Tu binds to the tRNA at the
____________
DU PhD In Biomedical Sciences
3471:eIF2,
3472:eIF4G,
3473:E1,
3474:E2,
3475:E3,
3476:E4,
3477:Multiple
phosphorylations,
3478:De-
phosphorylation,
3479:Ubiquitinylation,
3480:Destabilizing by
proteolysis in a
proteasome,
3481:Major
Histocompatibility
Complex molecules
that regulate immunity,
3482:Memory Induced
Complementary
Antigen A and B,
3483:Mouse
Incomplete C-Reactive
Antigen A and B,
3484:Micro- Interleukin
Complex A and B,
3485: Minor antigen of
Inducible T cell,
3486:Mucosal
Associated Invariant T
cell,
6 868 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q06
The completion of translocation requires the action of the factor
_________________
8 870 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q08
At the end of each phase of cell cycle, cyclins activating Cdks in that
phase are inactivated irreversibly by
7 869 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q07
Which of the following is an Ubiquitin activating enzyme?
10 872 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q10
MAIT stands for:
9 871 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q09
MICA and MICB are
3487:Memory
Associated islet cell,
3488:Micro-RNA
Associated Inducible T
cells,
3489: Genes for B cell
maturation,
3490:Genes for T cell
maturation,
3491:miRNAs in
Introns for innate
immunity,
3492:Specific regions
in the immune synapse,
3493: Prone to allergy,
3494:Prone to
autoimmunity,
3495:Tolerant to
allergy,
3496:Tolerant to
infection,
3497: Allergens,
3498:Virulence factors
of Staphylococcus
aureus,
3499:Tumor antigens,
3500:B cell maturation
marker,
3501: T cell activation
markers,
3502:B cell activation
markers,
10 872 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q10
MAIT stands for:
12 874 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q12
Atopic individuals are:
11 873 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q11
Central ? Supramolecular Associated Clusters and Peripheral-
Suramolecular Associated clusters relate to:
14 876 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q14
CD69 and Ki-67 are
13 875 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q13
MAGE, PRAME and NY-ESO-1 are examples of
3503:Dendritic cell
activation markers,
3504:Macrophage
activation marker,
3505: Transcription
factors that promote T
helper cell 1 and T
helper cell 2
differentiation,
respectively,
3506:Transcription
factors that promote T
helper cell 2 and T
helper cell 1
differentiation marker,
respectively,
3507:Cytokines that
regulate cell
differentiation into
plasma cells and
memory cells,
respectively,
3508:Proteins secreted
by cytotoxic T cells that
kill infected
macrophages,
3509: B cell receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3510:T cell receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3511:EGF receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
14 876 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q14
CD69 and Ki-67 are
16 878 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q16
MyD88, IRAK1 and IRAKM are molecules that belong to the:
15 877 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q15
T-bet and GATA are:
3512:Toll like receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3513: Costimulatory
molecules that regulate
immune response,
3514:Transcription
factors that regulate
immune responses,
3515:Kinases that
regulate immune
responses,
3516:Phophatases that
regulate immune
response,
3517: RepA,
3518:Ori gene,
3519:Par,
3520:Rop,
3521: Sythesizes DNA
in 5?- 3? direction,
3522:Facilitate
Phosphodiester bonds ,
3523:Maintain plasmid
supercoiling,
3524:Prevent DNA
from restriction
endonuclease mediated
digestion,
3525: 1,2-Ethanediol,
3526:Ethanol,
16 878 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q16
MyD88, IRAK1 and IRAKM are molecules that belong to the:
18 880 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q18
Plasmid stability in cells is maintained by
17 879 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q17
HVEM and LIGHT are
20 882 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q20
The reaction of water with ethylene oxide yields in the presence of acid
19 881 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q19
DNA ligase

FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
Sr.No
Question
Id
Question

Descripti
on
Question Body Options
3449: Imatinib,
3450:Bleomycin,
3451:Adriamycin,
3452:cisplatin,
3453:DNA glycosylase,
3454:DNA ligase,
3455:DNA polymerase,
3456:RNA polymerase,
3457:Subunit
association,
3458:Promoter binding,
3459:Initiation and
elongation,
3460:Cation binding,
3461:?70,
3462:?32,
3463:?54,
3464:?28,
3465:5? end of the
tRNA,
3466:3? end of the
tRNA,
3467:Amino acid,
3468:Variable loop of
tRNA,
3469: EF-Tu,
3470:EF-G,
2 864 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q02
The enzyme of E.coli that initiates the repair of double stranded DNA
breaks by homologous recombination (?base excision repair in DNA)
1 863 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q01
For chronic myeloid leukemia one of the best chemotherapy drugs
used is:
4 866 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q04
Four types of ? factors are known ,of them which one used during
Nitrogen deficiency?
3 865 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q03
What is the function of the ? subunit of RNA polymerase?
6 868 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q06
The completion of translocation requires the action of the factor
_________________
5 867 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q05
Once the tRNA is aminoacylated, EF-Tu binds to the tRNA at the
____________
DU PhD In Biomedical Sciences
3471:eIF2,
3472:eIF4G,
3473:E1,
3474:E2,
3475:E3,
3476:E4,
3477:Multiple
phosphorylations,
3478:De-
phosphorylation,
3479:Ubiquitinylation,
3480:Destabilizing by
proteolysis in a
proteasome,
3481:Major
Histocompatibility
Complex molecules
that regulate immunity,
3482:Memory Induced
Complementary
Antigen A and B,
3483:Mouse
Incomplete C-Reactive
Antigen A and B,
3484:Micro- Interleukin
Complex A and B,
3485: Minor antigen of
Inducible T cell,
3486:Mucosal
Associated Invariant T
cell,
6 868 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q06
The completion of translocation requires the action of the factor
_________________
8 870 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q08
At the end of each phase of cell cycle, cyclins activating Cdks in that
phase are inactivated irreversibly by
7 869 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q07
Which of the following is an Ubiquitin activating enzyme?
10 872 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q10
MAIT stands for:
9 871 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q09
MICA and MICB are
3487:Memory
Associated islet cell,
3488:Micro-RNA
Associated Inducible T
cells,
3489: Genes for B cell
maturation,
3490:Genes for T cell
maturation,
3491:miRNAs in
Introns for innate
immunity,
3492:Specific regions
in the immune synapse,
3493: Prone to allergy,
3494:Prone to
autoimmunity,
3495:Tolerant to
allergy,
3496:Tolerant to
infection,
3497: Allergens,
3498:Virulence factors
of Staphylococcus
aureus,
3499:Tumor antigens,
3500:B cell maturation
marker,
3501: T cell activation
markers,
3502:B cell activation
markers,
10 872 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q10
MAIT stands for:
12 874 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q12
Atopic individuals are:
11 873 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q11
Central ? Supramolecular Associated Clusters and Peripheral-
Suramolecular Associated clusters relate to:
14 876 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q14
CD69 and Ki-67 are
13 875 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q13
MAGE, PRAME and NY-ESO-1 are examples of
3503:Dendritic cell
activation markers,
3504:Macrophage
activation marker,
3505: Transcription
factors that promote T
helper cell 1 and T
helper cell 2
differentiation,
respectively,
3506:Transcription
factors that promote T
helper cell 2 and T
helper cell 1
differentiation marker,
respectively,
3507:Cytokines that
regulate cell
differentiation into
plasma cells and
memory cells,
respectively,
3508:Proteins secreted
by cytotoxic T cells that
kill infected
macrophages,
3509: B cell receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3510:T cell receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3511:EGF receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
14 876 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q14
CD69 and Ki-67 are
16 878 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q16
MyD88, IRAK1 and IRAKM are molecules that belong to the:
15 877 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q15
T-bet and GATA are:
3512:Toll like receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3513: Costimulatory
molecules that regulate
immune response,
3514:Transcription
factors that regulate
immune responses,
3515:Kinases that
regulate immune
responses,
3516:Phophatases that
regulate immune
response,
3517: RepA,
3518:Ori gene,
3519:Par,
3520:Rop,
3521: Sythesizes DNA
in 5?- 3? direction,
3522:Facilitate
Phosphodiester bonds ,
3523:Maintain plasmid
supercoiling,
3524:Prevent DNA
from restriction
endonuclease mediated
digestion,
3525: 1,2-Ethanediol,
3526:Ethanol,
16 878 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q16
MyD88, IRAK1 and IRAKM are molecules that belong to the:
18 880 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q18
Plasmid stability in cells is maintained by
17 879 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q17
HVEM and LIGHT are
20 882 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q20
The reaction of water with ethylene oxide yields in the presence of acid
19 881 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q19
DNA ligase
3527:Acetic acid,
3528:Acetaldehyde,
3529: SN1,
3530:SN2,
3531:E1,
3532:None of these,
3533: as an acid base
indicator,
3534:to dye silk and
wool,
3535:for dehydration,
3536:as a Lewis base,
3537: an alkaloid,
3538:a phytosteroid,
3539:a carboxylic acid,
3540:a triterpenoid,
3541: 1-Pentyne,
3542:1-Hexyne,
3543:1-Heptyne,
3544:1-Butyne,
3545: Benzaldehyde,
3546:Sodium benzoate
,
3547:Benzyne,
3548:1-Phenylethane,
3549: N,N-
dimethylaniline,
3550:Toluene,
3551:4-Methylaniline,
20 882 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q20
The reaction of water with ethylene oxide yields in the presence of acid
22 884 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q22
Crystal violet is used
21 883 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q21
A transition state of high energy is formed in the following reaction
24 886 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q24
The reaction of Lithium acetylide with n-Butyl bromide yields
23 885 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q23
Formation of turbidity on reaction of a plant extract with
Phosphomolybdic acid indicates the presence of
26 888 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q26
Aniline reacts with 2 moles of Methylchloride to yield
25 887 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q25
The reaction of benzoic acid and sodium bicarbonate yields

FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
Sr.No
Question
Id
Question

