This download link is referred from the post: DUET Last 10 Years 2011-2021 Question Papers With Answer Key || Delhi University Entrance Test conducted by the NTA
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Topic:- BIOSCI PHD S2
-
On selfing an insect of Aa Bb genotype, what proportion of progeny will be recessive homozygous for atleast one gene?
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[Question ID = 517]
- 1/16 [Option ID = 2062]
- 3/16 [Option ID = 2063]
- 7/16 [Option ID = 2064]
- 9/16 [Option ID = 2065]
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Correct Answer :-
• 7/16 [Option ID = 2064]
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A nonsense mutant A reverted to wild type. When this revertant was crossed with a wild type, few mutants with phenotype of A were detected again. This shows that the revertant was
[Question ID = 518]
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- A true revertant [Option ID = 2066]
- A suppressor mutation [Option ID = 2067]
- A dominant mutation [Option ID = 2068]
- A regulator mutation [Option ID = 2069]
Correct Answer :-
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• A suppressor mutation [Option ID = 2067]
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In terms of lac operon regulation, what happens when E. coli is grown in medium containing both glucose and lactose?
[Question ID = 519]
- Both CAP and the lac repressor are bound to the DNA [Option ID = 2070]
- CAP is bound to the DNA but the lac repressor is not [Option ID = 2071]
- Lac repressor is bound to the DNA but CAP is not [Option ID = 2072]
- Neither CAP nor the lac repressor are bound to the DNA [Option ID = 2073]
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Correct Answer :-
• Neither CAP nor the lac repressor are bound to the DNA [Option ID = 2073]
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Intrinsic pathway of apoptosis is regulated by Bax and Bcl2 wherein:
[Question ID = 520]
- Bax stimulates apoptosis while Bcl2 inhibits apoptosis [Option ID = 2074]
- Bax inhibits apoptosis while Bcl2 stimulates apoptosis [Option ID = 2075]
- Both stimulate apoptosis [Option ID = 2076]
- Both inhibit apoptosis [Option ID = 2077]
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Correct Answer :-
• Bax stimulates apoptosis while Bcl2 inhibits apoptosis [Option ID = 2074]
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Parkinson's disease is primarily due to degeneration of the:
[Question ID = 521]
- Corticospinal tract [Option ID = 2078]
- Cerebellum [Option ID = 2079]
- Globus pallidus [Option ID = 2080]
- Substantia nigra [Option ID = 2081]
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Correct Answer :-
• Substantia nigra [Option ID = 2081]
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Which one of the following is the most appropriate statement regarding folded proteins?
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[Question ID = 522]
- Tyrosine residues are always buried [Option ID = 2082]
- Charged amino acid side chains are always buried [Option ID = 2083]
- Non polar amino acid side chains are seldom buried
- Charged amino acid side chains are seldom buried [Option ID = 2085]
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Which of the following is NOT true about capsules?
[Question ID = 523]
- They consist of secreted material lying outside of the bacterial cell wall [Option ID = 2086]
- They can prevent desiccation of bacteria cells [Option ID = 2087]
- They are required for bacteria to grow normally in culture [Option ID = 2088]
- They help bacteria resist phagocytosis by macrophages [Option ID = 2089]
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Correct Answer :-
• They are required for bacteria to grow normally in culture [Option ID = 2088]
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A patient suffering from pneumonia and tuberculosis was found to have very low CD4+T cells. In all probability the PRIMARY causative infectious agent belongs to
[Question ID = 524]
- Klebsiella family [Option ID = 2090]
- Mycobacterium family [Option ID = 2091]
- Retrovirus family [Option ID = 2092]
- Streptococcus family [Option ID = 2093]
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Correct Answer :-
• Retrovirus family [Option ID = 2092]
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A living microbe with reduced virulence that is used for vaccination is considered
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[Question ID = 525]
- A toxoid [Option ID = 2094]
- Dormant [Option ID = 2095]
- Attenuated [Option ID = 2096]
- Denatured [Option ID = 2097]
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Correct Answer :-
• Attenuated [Option ID = 2096]
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Which of the following can be described as 'a sequence that can be approximately thousand base pairs upstream or downstream of a eukaryotic promoter and increases gene expression as much as 200-fold.'?
