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Delhi University Entrance Test (DUET) 2020 Previous Year Question Paper With Answer Key

This post was last modified on 27 December 2020

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DUET Last 10 Years 2011-2021 Question Papers With Answer Key || Delhi University Entrance Test conducted by the NTA

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Topic:- BIOSCI PHD S2

On selfing an insect of Aa Bb genotype, what proportion of progeny will be recessive homozygous for atleast one gene?
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[Question ID = 517]
1. 1/16 [Option ID = 2062]
2. 3/16 [Option ID = 2063]
3. 7/16 [Option ID = 2064]
4. 9/16 [Option ID = 2065]
Correct Answer :-

• 7/16 [Option ID = 2064]
A nonsense mutant A reverted to wild type. When this revertant was crossed with a wild type, few mutants with phenotype of A were detected again. This shows that the revertant was

[Question ID = 518]
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1. A true revertant [Option ID = 2066]
2. A suppressor mutation [Option ID = 2067]
3. A dominant mutation [Option ID = 2068]
4. A regulator mutation [Option ID = 2069]
Correct Answer :-
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• A suppressor mutation [Option ID = 2067]
In terms of lac operon regulation, what happens when E. coli is grown in medium containing both glucose and lactose?

[Question ID = 519]
1. Both CAP and the lac repressor are bound to the DNA [Option ID = 2070]
2. CAP is bound to the DNA but the lac repressor is not [Option ID = 2071]
3. Lac repressor is bound to the DNA but CAP is not [Option ID = 2072]
4. Neither CAP nor the lac repressor are bound to the DNA [Option ID = 2073]
Correct Answer :-

• Neither CAP nor the lac repressor are bound to the DNA [Option ID = 2073]
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Intrinsic pathway of apoptosis is regulated by Bax and Bcl2 wherein:

[Question ID = 520]
1. Bax stimulates apoptosis while Bcl2 inhibits apoptosis [Option ID = 2074]
2. Bax inhibits apoptosis while Bcl2 stimulates apoptosis [Option ID = 2075]
3. Both stimulate apoptosis [Option ID = 2076]
4. Both inhibit apoptosis [Option ID = 2077]
Correct Answer :-

• Bax stimulates apoptosis while Bcl2 inhibits apoptosis [Option ID = 2074]

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Parkinson's disease is primarily due to degeneration of the:

[Question ID = 521]
1. Corticospinal tract [Option ID = 2078]
2. Cerebellum [Option ID = 2079]
3. Globus pallidus [Option ID = 2080]
4. Substantia nigra [Option ID = 2081]
Correct Answer :-

• Substantia nigra [Option ID = 2081]
Which one of the following is the most appropriate statement regarding folded proteins?
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[Question ID = 522]
1. Tyrosine residues are always buried [Option ID = 2082]
2. Charged amino acid side chains are always buried [Option ID = 2083]
3. Non polar amino acid side chains are seldom buried
4. Charged amino acid side chains are seldom buried [Option ID = 2085]
Which of the following is NOT true about capsules?

[Question ID = 523]
1. They consist of secreted material lying outside of the bacterial cell wall [Option ID = 2086]
2. They can prevent desiccation of bacteria cells [Option ID = 2087]
3. They are required for bacteria to grow normally in culture [Option ID = 2088]
4. They help bacteria resist phagocytosis by macrophages [Option ID = 2089]
Correct Answer :-

• They are required for bacteria to grow normally in culture [Option ID = 2088]

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A patient suffering from pneumonia and tuberculosis was found to have very low CD4+T cells. In all probability the PRIMARY causative infectious agent belongs to

[Question ID = 524]
1. Klebsiella family [Option ID = 2090]
2. Mycobacterium family [Option ID = 2091]
3. Retrovirus family [Option ID = 2092]
4. Streptococcus family [Option ID = 2093]
Correct Answer :-

• Retrovirus family [Option ID = 2092]
A living microbe with reduced virulence that is used for vaccination is considered
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[Question ID = 525]
1. A toxoid [Option ID = 2094]
2. Dormant [Option ID = 2095]
3. Attenuated [Option ID = 2096]
4. Denatured [Option ID = 2097]
Correct Answer :-

• Attenuated [Option ID = 2096]
Which of the following can be described as 'a sequence that can be approximately thousand base pairs upstream or downstream of a eukaryotic promoter and increases gene expression as much as 200-fold.'?