Descripti
on
Question Body Options
3449: Imatinib,
3450:Bleomycin,
3451:Adriamycin,
3452:cisplatin,
3453:DNA glycosylase,
3454:DNA ligase,
3455:DNA polymerase,
3456:RNA polymerase,
3457:Subunit
association,
3458:Promoter binding,
3459:Initiation and
elongation,
3460:Cation binding,
3461:?70,
3462:?32,
3463:?54,
3464:?28,
3465:5? end of the
tRNA,
3466:3? end of the
tRNA,
3467:Amino acid,
3468:Variable loop of
tRNA,
3469: EF-Tu,
3470:EF-G,
2 864 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q02
The enzyme of E.coli that initiates the repair of double stranded DNA
breaks by homologous recombination (?base excision repair in DNA)
1 863 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q01
For chronic myeloid leukemia one of the best chemotherapy drugs
used is:
4 866 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q04
Four types of ? factors are known ,of them which one used during
Nitrogen deficiency?
3 865 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q03
What is the function of the ? subunit of RNA polymerase?
6 868 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q06
The completion of translocation requires the action of the factor
_________________
5 867 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q05
Once the tRNA is aminoacylated, EF-Tu binds to the tRNA at the
____________
DU PhD In Biomedical Sciences
3471:eIF2,
3472:eIF4G,
3473:E1,
3474:E2,
3475:E3,
3476:E4,
3477:Multiple
phosphorylations,
3478:De-
phosphorylation,
3479:Ubiquitinylation,
3480:Destabilizing by
proteolysis in a
proteasome,
3481:Major
Histocompatibility
Complex molecules
that regulate immunity,
3482:Memory Induced
Complementary
Antigen A and B,
3483:Mouse
Incomplete C-Reactive
Antigen A and B,
3484:Micro- Interleukin
Complex A and B,
3485: Minor antigen of
Inducible T cell,
3486:Mucosal
Associated Invariant T
cell,
6 868 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q06
The completion of translocation requires the action of the factor
_________________
8 870 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q08
At the end of each phase of cell cycle, cyclins activating Cdks in that
phase are inactivated irreversibly by
7 869 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q07
Which of the following is an Ubiquitin activating enzyme?
10 872 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q10
MAIT stands for:
9 871 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q09
MICA and MICB are
3487:Memory
Associated islet cell,
3488:Micro-RNA
Associated Inducible T
cells,
3489: Genes for B cell
maturation,
3490:Genes for T cell
maturation,
3491:miRNAs in
Introns for innate
immunity,
3492:Specific regions
in the immune synapse,
3493: Prone to allergy,
3494:Prone to
autoimmunity,
3495:Tolerant to
allergy,
3496:Tolerant to
infection,
3497: Allergens,
3498:Virulence factors
of Staphylococcus
aureus,
3499:Tumor antigens,
3500:B cell maturation
marker,
3501: T cell activation
markers,
3502:B cell activation
markers,
10 872 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q10
MAIT stands for:
12 874 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q12
Atopic individuals are:
11 873 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q11
Central ? Supramolecular Associated Clusters and Peripheral-
Suramolecular Associated clusters relate to:
14 876 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q14
CD69 and Ki-67 are
13 875 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q13
MAGE, PRAME and NY-ESO-1 are examples of
3503:Dendritic cell
activation markers,
3504:Macrophage
activation marker,
3505: Transcription
factors that promote T
helper cell 1 and T
helper cell 2
differentiation,
respectively,
3506:Transcription
factors that promote T
helper cell 2 and T
helper cell 1
differentiation marker,
respectively,
3507:Cytokines that
regulate cell
differentiation into
plasma cells and
memory cells,
respectively,
3508:Proteins secreted
by cytotoxic T cells that
kill infected
macrophages,
3509: B cell receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3510:T cell receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3511:EGF receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
14 876 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q14
CD69 and Ki-67 are
16 878 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q16
MyD88, IRAK1 and IRAKM are molecules that belong to the:
15 877 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q15
T-bet and GATA are:
3512:Toll like receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3513: Costimulatory
molecules that regulate
immune response,
3514:Transcription
factors that regulate
immune responses,
3515:Kinases that
regulate immune
responses,
3516:Phophatases that
regulate immune
response,
3517: RepA,
3518:Ori gene,
3519:Par,
3520:Rop,
3521: Sythesizes DNA
in 5?- 3? direction,
3522:Facilitate
Phosphodiester bonds ,
3523:Maintain plasmid
supercoiling,
3524:Prevent DNA
from restriction
endonuclease mediated
digestion,
3525: 1,2-Ethanediol,
3526:Ethanol,
16 878 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q16
MyD88, IRAK1 and IRAKM are molecules that belong to the:
18 880 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q18
Plasmid stability in cells is maintained by
17 879 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q17
HVEM and LIGHT are
20 882 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q20
The reaction of water with ethylene oxide yields in the presence of acid
19 881 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q19
DNA ligase
3527:Acetic acid,
3528:Acetaldehyde,
3529: SN1,
3530:SN2,
3531:E1,
3532:None of these,
3533: as an acid base
indicator,
3534:to dye silk and
wool,
3535:for dehydration,
3536:as a Lewis base,
3537: an alkaloid,
3538:a phytosteroid,
3539:a carboxylic acid,
3540:a triterpenoid,
3541: 1-Pentyne,
3542:1-Hexyne,
3543:1-Heptyne,
3544:1-Butyne,
3545: Benzaldehyde,
3546:Sodium benzoate
,
3547:Benzyne,
3548:1-Phenylethane,
3549: N,N-
dimethylaniline,
3550:Toluene,
3551:4-Methylaniline,
20 882 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q20
The reaction of water with ethylene oxide yields in the presence of acid
22 884 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q22
Crystal violet is used
21 883 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q21
A transition state of high energy is formed in the following reaction
24 886 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q24
The reaction of Lithium acetylide with n-Butyl bromide yields
23 885 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q23
Formation of turbidity on reaction of a plant extract with
Phosphomolybdic acid indicates the presence of
26 888 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q26
Aniline reacts with 2 moles of Methylchloride to yield
25 887 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q25
The reaction of benzoic acid and sodium bicarbonate yields
3552:2,4-
Dimethylaniline,
3553: Butane thiol,
3554:Dibutyldisulfide,
3555:Thiophene,
3556:None of these,
3557: A base,
3558:An acid,
3559:A dehydrating
agent,
3560:None of these,
3561: Neural Control,
3562:Exocrine Control,
3563:Endocrine Control,
3564: Hormonal
Control,
3565:Sarcomeres
shorten. ,
3566:A bands shorten. ,
3567:I bands shorten. ,
3568:Sarcomeres
shorten?and?I bands
shorten. ,
3569:the left ventricle
ejects a larger volume
of blood with each
systole than the right
ventricle.,
26 888 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q26
Aniline reacts with 2 moles of Methylchloride to yield
28 890 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q28
LDA is used as
27 889 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q27
n-Butane reacts with Sulphur at 5600C to yield
30 892 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q30
During isotonic contraction of a skeletal-muscle fibre the
29 891 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q29
Some neurons in the vagus nerve terminate on sinoatrial (pacemaker)
cells in the heart. These neurons secrete acetylcholine, which
ultimately results in a decreased heart rate. This is an example of
31 893 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q31
According to the Frank-Starling mechanism of the heart,

FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
Sr.No
Question
Id
Question