[Question ID = 526]
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- CAAT box [Option ID = 2098]
- Enhancer [Option ID = 2099]
- Insulator [Option ID = 2100]
- TATA box [Option ID = 2101]
Correct Answer :-
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• Enhancer [Option ID = 2099]
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Which interactions promote T cell anergy
[Question ID = 527]
- CD28: CD44 [Option ID = 2102]
- CD28: CD86 [Option ID = 2103]
- PD-1: PD-L1 [Option ID = 2104]
- CD40:CD62L [Option ID = 2105]
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Correct Answer :-
• PD-1: PD-L1 [Option ID = 2104]
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Some peptides and proteins have been used as drugs. Which of the following statements is not true?
[Question ID = 528]
- Protein drugs suffer a disadvantage in that they could produce an immune response. [Option ID = 2106]
- Peptides and proteins generally show poor bioavailability [Option ID = 2107]
- Peptide drugs are susceptible to peptidase enzymes [Option ID = 2108]
- Peptide drugs are susceptible to nucleases [Option ID = 2109]
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Correct Answer :-
• Peptide drugs are susceptible to nucleases [Option ID = 2109]
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During each cycle of chain elongation in translation, how many conformational changes does the ribosome undergo that accompany GTP hydrolysis?
[Question ID = 529]
- Zero [Option ID = 2110]
- One [Option ID = 2111]
- Two [Option ID = 2112]
- Three [Option ID = 2113]
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Correct Answer :-
• Two [Option ID = 2112]
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The mammalian oocyte prior to sperm entry is arrested at what stage of cell division?
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[Question ID = 530]
- Prophase of mitosis [Option ID = 2114]
- Prophase of meiosis [Option ID = 2115]
- G1 phase of mitotic cell cycle [Option ID = 2116]
- Metaphase of meiosis II [Option ID = 2117]
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Correct Answer :-
• Metaphase of meiosis II [Option ID = 2117]
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Patient centered case management approach for the treatment of tuberculosis is:
[Question ID = 531]
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- BLOT [Option ID = 2118]
- DOTS [Option ID = 2119]
- ROT [Option ID = 2120]
- SOT [Option ID = 2121]
Correct Answer :-
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• DOTS [Option ID = 2119]
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Which of the following events occur during the stationary phase of bacterial growth?
P. Rise in cell number stops
Q. Spore formation in some Gram-positive bacteria such as Bacillus subtilis
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R. Cell size increases in some Gram-negative bacteria such as Escherichia coli
S. Growth rate of bacterial cells nearly equals their death rate
T. Decrease in peptidoglycan crosslinking
[Question ID = 532]
- P, Q and S only [Option ID = 2122]
- P, S and T only [Option ID = 2123]
- Q, R and S only [Option ID = 2124]
- P, R and T only [Option ID = 2125]
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Correct Answer :-
• P, Q and S only [Option ID = 2122]
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The main function of muscle spindles is to:
[Question ID = 533]
- Provide the specialised membrane that holds nicotinic receptors [Option ID = 2126]
- Act as stretch receptors [Option ID = 2127]
- Cause contraction of the muscle [Option ID = 2128]
- Act as structural support for the muscles [Option ID = 2129]
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Correct Answer :-
• Act as stretch receptors [Option ID = 2127]
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This antihypertensive drug is contraindicated in patients with bilateral renal artery stenosis:
[Question ID = 534]
- Clonidine [Option ID = 2130]
- Terazosin [Option ID = 2131]
- Nifedipine [Option ID = 2132]
- Captopril [Option ID = 2133]
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Correct Answer :-
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Example(s) of major plasma proteins important for drug binding:
[Question ID = 535]
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- Lipoproteins [Option ID = 2134]
- Alpha1-acidic glycoproteins [Option ID = 2135]
- Albumin [Option ID = 2136]
- All of these [Option ID = 2137]
Correct Answer :-
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• All of these [Option ID = 2137]
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Example(s) of an effectively irreversible alpha-adrenergic receptor blocker.