[Question ID = 526]
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1. CAAT box [Option ID = 2098]
2. Enhancer [Option ID = 2099]
3. Insulator [Option ID = 2100]
4. TATA box [Option ID = 2101]
Correct Answer :-
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• Enhancer [Option ID = 2099]
Which interactions promote T cell anergy

[Question ID = 527]
1. CD28: CD44 [Option ID = 2102]
2. CD28: CD86 [Option ID = 2103]
3. PD-1: PD-L1 [Option ID = 2104]
4. CD40:CD62L [Option ID = 2105]
Correct Answer :-

• PD-1: PD-L1 [Option ID = 2104]
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Some peptides and proteins have been used as drugs. Which of the following statements is not true?

[Question ID = 528]
1. Protein drugs suffer a disadvantage in that they could produce an immune response. [Option ID = 2106]
2. Peptides and proteins generally show poor bioavailability [Option ID = 2107]
3. Peptide drugs are susceptible to peptidase enzymes [Option ID = 2108]
4. Peptide drugs are susceptible to nucleases [Option ID = 2109]
Correct Answer :-

• Peptide drugs are susceptible to nucleases [Option ID = 2109]

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During each cycle of chain elongation in translation, how many conformational changes does the ribosome undergo that accompany GTP hydrolysis?

[Question ID = 529]
1. Zero [Option ID = 2110]
2. One [Option ID = 2111]
3. Two [Option ID = 2112]
4. Three [Option ID = 2113]
Correct Answer :-

• Two [Option ID = 2112]
The mammalian oocyte prior to sperm entry is arrested at what stage of cell division?
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[Question ID = 530]
1. Prophase of mitosis [Option ID = 2114]
2. Prophase of meiosis [Option ID = 2115]
3. G1 phase of mitotic cell cycle [Option ID = 2116]
4. Metaphase of meiosis II [Option ID = 2117]
Correct Answer :-

• Metaphase of meiosis II [Option ID = 2117]
Patient centered case management approach for the treatment of tuberculosis is:

[Question ID = 531]
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1. BLOT [Option ID = 2118]
2. DOTS [Option ID = 2119]
3. ROT [Option ID = 2120]
4. SOT [Option ID = 2121]
Correct Answer :-
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• DOTS [Option ID = 2119]
Which of the following events occur during the stationary phase of bacterial growth?

P. Rise in cell number stops

Q. Spore formation in some Gram-positive bacteria such as Bacillus subtilis
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R. Cell size increases in some Gram-negative bacteria such as Escherichia coli

S. Growth rate of bacterial cells nearly equals their death rate

T. Decrease in peptidoglycan crosslinking

[Question ID = 532]
1. P, Q and S only [Option ID = 2122]
2. P, S and T only [Option ID = 2123]
3. Q, R and S only [Option ID = 2124]
4. P, R and T only [Option ID = 2125]
Correct Answer :-

• P, Q and S only [Option ID = 2122]
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The main function of muscle spindles is to:

[Question ID = 533]
1. Provide the specialised membrane that holds nicotinic receptors [Option ID = 2126]
2. Act as stretch receptors [Option ID = 2127]
3. Cause contraction of the muscle [Option ID = 2128]
4. Act as structural support for the muscles [Option ID = 2129]
Correct Answer :-

• Act as stretch receptors [Option ID = 2127]

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This antihypertensive drug is contraindicated in patients with bilateral renal artery stenosis:

[Question ID = 534]
1. Clonidine [Option ID = 2130]
2. Terazosin [Option ID = 2131]
3. Nifedipine [Option ID = 2132]
4. Captopril [Option ID = 2133]
Correct Answer :-
Example(s) of major plasma proteins important for drug binding:

[Question ID = 535]
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1. Lipoproteins [Option ID = 2134]
2. Alpha1-acidic glycoproteins [Option ID = 2135]
3. Albumin [Option ID = 2136]
4. All of these [Option ID = 2137]
Correct Answer :-
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• All of these [Option ID = 2137]
Example(s) of an effectively irreversible alpha-adrenergic receptor blocker.