Descripti
on
Question Body Options
3449: Imatinib,
3450:Bleomycin,
3451:Adriamycin,
3452:cisplatin,
3453:DNA glycosylase,
3454:DNA ligase,
3455:DNA polymerase,
3456:RNA polymerase,
3457:Subunit
association,
3458:Promoter binding,
3459:Initiation and
elongation,
3460:Cation binding,
3461:?70,
3462:?32,
3463:?54,
3464:?28,
3465:5? end of the
tRNA,
3466:3? end of the
tRNA,
3467:Amino acid,
3468:Variable loop of
tRNA,
3469: EF-Tu,
3470:EF-G,
2 864 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q02
The enzyme of E.coli that initiates the repair of double stranded DNA
breaks by homologous recombination (?base excision repair in DNA)
1 863 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q01
For chronic myeloid leukemia one of the best chemotherapy drugs
used is:
4 866 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q04
Four types of ? factors are known ,of them which one used during
Nitrogen deficiency?
3 865 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q03
What is the function of the ? subunit of RNA polymerase?
6 868 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q06
The completion of translocation requires the action of the factor
_________________
5 867 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q05
Once the tRNA is aminoacylated, EF-Tu binds to the tRNA at the
____________
DU PhD In Biomedical Sciences
3471:eIF2,
3472:eIF4G,
3473:E1,
3474:E2,
3475:E3,
3476:E4,
3477:Multiple
phosphorylations,
3478:De-
phosphorylation,
3479:Ubiquitinylation,
3480:Destabilizing by
proteolysis in a
proteasome,
3481:Major
Histocompatibility
Complex molecules
that regulate immunity,
3482:Memory Induced
Complementary
Antigen A and B,
3483:Mouse
Incomplete C-Reactive
Antigen A and B,
3484:Micro- Interleukin
Complex A and B,
3485: Minor antigen of
Inducible T cell,
3486:Mucosal
Associated Invariant T
cell,
6 868 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q06
The completion of translocation requires the action of the factor
_________________
8 870 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q08
At the end of each phase of cell cycle, cyclins activating Cdks in that
phase are inactivated irreversibly by
7 869 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q07
Which of the following is an Ubiquitin activating enzyme?
10 872 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q10
MAIT stands for:
9 871 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q09
MICA and MICB are
3487:Memory
Associated islet cell,
3488:Micro-RNA
Associated Inducible T
cells,
3489: Genes for B cell
maturation,
3490:Genes for T cell
maturation,
3491:miRNAs in
Introns for innate
immunity,
3492:Specific regions
in the immune synapse,
3493: Prone to allergy,
3494:Prone to
autoimmunity,
3495:Tolerant to
allergy,
3496:Tolerant to
infection,
3497: Allergens,
3498:Virulence factors
of Staphylococcus
aureus,
3499:Tumor antigens,
3500:B cell maturation
marker,
3501: T cell activation
markers,
3502:B cell activation
markers,
10 872 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q10
MAIT stands for:
12 874 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q12
Atopic individuals are:
11 873 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q11
Central ? Supramolecular Associated Clusters and Peripheral-
Suramolecular Associated clusters relate to:
14 876 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q14
CD69 and Ki-67 are
13 875 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q13
MAGE, PRAME and NY-ESO-1 are examples of
3503:Dendritic cell
activation markers,
3504:Macrophage
activation marker,
3505: Transcription
factors that promote T
helper cell 1 and T
helper cell 2
differentiation,
respectively,
3506:Transcription
factors that promote T
helper cell 2 and T
helper cell 1
differentiation marker,
respectively,
3507:Cytokines that
regulate cell
differentiation into
plasma cells and
memory cells,
respectively,
3508:Proteins secreted
by cytotoxic T cells that
kill infected
macrophages,
3509: B cell receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3510:T cell receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3511:EGF receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
14 876 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q14
CD69 and Ki-67 are
16 878 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q16
MyD88, IRAK1 and IRAKM are molecules that belong to the:
15 877 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q15
T-bet and GATA are:
3512:Toll like receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3513: Costimulatory
molecules that regulate
immune response,
3514:Transcription
factors that regulate
immune responses,
3515:Kinases that
regulate immune
responses,
3516:Phophatases that
regulate immune
response,
3517: RepA,
3518:Ori gene,
3519:Par,
3520:Rop,
3521: Sythesizes DNA
in 5?- 3? direction,
3522:Facilitate
Phosphodiester bonds ,
3523:Maintain plasmid
supercoiling,
3524:Prevent DNA
from restriction
endonuclease mediated
digestion,
3525: 1,2-Ethanediol,
3526:Ethanol,
16 878 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q16
MyD88, IRAK1 and IRAKM are molecules that belong to the:
18 880 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q18
Plasmid stability in cells is maintained by
17 879 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q17
HVEM and LIGHT are
20 882 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q20
The reaction of water with ethylene oxide yields in the presence of acid
19 881 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q19
DNA ligase
3527:Acetic acid,
3528:Acetaldehyde,
3529: SN1,
3530:SN2,
3531:E1,
3532:None of these,
3533: as an acid base
indicator,
3534:to dye silk and
wool,
3535:for dehydration,
3536:as a Lewis base,
3537: an alkaloid,
3538:a phytosteroid,
3539:a carboxylic acid,
3540:a triterpenoid,
3541: 1-Pentyne,
3542:1-Hexyne,
3543:1-Heptyne,
3544:1-Butyne,
3545: Benzaldehyde,
3546:Sodium benzoate
,
3547:Benzyne,
3548:1-Phenylethane,
3549: N,N-
dimethylaniline,
3550:Toluene,
3551:4-Methylaniline,
20 882 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q20
The reaction of water with ethylene oxide yields in the presence of acid
22 884 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q22
Crystal violet is used
21 883 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q21
A transition state of high energy is formed in the following reaction
24 886 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q24
The reaction of Lithium acetylide with n-Butyl bromide yields
23 885 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q23
Formation of turbidity on reaction of a plant extract with
Phosphomolybdic acid indicates the presence of
26 888 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q26
Aniline reacts with 2 moles of Methylchloride to yield
25 887 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q25
The reaction of benzoic acid and sodium bicarbonate yields
3552:2,4-
Dimethylaniline,
3553: Butane thiol,
3554:Dibutyldisulfide,
3555:Thiophene,
3556:None of these,
3557: A base,
3558:An acid,
3559:A dehydrating
agent,
3560:None of these,
3561: Neural Control,
3562:Exocrine Control,
3563:Endocrine Control,
3564: Hormonal
Control,
3565:Sarcomeres
shorten. ,
3566:A bands shorten. ,
3567:I bands shorten. ,
3568:Sarcomeres
shorten?and?I bands
shorten. ,
3569:the left ventricle
ejects a larger volume
of blood with each
systole than the right
ventricle.,
26 888 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q26
Aniline reacts with 2 moles of Methylchloride to yield
28 890 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q28
LDA is used as
27 889 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q27
n-Butane reacts with Sulphur at 5600C to yield
30 892 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q30
During isotonic contraction of a skeletal-muscle fibre the
29 891 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q29
Some neurons in the vagus nerve terminate on sinoatrial (pacemaker)
cells in the heart. These neurons secrete acetylcholine, which
ultimately results in a decreased heart rate. This is an example of
31 893 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q31
According to the Frank-Starling mechanism of the heart,
3570:the intrinsic rate
of the heart's
pacemaker is 100
beats/min.,
3571:cardiac output
increases with
increased heart rate.,
3572: stroke volume
increases with
increased venous
return.,
3573: be lower than
alveolar pressure.,
3574:be between +5
and +10 mmHg above
atmospheric pressure.,
3575:alternate
between being less
than and greater than
atmospheric pressure.,
3576:change as the
respiratory demands of
the body change.,
3577: is dissolved in
the plasma.,
3578:is bound to
hemoglobin.,
3579:is in carbonic
acid.,
3580:is in bicarbonate
ion.,
3581:Plasma-55%,
Protein/WBC-1%, RBC-
45% ,
32 894 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q32
In order for the lungs to function normally, the intrapleural pressure
must
31 893 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q31
According to the Frank-Starling mechanism of the heart,
34 896 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q34
Which is true about composition of Blood
33 895 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q33
Most of the CO2 that is transported in blood

FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
Sr.No
Question
Id
Question

Descripti
on
Question Body Options
3449: Imatinib,
3450:Bleomycin,
3451:Adriamycin,
3452:cisplatin,
3453:DNA glycosylase,
3454:DNA ligase,
3455:DNA polymerase,
3456:RNA polymerase,
3457:Subunit
association,
3458:Promoter binding,
3459:Initiation and
elongation,
3460:Cation binding,
3461:?70,
3462:?32,
3463:?54,
3464:?28,
3465:5? end of the
tRNA,
3466:3? end of the
tRNA,
3467:Amino acid,
3468:Variable loop of
tRNA,
3469: EF-Tu,
3470:EF-G,
2 864 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q02
The enzyme of E.coli that initiates the repair of double stranded DNA
breaks by homologous recombination (?base excision repair in DNA)