[Question ID = 536]
- Phentolamine [Option ID = 2138]
- Phenoxybenzamine [Option ID = 2139]
- Both [Option ID = 2140]
- Neither [Option ID = 2141]
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Correct Answer :-
• Phenoxybenzamine [Option ID = 2139]
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Inclusion of a vasoconstrictor in the local anesthetic solution is least likely to prolong the action of:
[Question ID = 537]
- Procaine [Option ID = 2142]
- Mepivacaine [Option ID = 2143]
- Lidocaine [Option ID = 2144]
- Bupivacaine [Option ID = 2145]
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Correct Answer :-
• Bupivacaine [Option ID = 2145]
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Cholestasis causes
[Question ID = 538]
- Jaundice [Option ID = 2146]
- Decrease in serum bilirubin [Option ID = 2147]
- Activation of cytochrome P-450 [Option ID = 2148]
- Increased synthesis of clotting factors [Option ID = 2149]
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Correct Answer :-
• Jaundice [Option ID = 2146]
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Which of the following antibodies are present in mammalian cells
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[Question ID = 539]
- IgG, IgM, IgE, IgD [Option ID = 2150]
- IgG, IgM, IgE, IgK [Option ID = 2151]
- IgG, IgM, IgF, IgK [Option ID = 2152]
- IgG, IgD, IgF, IgE [Option ID = 2153]
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Correct Answer :-
• IgG, IgM, IgE, IgD [Option ID = 2150]
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Cytokine profile for Th2 Response includes
[Question ID = 540]
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- IL-4, IL-5 [Option ID = 2154]
- IFN-gamma, IL-8 [Option ID = 2155]
- IL-1, IFN-gamma [Option ID = 2156]
- IL-1, IL-8 [Option ID = 2157]
Correct Answer :-
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• IL-4, IL-5 [Option ID = 2154]
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Forward and Side Scatter in flow cytometry gives:
[Question ID = 541]
- Fluorescence enhanced by forward and side channels [Option ID = 2158]
- Fluorescence quenched by scattering in forward and side channels [Option ID = 2159]
- Relative size and granularity of cell [Option ID = 2160]
- Relative number and size of cells [Option ID = 2161]
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Correct Answer :-
• Relative size and granularity of cell [Option ID = 2160]
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The central cytokine that mediates allergic response is
[Question ID = 542]
- IL-5 [Option ID = 2162]
- IFN-gamma [Option ID = 2163]
- IL-8 [Option ID = 2164]
- IL-13 [Option ID = 2165]
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Correct Answer :-
• IFN-gamma [Option ID = 2163]
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Isotype matched antibody is used in flowcytometry to
[Question ID = 543]
- Check for specificity of stain of test antibody [Option ID = 2166]
- Check for auto-fluorescence of the cell [Option ID = 2167]
- Check for bleed over of multiple fluophores [Option ID = 2168]
- To set height of the histogram [Option ID = 2169]
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Correct Answer :-
• Check for specificity of stain of test antibody [Option ID = 2166]
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Which of the following hexoses are not epimers?
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[Question ID = 544]
- Glucose and mannose [Option ID = 2170]
- Glucose and Gulose [Option ID = 2171]
- Glucose and Allose [Option ID = 2172]
- Glucose and galactose [Option ID = 2173]
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Correct Answer :-
• Glucose and Allose [Option ID = 2172]
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Mannich reaction involves the
[Question ID = 545]
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- Reactions between aldimines and a-methylene carbonyls [Option ID = 2174]
- Amino alkylation of an a-methylene carbonyls with formaldehyde and ammonia [Option ID = 2175]
- Formation of B-amino-carbonyl compound [Option ID = 2176]
- All of these [Option ID = 2177]
Correct Answer :-
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• All of these [Option ID = 2177]
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Wang resin is one of the standard peptide synthesis resin used with Fmoc (fluorenylmethoxycarbonyl chloride) chemistry, the structure of the resin is represented as:
[Question ID = 546]
- 2-alkoxybenzyl alcohol functionalized polystyrene [Option ID = 2178]
- 2-alkoxybenzyl alcohol functionalized polyvinyl [Option ID = 2179]
- 4-alkoxybenzyl alcohol functionalized polystyrene [Option ID = 2180]
- 4-alkoxybenzyl alcohol functionalized polyvinyl [Option ID = 2181]
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Correct Answer :-
• 4-alkoxybenzyl alcohol functionalized polystyrene [Option ID = 2180]
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The absolute configuration of following compounds is
[Question ID = 547]
- 1(S); 2(S) [Option ID = 2182]
- 1(S); 2(R) [Option ID = 2183]
- 1(R); 2(S) [Option ID = 2184]
- 1(R); 2(R) [Option ID = 2185]
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Correct Answer :-
• 1(S); 2(S) [Option ID = 2182]
-
The probable 1H NMR spectrum of 4-chlorotoluene (Cl-C6H4-CH3) will show d value at:
[Question ID = 548]
- s, 1.5 and d, 7.0-7.5 [Option ID = 2186]
- t, 1.5 and m, 7.5 [Option ID = 2187]
- s, 2.4 and d, 7.0-7.5 [Option ID = 2188]
- t, 2.4 and m, 7.5 [Option ID = 2189]
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Correct Answer :-
• s, 2.4 and d, 7.0-7.5 [Option ID = 2188]
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Which of the following is correct representation of Hammett equation?