[Question ID = 536]
1. Phentolamine [Option ID = 2138]
2. Phenoxybenzamine [Option ID = 2139]
3. Both [Option ID = 2140]
4. Neither [Option ID = 2141]
Correct Answer :-

• Phenoxybenzamine [Option ID = 2139]
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Inclusion of a vasoconstrictor in the local anesthetic solution is least likely to prolong the action of:

[Question ID = 537]
1. Procaine [Option ID = 2142]
2. Mepivacaine [Option ID = 2143]
3. Lidocaine [Option ID = 2144]
4. Bupivacaine [Option ID = 2145]
Correct Answer :-

• Bupivacaine [Option ID = 2145]

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Cholestasis causes

[Question ID = 538]
1. Jaundice [Option ID = 2146]
2. Decrease in serum bilirubin [Option ID = 2147]
3. Activation of cytochrome P-450 [Option ID = 2148]
4. Increased synthesis of clotting factors [Option ID = 2149]
Correct Answer :-

• Jaundice [Option ID = 2146]
Which of the following antibodies are present in mammalian cells
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[Question ID = 539]
1. IgG, IgM, IgE, IgD [Option ID = 2150]
2. IgG, IgM, IgE, IgK [Option ID = 2151]
3. IgG, IgM, IgF, IgK [Option ID = 2152]
4. IgG, IgD, IgF, IgE [Option ID = 2153]
Correct Answer :-

• IgG, IgM, IgE, IgD [Option ID = 2150]
Cytokine profile for Th2 Response includes

[Question ID = 540]
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1. IL-4, IL-5 [Option ID = 2154]
2. IFN-gamma, IL-8 [Option ID = 2155]
3. IL-1, IFN-gamma [Option ID = 2156]
4. IL-1, IL-8 [Option ID = 2157]
Correct Answer :-
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• IL-4, IL-5 [Option ID = 2154]
Forward and Side Scatter in flow cytometry gives:

[Question ID = 541]
1. Fluorescence enhanced by forward and side channels [Option ID = 2158]
2. Fluorescence quenched by scattering in forward and side channels [Option ID = 2159]
3. Relative size and granularity of cell [Option ID = 2160]
4. Relative number and size of cells [Option ID = 2161]
Correct Answer :-

• Relative size and granularity of cell [Option ID = 2160]
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The central cytokine that mediates allergic response is

[Question ID = 542]
1. IL-5 [Option ID = 2162]
2. IFN-gamma [Option ID = 2163]
3. IL-8 [Option ID = 2164]
4. IL-13 [Option ID = 2165]
Correct Answer :-

• IFN-gamma [Option ID = 2163]

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Isotype matched antibody is used in flowcytometry to

[Question ID = 543]
1. Check for specificity of stain of test antibody [Option ID = 2166]
2. Check for auto-fluorescence of the cell [Option ID = 2167]
3. Check for bleed over of multiple fluophores [Option ID = 2168]
4. To set height of the histogram [Option ID = 2169]
Correct Answer :-

• Check for specificity of stain of test antibody [Option ID = 2166]
Which of the following hexoses are not epimers?
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[Question ID = 544]
1. Glucose and mannose [Option ID = 2170]
2. Glucose and Gulose [Option ID = 2171]
3. Glucose and Allose [Option ID = 2172]
4. Glucose and galactose [Option ID = 2173]
Correct Answer :-

• Glucose and Allose [Option ID = 2172]
Mannich reaction involves the

[Question ID = 545]
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1. Reactions between aldimines and a-methylene carbonyls [Option ID = 2174]
2. Amino alkylation of an a-methylene carbonyls with formaldehyde and ammonia [Option ID = 2175]
3. Formation of B-amino-carbonyl compound [Option ID = 2176]
4. All of these [Option ID = 2177]
Correct Answer :-
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• All of these [Option ID = 2177]
Wang resin is one of the standard peptide synthesis resin used with Fmoc (fluorenylmethoxycarbonyl chloride) chemistry, the structure of the resin is represented as:

[Question ID = 546]
1. 2-alkoxybenzyl alcohol functionalized polystyrene [Option ID = 2178]
2. 2-alkoxybenzyl alcohol functionalized polyvinyl [Option ID = 2179]
3. 4-alkoxybenzyl alcohol functionalized polystyrene [Option ID = 2180]
4. 4-alkoxybenzyl alcohol functionalized polyvinyl [Option ID = 2181]
Correct Answer :-

• 4-alkoxybenzyl alcohol functionalized polystyrene [Option ID = 2180]
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The absolute configuration of following compounds is

[Question ID = 547]
1. 1(S); 2(S) [Option ID = 2182]
2. 1(S); 2(R) [Option ID = 2183]
3. 1(R); 2(S) [Option ID = 2184]
4. 1(R); 2(R) [Option ID = 2185]
Correct Answer :-