1 863 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q01
For chronic myeloid leukemia one of the best chemotherapy drugs
used is:
4 866 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q04
Four types of ? factors are known ,of them which one used during
Nitrogen deficiency?
3 865 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q03
What is the function of the ? subunit of RNA polymerase?
6 868 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q06
The completion of translocation requires the action of the factor
_________________
5 867 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q05
Once the tRNA is aminoacylated, EF-Tu binds to the tRNA at the
____________
DU PhD In Biomedical Sciences
3471:eIF2,
3472:eIF4G,
3473:E1,
3474:E2,
3475:E3,
3476:E4,
3477:Multiple
phosphorylations,
3478:De-
phosphorylation,
3479:Ubiquitinylation,
3480:Destabilizing by
proteolysis in a
proteasome,
3481:Major
Histocompatibility
Complex molecules
that regulate immunity,
3482:Memory Induced
Complementary
Antigen A and B,
3483:Mouse
Incomplete C-Reactive
Antigen A and B,
3484:Micro- Interleukin
Complex A and B,
3485: Minor antigen of
Inducible T cell,
3486:Mucosal
Associated Invariant T
cell,
6 868 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q06
The completion of translocation requires the action of the factor
_________________
8 870 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q08
At the end of each phase of cell cycle, cyclins activating Cdks in that
phase are inactivated irreversibly by
7 869 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q07
Which of the following is an Ubiquitin activating enzyme?
10 872 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q10
MAIT stands for:
9 871 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q09
MICA and MICB are
3487:Memory
Associated islet cell,
3488:Micro-RNA
Associated Inducible T
cells,
3489: Genes for B cell
maturation,
3490:Genes for T cell
maturation,
3491:miRNAs in
Introns for innate
immunity,
3492:Specific regions
in the immune synapse,
3493: Prone to allergy,
3494:Prone to
autoimmunity,
3495:Tolerant to
allergy,
3496:Tolerant to
infection,
3497: Allergens,
3498:Virulence factors
of Staphylococcus
aureus,
3499:Tumor antigens,
3500:B cell maturation
marker,
3501: T cell activation
markers,
3502:B cell activation
markers,
10 872 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q10
MAIT stands for:
12 874 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q12
Atopic individuals are:
11 873 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q11
Central ? Supramolecular Associated Clusters and Peripheral-
Suramolecular Associated clusters relate to:
14 876 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q14
CD69 and Ki-67 are
13 875 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q13
MAGE, PRAME and NY-ESO-1 are examples of
3503:Dendritic cell
activation markers,
3504:Macrophage
activation marker,
3505: Transcription
factors that promote T
helper cell 1 and T
helper cell 2
differentiation,
respectively,
3506:Transcription
factors that promote T
helper cell 2 and T
helper cell 1
differentiation marker,
respectively,
3507:Cytokines that
regulate cell
differentiation into
plasma cells and
memory cells,
respectively,
3508:Proteins secreted
by cytotoxic T cells that
kill infected
macrophages,
3509: B cell receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3510:T cell receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3511:EGF receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
14 876 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q14
CD69 and Ki-67 are
16 878 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q16
MyD88, IRAK1 and IRAKM are molecules that belong to the:
15 877 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q15
T-bet and GATA are:
3512:Toll like receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3513: Costimulatory
molecules that regulate
immune response,
3514:Transcription
factors that regulate
immune responses,
3515:Kinases that
regulate immune
responses,
3516:Phophatases that
regulate immune
response,
3517: RepA,
3518:Ori gene,
3519:Par,
3520:Rop,
3521: Sythesizes DNA
in 5?- 3? direction,
3522:Facilitate
Phosphodiester bonds ,
3523:Maintain plasmid
supercoiling,
3524:Prevent DNA
from restriction
endonuclease mediated
digestion,
3525: 1,2-Ethanediol,
3526:Ethanol,
16 878 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q16
MyD88, IRAK1 and IRAKM are molecules that belong to the:
18 880 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q18
Plasmid stability in cells is maintained by
17 879 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q17
HVEM and LIGHT are
20 882 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q20
The reaction of water with ethylene oxide yields in the presence of acid
19 881 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q19
DNA ligase
3527:Acetic acid,
3528:Acetaldehyde,
3529: SN1,
3530:SN2,
3531:E1,
3532:None of these,
3533: as an acid base
indicator,
3534:to dye silk and
wool,
3535:for dehydration,
3536:as a Lewis base,
3537: an alkaloid,
3538:a phytosteroid,
3539:a carboxylic acid,
3540:a triterpenoid,
3541: 1-Pentyne,
3542:1-Hexyne,
3543:1-Heptyne,
3544:1-Butyne,
3545: Benzaldehyde,
3546:Sodium benzoate
,
3547:Benzyne,
3548:1-Phenylethane,
3549: N,N-
dimethylaniline,
3550:Toluene,
3551:4-Methylaniline,
20 882 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q20
The reaction of water with ethylene oxide yields in the presence of acid
22 884 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q22
Crystal violet is used
21 883 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q21
A transition state of high energy is formed in the following reaction
24 886 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q24
The reaction of Lithium acetylide with n-Butyl bromide yields
23 885 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q23
Formation of turbidity on reaction of a plant extract with
Phosphomolybdic acid indicates the presence of
26 888 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q26
Aniline reacts with 2 moles of Methylchloride to yield
25 887 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q25
The reaction of benzoic acid and sodium bicarbonate yields
3552:2,4-
Dimethylaniline,
3553: Butane thiol,
3554:Dibutyldisulfide,
3555:Thiophene,
3556:None of these,
3557: A base,
3558:An acid,
3559:A dehydrating
agent,
3560:None of these,
3561: Neural Control,
3562:Exocrine Control,
3563:Endocrine Control,
3564: Hormonal
Control,
3565:Sarcomeres
shorten. ,
3566:A bands shorten. ,
3567:I bands shorten. ,
3568:Sarcomeres
shorten?and?I bands
shorten. ,
3569:the left ventricle
ejects a larger volume
of blood with each
systole than the right
ventricle.,
26 888 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q26
Aniline reacts with 2 moles of Methylchloride to yield
28 890 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q28
LDA is used as
27 889 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q27
n-Butane reacts with Sulphur at 5600C to yield
30 892 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q30
During isotonic contraction of a skeletal-muscle fibre the
29 891 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q29
Some neurons in the vagus nerve terminate on sinoatrial (pacemaker)
cells in the heart. These neurons secrete acetylcholine, which
ultimately results in a decreased heart rate. This is an example of
31 893 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q31
According to the Frank-Starling mechanism of the heart,
3570:the intrinsic rate
of the heart's
pacemaker is 100
beats/min.,
3571:cardiac output
increases with
increased heart rate.,
3572: stroke volume
increases with
increased venous
return.,
3573: be lower than
alveolar pressure.,
3574:be between +5
and +10 mmHg above
atmospheric pressure.,
3575:alternate
between being less
than and greater than
atmospheric pressure.,
3576:change as the
respiratory demands of
the body change.,
3577: is dissolved in
the plasma.,
3578:is bound to
hemoglobin.,
3579:is in carbonic
acid.,
3580:is in bicarbonate
ion.,
3581:Plasma-55%,
Protein/WBC-1%, RBC-
45% ,
32 894 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q32
In order for the lungs to function normally, the intrapleural pressure
must
31 893 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q31
According to the Frank-Starling mechanism of the heart,
34 896 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q34
Which is true about composition of Blood
33 895 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q33
Most of the CO2 that is transported in blood
3582:Plasma-50%,
Protein/WBC-3%, RBC-
47% ,
3583:Plasma-45%,
Protein/WBC-4%, RBC-
51% ,
3584:Plasma-35%,
Protein/WBC-2%, RBC-
65% ,
3585: Low blood
volume, Anemia, poor
blood flow,
3586:Low Hemoglobin,
excess blood flow,
3587:Pulmonary
diseases,
hypererythremia,
excess blood flow,
3588:Low blood
volume,
hypererythremia,
pulmonary diseases,
3589:I and II only ,
3590:II and III only,
3591:I and III only ,
3592:I, II and III,
3593:Lampbrush,
3594:Polytene,
3595:Supernumerary,
3596:B-chromosomes.,
3597: Eight,
3598:Four,
34 896 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q34
Which is true about composition of Blood
36 898 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q36
Mendel?s principle of dominance stated that when an individual has a
hybrid genotype, it will only express thedominant trait in its
phenotype. Which of the following types of inheritance do not agree
with this principle??I) co-dominance?II) multiple alleles?III) incomplete
dominance
35 897 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q35
Erythropoietin secretion is stimulated by
38 900 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q38
Drosophila has four pairs of chromosomes. How many linkage groups
does it have
37 899 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q37
Chromosomes found in the salivary gland of Drosophila is

FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
Sr.No
Question
Id
Question

Descripti
on
Question Body Options
3449: Imatinib,
3450:Bleomycin,
3451:Adriamycin,
3452:cisplatin,
3453:DNA glycosylase,
3454:DNA ligase,
3455:DNA polymerase,
3456:RNA polymerase,
3457:Subunit
association,
3458:Promoter binding,
3459:Initiation and
elongation,
3460:Cation binding,
3461:?70,
3462:?32,
3463:?54,
3464:?28,
3465:5? end of the
tRNA,
3466:3? end of the
tRNA,
3467:Amino acid,
3468:Variable loop of
tRNA,
3469: EF-Tu,
3470:EF-G,
2 864 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q02
The enzyme of E.coli that initiates the repair of double stranded DNA
breaks by homologous recombination (?base excision repair in DNA)
1 863 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q01
For chronic myeloid leukemia one of the best chemotherapy drugs
used is:
4 866 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q04
Four types of ? factors are known ,of them which one used during
Nitrogen deficiency?
3 865 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q03
What is the function of the ? subunit of RNA polymerase?
6 868 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q06
The completion of translocation requires the action of the factor
_________________
5 867 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q05
Once the tRNA is aminoacylated, EF-Tu binds to the tRNA at the
____________
DU PhD In Biomedical Sciences
3471:eIF2,
3472:eIF4G,
3473:E1,
3474:E2,
3475:E3,
3476:E4,
3477:Multiple
phosphorylations,
3478:De-
phosphorylation,
3479:Ubiquitinylation,
3480:Destabilizing by
proteolysis in a
proteasome,
3481:Major
Histocompatibility
Complex molecules
that regulate immunity,
3482:Memory Induced
Complementary
Antigen A and B,
3483:Mouse
Incomplete C-Reactive
Antigen A and B,
3484:Micro- Interleukin
Complex A and B,
3485: Minor antigen of
Inducible T cell,
3486:Mucosal
Associated Invariant T
cell,
6 868 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q06
The completion of translocation requires the action of the factor
_________________
8 870 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q08
At the end of each phase of cell cycle, cyclins activating Cdks in that
phase are inactivated irreversibly by
7 869 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q07
Which of the following is an Ubiquitin activating enzyme?
10 872 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q10
MAIT stands for:
9 871 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q09
MICA and MICB are
3487:Memory
Associated islet cell,
3488:Micro-RNA
Associated Inducible T
cells,
3489: Genes for B cell
maturation,
3490:Genes for T cell
maturation,
3491:miRNAs in
Introns for innate
immunity,
3492:Specific regions
in the immune synapse,
3493: Prone to allergy,
3494:Prone to
autoimmunity,
3495:Tolerant to
allergy,
3496:Tolerant to
infection,
3497: Allergens,
3498:Virulence factors
of Staphylococcus
aureus,
3499:Tumor antigens,
3500:B cell maturation
marker,
3501: T cell activation
markers,
3502:B cell activation
markers,
10 872 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q10
MAIT stands for:
12 874 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q12
Atopic individuals are:
11 873 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q11
Central ? Supramolecular Associated Clusters and Peripheral-
Suramolecular Associated clusters relate to:
14 876 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q14
CD69 and Ki-67 are
13 875 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q13
MAGE, PRAME and NY-ESO-1 are examples of
3503:Dendritic cell
activation markers,
3504:Macrophage
activation marker,
3505: Transcription
factors that promote T
helper cell 1 and T
helper cell 2
differentiation,
respectively,
3506:Transcription
factors that promote T
helper cell 2 and T
helper cell 1
differentiation marker,
respectively,
3507:Cytokines that
regulate cell
differentiation into
plasma cells and
memory cells,
respectively,
3508:Proteins secreted
by cytotoxic T cells that
kill infected
macrophages,
3509: B cell receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3510:T cell receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3511:EGF receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
14 876 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q14
CD69 and Ki-67 are
16 878 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q16
MyD88, IRAK1 and IRAKM are molecules that belong to the:
15 877 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q15
T-bet and GATA are:
3512:Toll like receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3513: Costimulatory
molecules that regulate
immune response,
3514:Transcription
factors that regulate
immune responses,
3515:Kinases that
regulate immune
responses,
3516:Phophatases that
regulate immune
response,
3517: RepA,
3518:Ori gene,
3519:Par,
3520:Rop,
3521: Sythesizes DNA
in 5?- 3? direction,
3522:Facilitate
Phosphodiester bonds ,
3523:Maintain plasmid
supercoiling,
3524:Prevent DNA
from restriction
endonuclease mediated
digestion,
3525: 1,2-Ethanediol,
3526:Ethanol,
16 878 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q16
MyD88, IRAK1 and IRAKM are molecules that belong to the:
18 880 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q18
Plasmid stability in cells is maintained by
17 879 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q17
HVEM and LIGHT are
20 882 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q20
The reaction of water with ethylene oxide yields in the presence of acid
19 881 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q19
DNA ligase
3527:Acetic acid,
3528:Acetaldehyde,
3529: SN1,
3530:SN2,
3531:E1,
3532:None of these,
3533: as an acid base
indicator,
3534:to dye silk and
wool,
3535:for dehydration,
3536:as a Lewis base,
3537: an alkaloid,
3538:a phytosteroid,
3539:a carboxylic acid,
3540:a triterpenoid,
3541: 1-Pentyne,
3542:1-Hexyne,
3543:1-Heptyne,
3544:1-Butyne,
3545: Benzaldehyde,
3546:Sodium benzoate
,
3547:Benzyne,
3548:1-Phenylethane,
3549: N,N-
dimethylaniline,
3550:Toluene,
3551:4-Methylaniline,
20 882 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q20
The reaction of water with ethylene oxide yields in the presence of acid
22 884 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q22
Crystal violet is used
21 883 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q21
A transition state of high energy is formed in the following reaction
24 886 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q24
The reaction of Lithium acetylide with n-Butyl bromide yields
23 885 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q23
Formation of turbidity on reaction of a plant extract with
Phosphomolybdic acid indicates the presence of
26 888 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q26
Aniline reacts with 2 moles of Methylchloride to yield
25 887 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q25
The reaction of benzoic acid and sodium bicarbonate yields
3552:2,4-
Dimethylaniline,
3553: Butane thiol,
3554:Dibutyldisulfide,
3555:Thiophene,
3556:None of these,
3557: A base,
3558:An acid,
3559:A dehydrating
agent,
3560:None of these,
3561: Neural Control,
3562:Exocrine Control,
3563:Endocrine Control,
3564: Hormonal
Control,
3565:Sarcomeres
shorten. ,
3566:A bands shorten. ,
3567:I bands shorten. ,
3568:Sarcomeres
shorten?and?I bands
shorten. ,
3569:the left ventricle
ejects a larger volume
of blood with each
systole than the right
ventricle.,
26 888 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q26
Aniline reacts with 2 moles of Methylchloride to yield
28 890 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q28
LDA is used as
27 889 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q27
n-Butane reacts with Sulphur at 5600C to yield
30 892 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q30
During isotonic contraction of a skeletal-muscle fibre the
29 891 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q29
Some neurons in the vagus nerve terminate on sinoatrial (pacemaker)
cells in the heart. These neurons secrete acetylcholine, which
ultimately results in a decreased heart rate. This is an example of
31 893 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q31
According to the Frank-Starling mechanism of the heart,
3570:the intrinsic rate
of the heart's
pacemaker is 100
beats/min.,
3571:cardiac output
increases with
increased heart rate.,
3572: stroke volume
increases with
increased venous
return.,
3573: be lower than
alveolar pressure.,
3574:be between +5
and +10 mmHg above
atmospheric pressure.,
3575:alternate
between being less
than and greater than
atmospheric pressure.,
3576:change as the
respiratory demands of
the body change.,
3577: is dissolved in
the plasma.,
3578:is bound to
hemoglobin.,
3579:is in carbonic
acid.,
3580:is in bicarbonate
ion.,
3581:Plasma-55%,
Protein/WBC-1%, RBC-
45% ,
32 894 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q32
In order for the lungs to function normally, the intrapleural pressure
must
31 893 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q31
According to the Frank-Starling mechanism of the heart,
34 896 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q34
Which is true about composition of Blood
33 895 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q33
Most of the CO2 that is transported in blood
3582:Plasma-50%,
Protein/WBC-3%, RBC-
47% ,
3583:Plasma-45%,
Protein/WBC-4%, RBC-
51% ,
3584:Plasma-35%,
Protein/WBC-2%, RBC-
65% ,
3585: Low blood
volume, Anemia, poor
blood flow,
3586:Low Hemoglobin,
excess blood flow,
3587:Pulmonary
diseases,
hypererythremia,
excess blood flow,
3588:Low blood
volume,
hypererythremia,
pulmonary diseases,
3589:I and II only ,
3590:II and III only,
3591:I and III only ,
3592:I, II and III,
3593:Lampbrush,
3594:Polytene,
3595:Supernumerary,
3596:B-chromosomes.,
3597: Eight,
3598:Four,
34 896 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q34
Which is true about composition of Blood
36 898 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q36
Mendel?s principle of dominance stated that when an individual has a
hybrid genotype, it will only express thedominant trait in its
phenotype. Which of the following types of inheritance do not agree
with this principle??I) co-dominance?II) multiple alleles?III) incomplete
dominance
35 897 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q35
Erythropoietin secretion is stimulated by
38 900 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q38
Drosophila has four pairs of chromosomes. How many linkage groups
does it have
37 899 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q37
Chromosomes found in the salivary gland of Drosophila is
3599:One less than the
pairs of chromosomes,
3600:One more than
the pairs of
chromosomes,
3601:Pluripotent ,
3602:totipotent ,
3603:determined ,
3604:differentiated ,
3605: the point of
sperm entry,
3606:gravity,
3607:the point of
contact with uterus,
3608:genetics
difference in the cells,
3609:Have one more
membrane that helps
retain the crystal violet
stain,
3610:Have multiple
layers of peptidoglycan
that help retain the
crystal violet stain,
3611:Have a thick
capsule that traps the
crystal violet stain,
3612:Have periplasmic
space that trap the
crystal violet,
38 900 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q38
Drosophila has four pairs of chromosomes. How many linkage groups
does it have
40 902 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q40
The initial dorsal ventral axis in amphibian embryo is determined by
39 901 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q39
During the development, if a cell has committed to a particular fate, it
is said to be
41 903 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q41
Gram Positive bacteria

FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
Sr.No
Question
Id
Question

Descripti
on
Question Body Options
3449: Imatinib,
3450:Bleomycin,
3451:Adriamycin,
3452:cisplatin,
3453:DNA glycosylase,
3454:DNA ligase,
3455:DNA polymerase,
3456:RNA polymerase,
3457:Subunit
association,
3458:Promoter binding,
3459:Initiation and
elongation,
3460:Cation binding,
3461:?70,
3462:?32,
3463:?54,
3464:?28,
3465:5? end of the
tRNA,
3466:3? end of the
tRNA,
3467:Amino acid,
3468:Variable loop of
tRNA,
3469: EF-Tu,
3470:EF-G,
2 864 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q02
The enzyme of E.coli that initiates the repair of double stranded DNA
breaks by homologous recombination (?base excision repair in DNA)
1 863 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q01
For chronic myeloid leukemia one of the best chemotherapy drugs
used is:
4 866 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q04
Four types of ? factors are known ,of them which one used during
Nitrogen deficiency?
3 865 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q03
What is the function of the ? subunit of RNA polymerase?
6 868 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q06
The completion of translocation requires the action of the factor
_________________
5 867 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q05
Once the tRNA is aminoacylated, EF-Tu binds to the tRNA at the
____________
DU PhD In Biomedical Sciences
3471:eIF2,
3472:eIF4G,
3473:E1,
3474:E2,
3475:E3,
3476:E4,
3477:Multiple
phosphorylations,
3478:De-
phosphorylation,
3479:Ubiquitinylation,
3480:Destabilizing by
proteolysis in a
proteasome,
3481:Major
Histocompatibility
Complex molecules
that regulate immunity,
3482:Memory Induced
Complementary
Antigen A and B,
3483:Mouse
Incomplete C-Reactive
Antigen A and B,
3484:Micro- Interleukin
Complex A and B,
3485: Minor antigen of
Inducible T cell,
3486:Mucosal
Associated Invariant T
cell,
6 868 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q06
The completion of translocation requires the action of the factor
_________________
8 870 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q08
At the end of each phase of cell cycle, cyclins activating Cdks in that
phase are inactivated irreversibly by
7 869 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q07
Which of the following is an Ubiquitin activating enzyme?
10 872 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q10
MAIT stands for:
9 871 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q09
MICA and MICB are
3487:Memory
Associated islet cell,
3488:Micro-RNA
Associated Inducible T
cells,
3489: Genes for B cell
maturation,
3490:Genes for T cell
maturation,
3491:miRNAs in
Introns for innate
immunity,
3492:Specific regions
in the immune synapse,
3493: Prone to allergy,
3494:Prone to
autoimmunity,
3495:Tolerant to
allergy,
3496:Tolerant to
infection,
3497: Allergens,
3498:Virulence factors
of Staphylococcus
aureus,
3499:Tumor antigens,
3500:B cell maturation
marker,
3501: T cell activation
markers,
3502:B cell activation
markers,
10 872 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q10
MAIT stands for:
12 874 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q12
Atopic individuals are:
11 873 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q11
Central ? Supramolecular Associated Clusters and Peripheral-
Suramolecular Associated clusters relate to:
14 876 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q14
CD69 and Ki-67 are
13 875 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q13
MAGE, PRAME and NY-ESO-1 are examples of
3503:Dendritic cell
activation markers,
3504:Macrophage
activation marker,
3505: Transcription
factors that promote T
helper cell 1 and T
helper cell 2
differentiation,
respectively,
3506:Transcription
factors that promote T
helper cell 2 and T
helper cell 1
differentiation marker,
respectively,
3507:Cytokines that
regulate cell
differentiation into
plasma cells and
memory cells,
respectively,
3508:Proteins secreted
by cytotoxic T cells that
kill infected
macrophages,
3509: B cell receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3510:T cell receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3511:EGF receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
14 876 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q14
CD69 and Ki-67 are
16 878 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q16
MyD88, IRAK1 and IRAKM are molecules that belong to the:
15 877 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q15
T-bet and GATA are:
3512:Toll like receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3513: Costimulatory
molecules that regulate
immune response,
3514:Transcription
factors that regulate
immune responses,
3515:Kinases that
regulate immune
responses,
3516:Phophatases that
regulate immune
response,
3517: RepA,
3518:Ori gene,
3519:Par,
3520:Rop,
3521: Sythesizes DNA
in 5?- 3? direction,
3522:Facilitate
Phosphodiester bonds ,
3523:Maintain plasmid
supercoiling,
3524:Prevent DNA
from restriction
endonuclease mediated
digestion,
3525: 1,2-Ethanediol,
3526:Ethanol,
16 878 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q16
MyD88, IRAK1 and IRAKM are molecules that belong to the:
18 880 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q18
Plasmid stability in cells is maintained by
17 879 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q17
HVEM and LIGHT are
20 882 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q20
The reaction of water with ethylene oxide yields in the presence of acid
19 881 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q19
DNA ligase
3527:Acetic acid,
3528:Acetaldehyde,
3529: SN1,
3530:SN2,
3531:E1,
3532:None of these,
3533: as an acid base
indicator,
3534:to dye silk and
wool,
3535:for dehydration,
3536:as a Lewis base,
3537: an alkaloid,
3538:a phytosteroid,
3539:a carboxylic acid,
3540:a triterpenoid,
3541: 1-Pentyne,
3542:1-Hexyne,
3543:1-Heptyne,
3544:1-Butyne,
3545: Benzaldehyde,
3546:Sodium benzoate
,
3547:Benzyne,
3548:1-Phenylethane,
3549: N,N-
dimethylaniline,
3550:Toluene,
3551:4-Methylaniline,
20 882 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q20
The reaction of water with ethylene oxide yields in the presence of acid
22 884 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q22
Crystal violet is used
21 883 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q21
A transition state of high energy is formed in the following reaction
24 886 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q24
The reaction of Lithium acetylide with n-Butyl bromide yields
23 885 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q23
Formation of turbidity on reaction of a plant extract with
Phosphomolybdic acid indicates the presence of
26 888 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q26
Aniline reacts with 2 moles of Methylchloride to yield
25 887 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q25
The reaction of benzoic acid and sodium bicarbonate yields
3552:2,4-
Dimethylaniline,
3553: Butane thiol,
3554:Dibutyldisulfide,
3555:Thiophene,
3556:None of these,
3557: A base,
3558:An acid,
3559:A dehydrating
agent,
3560:None of these,
3561: Neural Control,
3562:Exocrine Control,
3563:Endocrine Control,
3564: Hormonal
Control,
3565:Sarcomeres
shorten. ,
3566:A bands shorten. ,
3567:I bands shorten. ,
3568:Sarcomeres
shorten?and?I bands
shorten. ,
3569:the left ventricle
ejects a larger volume
of blood with each
systole than the right
ventricle.,
26 888 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q26
Aniline reacts with 2 moles of Methylchloride to yield
28 890 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q28
LDA is used as
27 889 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q27
n-Butane reacts with Sulphur at 5600C to yield
30 892 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q30
During isotonic contraction of a skeletal-muscle fibre the
29 891 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q29
Some neurons in the vagus nerve terminate on sinoatrial (pacemaker)
cells in the heart. These neurons secrete acetylcholine, which
ultimately results in a decreased heart rate. This is an example of
31 893 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q31
According to the Frank-Starling mechanism of the heart,
3570:the intrinsic rate
of the heart's
pacemaker is 100
beats/min.,
3571:cardiac output
increases with
increased heart rate.,
3572: stroke volume
increases with
increased venous
return.,
3573: be lower than
alveolar pressure.,
3574:be between +5
and +10 mmHg above
atmospheric pressure.,
3575:alternate
between being less
than and greater than
atmospheric pressure.,
3576:change as the
respiratory demands of
the body change.,
3577: is dissolved in
the plasma.,
3578:is bound to
hemoglobin.,
3579:is in carbonic
acid.,
3580:is in bicarbonate
ion.,
3581:Plasma-55%,
Protein/WBC-1%, RBC-
45% ,
32 894 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q32
In order for the lungs to function normally, the intrapleural pressure
must
31 893 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q31
According to the Frank-Starling mechanism of the heart,
34 896 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q34
Which is true about composition of Blood
33 895 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q33
Most of the CO2 that is transported in blood
3582:Plasma-50%,
Protein/WBC-3%, RBC-
47% ,
3583:Plasma-45%,
Protein/WBC-4%, RBC-
51% ,
3584:Plasma-35%,
Protein/WBC-2%, RBC-
65% ,
3585: Low blood
volume, Anemia, poor
blood flow,
3586:Low Hemoglobin,
excess blood flow,
3587:Pulmonary
diseases,
hypererythremia,
excess blood flow,
3588:Low blood
volume,
hypererythremia,
pulmonary diseases,
3589:I and II only ,
3590:II and III only,
3591:I and III only ,
3592:I, II and III,
3593:Lampbrush,
3594:Polytene,
3595:Supernumerary,
3596:B-chromosomes.,
3597: Eight,
3598:Four,
34 896 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q34
Which is true about composition of Blood
36 898 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q36
Mendel?s principle of dominance stated that when an individual has a
hybrid genotype, it will only express thedominant trait in its
phenotype. Which of the following types of inheritance do not agree
with this principle??I) co-dominance?II) multiple alleles?III) incomplete
dominance
35 897 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q35
Erythropoietin secretion is stimulated by
38 900 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q38
Drosophila has four pairs of chromosomes. How many linkage groups
does it have
37 899 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q37
Chromosomes found in the salivary gland of Drosophila is
3599:One less than the
pairs of chromosomes,
3600:One more than
the pairs of
chromosomes,
3601:Pluripotent ,
3602:totipotent ,
3603:determined ,
3604:differentiated ,
3605: the point of
sperm entry,
3606:gravity,
3607:the point of
contact with uterus,
3608:genetics
difference in the cells,
3609:Have one more
membrane that helps
retain the crystal violet
stain,
3610:Have multiple
layers of peptidoglycan
that help retain the
crystal violet stain,
3611:Have a thick
capsule that traps the
crystal violet stain,
3612:Have periplasmic
space that trap the
crystal violet,
38 900 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q38
Drosophila has four pairs of chromosomes. How many linkage groups
does it have
40 902 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q40
The initial dorsal ventral axis in amphibian embryo is determined by
39 901 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q39
During the development, if a cell has committed to a particular fate, it
is said to be
41 903 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q41
Gram Positive bacteria
3613:They may carry
genes that give their
host a selective
advantage ,
3614:They can render
bacteria drug resistant.
,
3615:None of the
above ,
3616:Both (They can
render bacteria drug
resistant) and (They
may carry genes that
give their host a
selective advantage) ,
3617: Help cells attach
to metal object,
3618:help cells to
magnetically attach to
each other,
3619:Help cells to float
on the surface of fresh
water bodies,
3620:Help cells to
orient in earth
magnetic field,
3621: Inhibit COX-1,
3622:Inhibit COX-2,
3623:Do not inhibit
COX-1 or COX-2,
3624:Both Inhibit COX-
1 and Inhibit COX-2,
42 904 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q42
Plasmids are important to many bacteria because
44 906 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q44
Action of traditional NSAID's
43 905 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q43
Magnetosomes present in some bacteria

FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
Sr.No
Question
Id
Question

Descripti
on
Question Body Options
3449: Imatinib,
3450:Bleomycin,
3451:Adriamycin,
3452:cisplatin,
3453:DNA glycosylase,
3454:DNA ligase,
3455:DNA polymerase,
3456:RNA polymerase,
3457:Subunit
association,
3458:Promoter binding,
3459:Initiation and
elongation,
3460:Cation binding,
3461:?70,
3462:?32,
3463:?54,
3464:?28,
3465:5? end of the
tRNA,
3466:3? end of the
tRNA,
3467:Amino acid,
3468:Variable loop of
tRNA,
3469: EF-Tu,
3470:EF-G,
2 864 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q02
The enzyme of E.coli that initiates the repair of double stranded DNA
breaks by homologous recombination (?base excision repair in DNA)
1 863 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q01
For chronic myeloid leukemia one of the best chemotherapy drugs
used is:
4 866 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q04
Four types of ? factors are known ,of them which one used during
Nitrogen deficiency?
3 865 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q03
What is the function of the ? subunit of RNA polymerase?
6 868 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q06
The completion of translocation requires the action of the factor
_________________
5 867 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q05
Once the tRNA is aminoacylated, EF-Tu binds to the tRNA at the
____________
DU PhD In Biomedical Sciences
3471:eIF2,
3472:eIF4G,
3473:E1,
3474:E2,
3475:E3,
3476:E4,
3477:Multiple
phosphorylations,
3478:De-
phosphorylation,
3479:Ubiquitinylation,
3480:Destabilizing by
proteolysis in a
proteasome,
3481:Major
Histocompatibility
Complex molecules
that regulate immunity,
3482:Memory Induced
Complementary
Antigen A and B,
3483:Mouse
Incomplete C-Reactive
Antigen A and B,
3484:Micro- Interleukin
Complex A and B,
3485: Minor antigen of
Inducible T cell,
3486:Mucosal
Associated Invariant T
cell,
6 868 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q06
The completion of translocation requires the action of the factor
_________________
8 870 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q08
At the end of each phase of cell cycle, cyclins activating Cdks in that
phase are inactivated irreversibly by
7 869 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q07
Which of the following is an Ubiquitin activating enzyme?
10 872 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q10
MAIT stands for:
9 871 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q09
MICA and MICB are
3487:Memory
Associated islet cell,
3488:Micro-RNA
Associated Inducible T
cells,
3489: Genes for B cell
maturation,
3490:Genes for T cell
maturation,
3491:miRNAs in
Introns for innate
immunity,
3492:Specific regions
in the immune synapse,
3493: Prone to allergy,
3494:Prone to
autoimmunity,
3495:Tolerant to
allergy,
3496:Tolerant to
infection,
3497: Allergens,
3498:Virulence factors
of Staphylococcus
aureus,
3499:Tumor antigens,
3500:B cell maturation
marker,
3501: T cell activation
markers,
3502:B cell activation
markers,
10 872 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q10
MAIT stands for:
12 874 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q12
Atopic individuals are:
11 873 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q11
Central ? Supramolecular Associated Clusters and Peripheral-
Suramolecular Associated clusters relate to:
14 876 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q14
CD69 and Ki-67 are
13 875 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q13
MAGE, PRAME and NY-ESO-1 are examples of
3503:Dendritic cell
activation markers,
3504:Macrophage
activation marker,
3505: Transcription
factors that promote T
helper cell 1 and T
helper cell 2
differentiation,
respectively,
3506:Transcription
factors that promote T
helper cell 2 and T
helper cell 1
differentiation marker,
respectively,
3507:Cytokines that
regulate cell
differentiation into
plasma cells and
memory cells,
respectively,
3508:Proteins secreted
by cytotoxic T cells that
kill infected
macrophages,
3509: B cell receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3510:T cell receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3511:EGF receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
14 876 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q14
CD69 and Ki-67 are
16 878 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q16
MyD88, IRAK1 and IRAKM are molecules that belong to the:
15 877 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q15
T-bet and GATA are:
3512:Toll like receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3513: Costimulatory
molecules that regulate
immune response,
3514:Transcription
factors that regulate
immune responses,
3515:Kinases that
regulate immune
responses,
3516:Phophatases that
regulate immune
response,
3517: RepA,
3518:Ori gene,
3519:Par,
3520:Rop,
3521: Sythesizes DNA
in 5?- 3? direction,
3522:Facilitate
Phosphodiester bonds ,
3523:Maintain plasmid
supercoiling,
3524:Prevent DNA
from restriction
endonuclease mediated
digestion,
3525: 1,2-Ethanediol,
3526:Ethanol,
16 878 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q16
MyD88, IRAK1 and IRAKM are molecules that belong to the:
18 880 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q18
Plasmid stability in cells is maintained by
17 879 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q17
HVEM and LIGHT are
20 882 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q20
The reaction of water with ethylene oxide yields in the presence of acid
19 881 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q19
DNA ligase
3527:Acetic acid,
3528:Acetaldehyde,
3529: SN1,
3530:SN2,
3531:E1,
3532:None of these,
3533: as an acid base
indicator,
3534:to dye silk and
wool,
3535:for dehydration,
3536:as a Lewis base,
3537: an alkaloid,
3538:a phytosteroid,
3539:a carboxylic acid,
3540:a triterpenoid,
3541: 1-Pentyne,
3542:1-Hexyne,
3543:1-Heptyne,
3544:1-Butyne,
3545: Benzaldehyde,
3546:Sodium benzoate
,
3547:Benzyne,
3548:1-Phenylethane,
3549: N,N-
dimethylaniline,
3550:Toluene,
3551:4-Methylaniline,
20 882 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q20
The reaction of water with ethylene oxide yields in the presence of acid
22 884 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q22
Crystal violet is used
21 883 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q21
A transition state of high energy is formed in the following reaction
24 886 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q24
The reaction of Lithium acetylide with n-Butyl bromide yields
23 885 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q23
Formation of turbidity on reaction of a plant extract with
Phosphomolybdic acid indicates the presence of
26 888 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q26
Aniline reacts with 2 moles of Methylchloride to yield
25 887 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q25
The reaction of benzoic acid and sodium bicarbonate yields
3552:2,4-
Dimethylaniline,
3553: Butane thiol,
3554:Dibutyldisulfide,
3555:Thiophene,
3556:None of these,
3557: A base,
3558:An acid,
3559:A dehydrating
agent,
3560:None of these,
3561: Neural Control,
3562:Exocrine Control,
3563:Endocrine Control,
3564: Hormonal
Control,
3565:Sarcomeres
shorten. ,
3566:A bands shorten. ,
3567:I bands shorten. ,
3568:Sarcomeres
shorten?and?I bands
shorten. ,
3569:the left ventricle
ejects a larger volume
of blood with each
systole than the right
ventricle.,
26 888 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q26
Aniline reacts with 2 moles of Methylchloride to yield
28 890 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q28
LDA is used as
27 889 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q27
n-Butane reacts with Sulphur at 5600C to yield
30 892 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q30
During isotonic contraction of a skeletal-muscle fibre the
29 891 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q29
Some neurons in the vagus nerve terminate on sinoatrial (pacemaker)
cells in the heart. These neurons secrete acetylcholine, which
ultimately results in a decreased heart rate. This is an example of
31 893 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q31
According to the Frank-Starling mechanism of the heart,
3570:the intrinsic rate
of the heart's
pacemaker is 100
beats/min.,
3571:cardiac output
increases with
increased heart rate.,
3572: stroke volume
increases with
increased venous
return.,
3573: be lower than
alveolar pressure.,
3574:be between +5
and +10 mmHg above
atmospheric pressure.,
3575:alternate
between being less
than and greater than
atmospheric pressure.,
3576:change as the
respiratory demands of
the body change.,
3577: is dissolved in
the plasma.,
3578:is bound to
hemoglobin.,
3579:is in carbonic
acid.,
3580:is in bicarbonate
ion.,
3581:Plasma-55%,
Protein/WBC-1%, RBC-
45% ,
32 894 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q32
In order for the lungs to function normally, the intrapleural pressure
must
31 893 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q31
According to the Frank-Starling mechanism of the heart,
34 896 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q34
Which is true about composition of Blood
33 895 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q33
Most of the CO2 that is transported in blood
3582:Plasma-50%,
Protein/WBC-3%, RBC-
47% ,
3583:Plasma-45%,
Protein/WBC-4%, RBC-
51% ,
3584:Plasma-35%,
Protein/WBC-2%, RBC-
65% ,
3585: Low blood
volume, Anemia, poor
blood flow,
3586:Low Hemoglobin,
excess blood flow,
3587:Pulmonary
diseases,
hypererythremia,
excess blood flow,
3588:Low blood
volume,
hypererythremia,
pulmonary diseases,
3589:I and II only ,
3590:II and III only,
3591:I and III only ,
3592:I, II and III,
3593:Lampbrush,
3594:Polytene,
3595:Supernumerary,
3596:B-chromosomes.,
3597: Eight,
3598:Four,
34 896 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q34
Which is true about composition of Blood
36 898 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q36
Mendel?s principle of dominance stated that when an individual has a
hybrid genotype, it will only express thedominant trait in its
phenotype. Which of the following types of inheritance do not agree
with this principle??I) co-dominance?II) multiple alleles?III) incomplete
dominance
35 897 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q35
Erythropoietin secretion is stimulated by
38 900 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q38
Drosophila has four pairs of chromosomes. How many linkage groups
does it have
37 899 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q37
Chromosomes found in the salivary gland of Drosophila is
3599:One less than the
pairs of chromosomes,
3600:One more than
the pairs of
chromosomes,
3601:Pluripotent ,
3602:totipotent ,
3603:determined ,
3604:differentiated ,
3605: the point of
sperm entry,
3606:gravity,
3607:the point of
contact with uterus,
3608:genetics
difference in the cells,
3609:Have one more
membrane that helps
retain the crystal violet
stain,
3610:Have multiple
layers of peptidoglycan
that help retain the
crystal violet stain,
3611:Have a thick
capsule that traps the
crystal violet stain,
3612:Have periplasmic
space that trap the
crystal violet,
38 900 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q38
Drosophila has four pairs of chromosomes. How many linkage groups
does it have
40 902 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q40
The initial dorsal ventral axis in amphibian embryo is determined by
39 901 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q39
During the development, if a cell has committed to a particular fate, it
is said to be
41 903 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q41
Gram Positive bacteria
3613:They may carry
genes that give their
host a selective
advantage ,
3614:They can render
bacteria drug resistant.
,
3615:None of the
above ,
3616:Both (They can
render bacteria drug
resistant) and (They
may carry genes that
give their host a
selective advantage) ,
3617: Help cells attach
to metal object,
3618:help cells to
magnetically attach to
each other,
3619:Help cells to float
on the surface of fresh
water bodies,
3620:Help cells to
orient in earth
magnetic field,
3621: Inhibit COX-1,
3622:Inhibit COX-2,
3623:Do not inhibit
COX-1 or COX-2,
3624:Both Inhibit COX-
1 and Inhibit COX-2,
42 904 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q42
Plasmids are important to many bacteria because
44 906 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q44
Action of traditional NSAID's
43 905 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q43
Magnetosomes present in some bacteria
3625:
Chlorpheniramine,
3626:Pseudoephedrine,
3627:Glycopyrrolate,
3628:Epinephrin,
3629: The amount of
available drug to be
used for biological
testing,
3630:The amount of
medication in your
blood that is available
to produce an effect,
3631:The amount of
blood that is available
for transfusion,
3632:The amount of
drug that is
biometrically excreted
in your blood,
3633: Kidney ,
3634:Liver ,
3635:Blood ,
3636:Heart,
3637:aquantal dose-
response curve,
3638:ahormesis dose
?response curve,
3639: a graded dose-
response curve,
46 908 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q46
What is bioavailability?
45 907 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q45
Which of the following is an Antihistamine?
48 910 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q48
The LD50 is calculated from:
47 909 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q47
Which of the following is the primary site of activity for the drug
Warfarin?

FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
Sr.No
Question
Id
Question