• 1(S); 2(S) [Option ID = 2182]

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The probable 1H NMR spectrum of 4-chlorotoluene (Cl-C6H4-CH3) will show d value at:

[Question ID = 548]
1. s, 1.5 and d, 7.0-7.5 [Option ID = 2186]
2. t, 1.5 and m, 7.5 [Option ID = 2187]
3. s, 2.4 and d, 7.0-7.5 [Option ID = 2188]
4. t, 2.4 and m, 7.5 [Option ID = 2189]
Correct Answer :-

• s, 2.4 and d, 7.0-7.5 [Option ID = 2188]
Which of the following is correct representation of Hammett equation?
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[Question ID = 549]
1. Log (Ko/K) = 1/rs [Option ID = 2190]
2. Log (ko/k) = s/r [Option ID = 2191]
3. Log (k/ko) = r/s [Option ID = 2192]
4. Log (k/ko) =rs [Option ID = 2193]
Correct Answer :-

• Log (k/ko) =rs [Option ID = 2193]
Compound B, the smelly component emitted by pulp mills, showed M+ at m/z 62 and also peaks at 63 and 64 in a 100:2.2:4.4 ratio. Fragment peaks were seen at m/z 15, 32 and 47. The 1H NMR spectrum of compound B consisted of only a single peak. Which of the following represents the correct structure of compound B.

[Question ID = 550]
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1. Dimethyl sulfoxide [Option ID = 2194]
2. Thioethanol [Option ID = 2195]
3. Dimethyl sulphide [Option ID = 2196]
4. None of these [Option ID = 2197]
Correct Answer :-
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• Dimethyl sulphide [Option ID = 2196]
A common target enzyme for non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs is

[Question ID = 551]
1. COX-2 [Option ID = 2198]
2. CCK-2 [Option ID = 2199]
3. CXC-R [Option ID = 2200]
4. CDK-2 [Option ID = 2201]
Correct Answer :-

• COX-2 [Option ID = 2198]
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TseTse fly is the vector of the pathogen

[Question ID = 552]
1. Wuchereria [Option ID = 2202]
2. Trypanosoma [Option ID = 2203]
3. Plasmodium [Option ID = 2204]
4. Leishmania [Option ID = 2205]
Correct Answer :-
Structured-activity Relationships shows that the important binding interactions in morphine are the piperidine ring, aromatic ring and hydroxyl groups. A diagram captures these functional groups and their relative orientations. What is the term for this?
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[Question ID = 553]
1. Pharmacodynamics [Option ID = 2206]
2. Pharmacokinetics [Option ID = 2207]
3. Bioisostere [Option ID = 2208]
4. Pharmacophore [Option ID = 2209]
Correct Answer :-

• Pharmacophore [Option ID = 2209]
Protein S will fold into its native conformation only when protein Q is present in the solution. However, protein Q can fold into its native conformation without protein S. Protein Q, therefore, may function as a

[Question ID = 554]
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1. Ligand [Option ID = 2210]
2. Molecular chaperone [Option ID = 2211]
3. Protein precursor [Option ID = 2212]
4. Structural motif [Option ID = 2213]
Correct Answer :-
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• Molecular chaperone [Option ID = 2211]
Which of the following molecules is commonly used as a fluorophore?

[Question ID = 555]
1. Phenolphthlein [Option ID = 2214]
2. Fluorescein [Option ID = 2215]
3. Bromophenol blue [Option ID = 2216]
4. All of these [Option ID = 2217]
Correct Answer :-

• Fluorescein [Option ID = 2215]
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Name of the monomer used to produce Orlon is

[Question ID = 556]
1. Vinyl cyanide [Option ID = 2218]
2. Formaldehyde + Phenol [Option ID = 2219]
3. Adipic acid + Hexamethylenediamine [Option ID = 2220]
4. Dimethyl terephthalate + Ethylene glycol [Option ID = 2221]
Correct Answer :-

• Vinyl cyanide [Option ID = 2218]

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Which of the following possess a SP-carbon in its structure?