Descripti
on
Question Body Options
3449: Imatinib,
3450:Bleomycin,
3451:Adriamycin,
3452:cisplatin,
3453:DNA glycosylase,
3454:DNA ligase,
3455:DNA polymerase,
3456:RNA polymerase,
3457:Subunit
association,
3458:Promoter binding,
3459:Initiation and
elongation,
3460:Cation binding,
3461:?70,
3462:?32,
3463:?54,
3464:?28,
3465:5? end of the
tRNA,
3466:3? end of the
tRNA,
3467:Amino acid,
3468:Variable loop of
tRNA,
3469: EF-Tu,
3470:EF-G,
2 864 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q02
The enzyme of E.coli that initiates the repair of double stranded DNA
breaks by homologous recombination (?base excision repair in DNA)
1 863 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q01
For chronic myeloid leukemia one of the best chemotherapy drugs
used is:
4 866 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q04
Four types of ? factors are known ,of them which one used during
Nitrogen deficiency?
3 865 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q03
What is the function of the ? subunit of RNA polymerase?
6 868 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q06
The completion of translocation requires the action of the factor
_________________
5 867 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q05
Once the tRNA is aminoacylated, EF-Tu binds to the tRNA at the
____________
DU PhD In Biomedical Sciences
3471:eIF2,
3472:eIF4G,
3473:E1,
3474:E2,
3475:E3,
3476:E4,
3477:Multiple
phosphorylations,
3478:De-
phosphorylation,
3479:Ubiquitinylation,
3480:Destabilizing by
proteolysis in a
proteasome,
3481:Major
Histocompatibility
Complex molecules
that regulate immunity,
3482:Memory Induced
Complementary
Antigen A and B,
3483:Mouse
Incomplete C-Reactive
Antigen A and B,
3484:Micro- Interleukin
Complex A and B,
3485: Minor antigen of
Inducible T cell,
3486:Mucosal
Associated Invariant T
cell,
6 868 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q06
The completion of translocation requires the action of the factor
_________________
8 870 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q08
At the end of each phase of cell cycle, cyclins activating Cdks in that
phase are inactivated irreversibly by
7 869 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q07
Which of the following is an Ubiquitin activating enzyme?
10 872 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q10
MAIT stands for:
9 871 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q09
MICA and MICB are
3487:Memory
Associated islet cell,
3488:Micro-RNA
Associated Inducible T
cells,
3489: Genes for B cell
maturation,
3490:Genes for T cell
maturation,
3491:miRNAs in
Introns for innate
immunity,
3492:Specific regions
in the immune synapse,
3493: Prone to allergy,
3494:Prone to
autoimmunity,
3495:Tolerant to
allergy,
3496:Tolerant to
infection,
3497: Allergens,
3498:Virulence factors
of Staphylococcus
aureus,
3499:Tumor antigens,
3500:B cell maturation
marker,
3501: T cell activation
markers,
3502:B cell activation
markers,
10 872 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q10
MAIT stands for:
12 874 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q12
Atopic individuals are:
11 873 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q11
Central ? Supramolecular Associated Clusters and Peripheral-
Suramolecular Associated clusters relate to:
14 876 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q14
CD69 and Ki-67 are
13 875 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q13
MAGE, PRAME and NY-ESO-1 are examples of
3503:Dendritic cell
activation markers,
3504:Macrophage
activation marker,
3505: Transcription
factors that promote T
helper cell 1 and T
helper cell 2
differentiation,
respectively,
3506:Transcription
factors that promote T
helper cell 2 and T
helper cell 1
differentiation marker,
respectively,
3507:Cytokines that
regulate cell
differentiation into
plasma cells and
memory cells,
respectively,
3508:Proteins secreted
by cytotoxic T cells that
kill infected
macrophages,
3509: B cell receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3510:T cell receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3511:EGF receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
14 876 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q14
CD69 and Ki-67 are
16 878 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q16
MyD88, IRAK1 and IRAKM are molecules that belong to the:
15 877 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q15
T-bet and GATA are:
3512:Toll like receptor
induced signaling
pathway,
3513: Costimulatory
molecules that regulate
immune response,
3514:Transcription
factors that regulate
immune responses,
3515:Kinases that
regulate immune
responses,
3516:Phophatases that
regulate immune
response,
3517: RepA,
3518:Ori gene,
3519:Par,
3520:Rop,
3521: Sythesizes DNA
in 5?- 3? direction,
3522:Facilitate
Phosphodiester bonds ,
3523:Maintain plasmid
supercoiling,
3524:Prevent DNA
from restriction
endonuclease mediated
digestion,
3525: 1,2-Ethanediol,
3526:Ethanol,
16 878 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q16
MyD88, IRAK1 and IRAKM are molecules that belong to the:
18 880 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q18
Plasmid stability in cells is maintained by
17 879 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q17
HVEM and LIGHT are
20 882 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q20
The reaction of water with ethylene oxide yields in the presence of acid
19 881 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q19
DNA ligase
3527:Acetic acid,
3528:Acetaldehyde,
3529: SN1,
3530:SN2,
3531:E1,
3532:None of these,
3533: as an acid base
indicator,
3534:to dye silk and
wool,
3535:for dehydration,
3536:as a Lewis base,
3537: an alkaloid,
3538:a phytosteroid,
3539:a carboxylic acid,
3540:a triterpenoid,
3541: 1-Pentyne,
3542:1-Hexyne,
3543:1-Heptyne,
3544:1-Butyne,
3545: Benzaldehyde,
3546:Sodium benzoate
,
3547:Benzyne,
3548:1-Phenylethane,
3549: N,N-
dimethylaniline,
3550:Toluene,
3551:4-Methylaniline,
20 882 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q20
The reaction of water with ethylene oxide yields in the presence of acid
22 884 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q22
Crystal violet is used
21 883 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q21
A transition state of high energy is formed in the following reaction
24 886 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q24
The reaction of Lithium acetylide with n-Butyl bromide yields
23 885 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q23
Formation of turbidity on reaction of a plant extract with
Phosphomolybdic acid indicates the presence of
26 888 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q26
Aniline reacts with 2 moles of Methylchloride to yield
25 887 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q25
The reaction of benzoic acid and sodium bicarbonate yields
3552:2,4-
Dimethylaniline,
3553: Butane thiol,
3554:Dibutyldisulfide,
3555:Thiophene,
3556:None of these,
3557: A base,
3558:An acid,
3559:A dehydrating
agent,
3560:None of these,
3561: Neural Control,
3562:Exocrine Control,
3563:Endocrine Control,
3564: Hormonal
Control,
3565:Sarcomeres
shorten. ,
3566:A bands shorten. ,
3567:I bands shorten. ,
3568:Sarcomeres
shorten?and?I bands
shorten. ,
3569:the left ventricle
ejects a larger volume
of blood with each
systole than the right
ventricle.,
26 888 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q26
Aniline reacts with 2 moles of Methylchloride to yield
28 890 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q28
LDA is used as
27 889 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q27
n-Butane reacts with Sulphur at 5600C to yield
30 892 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q30
During isotonic contraction of a skeletal-muscle fibre the
29 891 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q29
Some neurons in the vagus nerve terminate on sinoatrial (pacemaker)
cells in the heart. These neurons secrete acetylcholine, which
ultimately results in a decreased heart rate. This is an example of
31 893 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q31
According to the Frank-Starling mechanism of the heart,
3570:the intrinsic rate
of the heart's
pacemaker is 100
beats/min.,
3571:cardiac output
increases with
increased heart rate.,
3572: stroke volume
increases with
increased venous
return.,
3573: be lower than
alveolar pressure.,
3574:be between +5
and +10 mmHg above
atmospheric pressure.,
3575:alternate
between being less
than and greater than
atmospheric pressure.,
3576:change as the
respiratory demands of
the body change.,
3577: is dissolved in
the plasma.,
3578:is bound to
hemoglobin.,
3579:is in carbonic
acid.,
3580:is in bicarbonate
ion.,
3581:Plasma-55%,
Protein/WBC-1%, RBC-
45% ,
32 894 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q32
In order for the lungs to function normally, the intrapleural pressure
must
31 893 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q31
According to the Frank-Starling mechanism of the heart,
34 896 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q34
Which is true about composition of Blood
33 895 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q33
Most of the CO2 that is transported in blood
3582:Plasma-50%,
Protein/WBC-3%, RBC-
47% ,
3583:Plasma-45%,
Protein/WBC-4%, RBC-
51% ,
3584:Plasma-35%,
Protein/WBC-2%, RBC-
65% ,
3585: Low blood
volume, Anemia, poor
blood flow,
3586:Low Hemoglobin,
excess blood flow,
3587:Pulmonary
diseases,
hypererythremia,
excess blood flow,
3588:Low blood
volume,
hypererythremia,
pulmonary diseases,
3589:I and II only ,
3590:II and III only,
3591:I and III only ,
3592:I, II and III,
3593:Lampbrush,
3594:Polytene,
3595:Supernumerary,
3596:B-chromosomes.,
3597: Eight,
3598:Four,
34 896 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q34
Which is true about composition of Blood
36 898 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q36
Mendel?s principle of dominance stated that when an individual has a
hybrid genotype, it will only express thedominant trait in its
phenotype. Which of the following types of inheritance do not agree
with this principle??I) co-dominance?II) multiple alleles?III) incomplete
dominance
35 897 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q35
Erythropoietin secretion is stimulated by
38 900 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q38
Drosophila has four pairs of chromosomes. How many linkage groups
does it have
37 899 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q37
Chromosomes found in the salivary gland of Drosophila is
3599:One less than the
pairs of chromosomes,
3600:One more than
the pairs of
chromosomes,
3601:Pluripotent ,
3602:totipotent ,
3603:determined ,
3604:differentiated ,
3605: the point of
sperm entry,
3606:gravity,
3607:the point of
contact with uterus,
3608:genetics
difference in the cells,
3609:Have one more
membrane that helps
retain the crystal violet
stain,
3610:Have multiple
layers of peptidoglycan
that help retain the
crystal violet stain,
3611:Have a thick
capsule that traps the
crystal violet stain,
3612:Have periplasmic
space that trap the
crystal violet,
38 900 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q38
Drosophila has four pairs of chromosomes. How many linkage groups
does it have
40 902 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q40
The initial dorsal ventral axis in amphibian embryo is determined by
39 901 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q39
During the development, if a cell has committed to a particular fate, it
is said to be
41 903 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q41
Gram Positive bacteria
3613:They may carry
genes that give their
host a selective
advantage ,
3614:They can render
bacteria drug resistant.
,
3615:None of the
above ,
3616:Both (They can
render bacteria drug
resistant) and (They
may carry genes that
give their host a
selective advantage) ,
3617: Help cells attach
to metal object,
3618:help cells to
magnetically attach to
each other,
3619:Help cells to float
on the surface of fresh
water bodies,
3620:Help cells to
orient in earth
magnetic field,
3621: Inhibit COX-1,
3622:Inhibit COX-2,
3623:Do not inhibit
COX-1 or COX-2,
3624:Both Inhibit COX-
1 and Inhibit COX-2,
42 904 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q42
Plasmids are important to many bacteria because
44 906 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q44
Action of traditional NSAID's
43 905 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q43
Magnetosomes present in some bacteria
3625:
Chlorpheniramine,
3626:Pseudoephedrine,
3627:Glycopyrrolate,
3628:Epinephrin,
3629: The amount of
available drug to be
used for biological
testing,
3630:The amount of
medication in your
blood that is available
to produce an effect,
3631:The amount of
blood that is available
for transfusion,
3632:The amount of
drug that is
biometrically excreted
in your blood,
3633: Kidney ,
3634:Liver ,
3635:Blood ,
3636:Heart,
3637:aquantal dose-
response curve,
3638:ahormesis dose
?response curve,
3639: a graded dose-
response curve,
46 908 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q46
What is bioavailability?
45 907 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q45
Which of the following is an Antihistamine?
48 910 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q48
The LD50 is calculated from:
47 909 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q47
Which of the following is the primary site of activity for the drug
Warfarin?
3640:a log-log dose-
response curve,
3641:Proximal
convoluted tubule ,
3642:Loop of Henle,
3643:Collecting duct ,
3644:Distal convoluted
tubule,
3645: Euphoria,
3646: hair loss,
3647:constipation,
3648:depression,
50 912 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q50
Which of the following is a long-term side effect of amphetamine?
49 911 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q49
Potassium sparing diuretics have the primary effect upon which part of
the kidney.
48 910 DU_J19_P
HD_BIOS
CI_Q48
The LD50 is calculated from:

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This post was last modified on 19 June 2020