[Question ID = 557]
1. CH2=CCI-CH=CH2 [Option ID = 2222]
2. CH2=CH-CH=CH2 [Option ID = 2223]
3. CH2=C=CH2 [Option ID = 2224]
4. CH3-CH=CH-CH=CCl2 [Option ID = 2225]
Correct Answer :-

• CH2=C=CH2 [Option ID = 2224]
Citral, a natural compound isolated from lemon grass oil is
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[Question ID = 558]
1. A polyphenol plante
2. A terpinoid [Option ID = 2227]
3. An unnatural amino acid [Option ID = 2228]
4. A carotenoid [Option ID = 2229]
Correct Answer :-

• A terpinoid [Option ID = 2227]
Arrange the following compounds in order of their decreasing boiling points

a) CH3CH2CH2CHO,
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b) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH,

c) H5C2-O-C2H5,

d) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3

[Question ID = 559]
1. a > b > c > d [Option ID = 2230]
2. c > b > a > d [Option ID = 2231]
3. a > b > d > c [Option ID = 2232]
4. b > a > d > c [Option ID = 2233]
Correct Answer :-

•b>a> d > c [Option ID = 2233]
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CD is the difference between the absorption of left and right handed circularly polarized light as a function of wavelength. In the following (e=extinction, c=concentration, l= pathlength). Which one is incorrect?

[Question ID = 560]
1. CD=DA/(absorbance units)=4pq(degrees)/(180 ln10) [Option ID = 2234]
2. CD= [eL (l) - eR (1)]lc [Option ID = 2235]
3. CD = De (l)lc [Option ID = 2236]
4. CD = ecl [Option ID = 2237]
Correct Answer :-

• CD=DA/(absorbance units)=4pq(degrees)/(180 ln10) [Option ID = 2234]

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Pernicious anemia is caused by

[Question ID = 561]
1. Auto antibodies to intrinsic factor [Option ID = 2238]
2. Auto antibodies to vitamin B12 [Option ID = 2239]
3. Auto antibodies to RBC antigens [Option ID = 2240]
4. None [Option ID = 2241]
Correct Answer :-

• Auto - antibodies to intrinsic factor [Option ID = 2238]
Atopic individuals
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[Question ID = 562]
1. Show increased sensitivity to allergens [Option ID = 2242]
2. Are more prone to auto-immune disorders [Option ID = 2243]
3. Are resistant to bacterial infections [Option ID = 2244]
4. Resistant to viral infections [Option ID = 2245]
Correct Answer :-

• Show increased sensitivity to allergens [Option ID = 2242]
Match the items in GroupI with Group II:

[Question ID = 563]
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Group I

A. Circular Dichroism

B. X-ray Crystallography

C. Freeze-drying

D. Ultracentrifugation
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Group II

I. Dehydration

II. Sedimentation Coefficient

III. Secondary structure determination

IV. Tertiary structure determination
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Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. AIV, BI, C - II, D - III [Option ID = 2246]
2. AI, BIV, C - III, D - II [Option ID = 2247]
3. A II, BIII, CIV, D-1 [Option ID = 2248]
4. A III, BIV, C - I, D - II [Option ID = 2249]
Correct Answer :-

• A III, BIV, C - I, D - II [Option ID = 2249]
______ are inhibitory interneurons which modulate motor functions by sharpening the signals and secrete _____ for exerting their function.

[Question ID = 564]
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1. Renshaw cells; glycine [Option ID = 2250]
2. Red nuclei; L-Dopamine [Option ID = 2251]
3. Gamma neurons; glycine [Option ID = 2252]
4. Alpha neurons; Acetylcholine [Option ID = 2253]
Correct Answer :-
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• Renshaw cells; glycine [Option ID = 2250]
Yeast two hybrid technique is used for the study of:

[Question ID = 565]
1. Protein and protein interactions [Option ID = 2254]
2. DNA and Protein interactions [Option ID = 2255]
3. RNA and Protein interactions [Option ID = 2256]
4. All of these [Option ID = 2257]
Correct Answer :-

• Protein and protein interactions [Option ID = 2254]
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Homeostatic regulation of feeding is controlled by

[Question ID = 566]
1. Hypothalamus and hind brain [Option ID = 2258]
2. Mid brain and hind brain [Option ID = 2259]
3. Higher cortical regions and hind brain [Option ID = 2260]
4. Limbic system [Option ID = 2261]
Correct Answer :-

• Hypothalamus and hind brain [Option ID = 2258]

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This download link is referred from the post: DUET Last 10 Years 2011-2021 Question Papers With Answer Key || Delhi University Entrance Test conducted by the NTA

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This post was last modified on 27 December 2020

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