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[Question ID = 549]
- Log (Ko/K) = 1/rs [Option ID = 2190]
- Log (ko/k) = s/r [Option ID = 2191]
- Log (k/ko) = r/s [Option ID = 2192]
- Log (k/ko) =rs [Option ID = 2193]
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Correct Answer :-
• Log (k/ko) =rs [Option ID = 2193]
-
Compound B, the smelly component emitted by pulp mills, showed M+ at m/z 62 and also peaks at 63 and 64 in a 100:2.2:4.4 ratio. Fragment peaks were seen at m/z 15, 32 and 47. The 1H NMR spectrum of compound B consisted of only a single peak. Which of the following represents the correct structure of compound B.
[Question ID = 550]
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- Dimethyl sulfoxide [Option ID = 2194]
- Thioethanol [Option ID = 2195]
- Dimethyl sulphide [Option ID = 2196]
- None of these [Option ID = 2197]
Correct Answer :-
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• Dimethyl sulphide [Option ID = 2196]
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A common target enzyme for non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs is
[Question ID = 551]
- COX-2 [Option ID = 2198]
- CCK-2 [Option ID = 2199]
- CXC-R [Option ID = 2200]
- CDK-2 [Option ID = 2201]
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Correct Answer :-
• COX-2 [Option ID = 2198]
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TseTse fly is the vector of the pathogen
[Question ID = 552]
- Wuchereria [Option ID = 2202]
- Trypanosoma [Option ID = 2203]
- Plasmodium [Option ID = 2204]
- Leishmania [Option ID = 2205]
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Correct Answer :-
-
Structured-activity Relationships shows that the important binding interactions in morphine are the piperidine ring, aromatic ring and hydroxyl groups. A diagram captures these functional groups and their relative orientations. What is the term for this?
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[Question ID = 553]
- Pharmacodynamics [Option ID = 2206]
- Pharmacokinetics [Option ID = 2207]
- Bioisostere [Option ID = 2208]
- Pharmacophore [Option ID = 2209]
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Correct Answer :-
• Pharmacophore [Option ID = 2209]
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Protein S will fold into its native conformation only when protein Q is present in the solution. However, protein Q can fold into its native conformation without protein S. Protein Q, therefore, may function as a
[Question ID = 554]
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- Ligand [Option ID = 2210]
- Molecular chaperone [Option ID = 2211]
- Protein precursor [Option ID = 2212]
- Structural motif [Option ID = 2213]
Correct Answer :-
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• Molecular chaperone [Option ID = 2211]
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Which of the following molecules is commonly used as a fluorophore?
[Question ID = 555]
- Phenolphthlein [Option ID = 2214]
- Fluorescein [Option ID = 2215]
- Bromophenol blue [Option ID = 2216]
- All of these [Option ID = 2217]
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Correct Answer :-
• Fluorescein [Option ID = 2215]
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Name of the monomer used to produce Orlon is
[Question ID = 556]
- Vinyl cyanide [Option ID = 2218]
- Formaldehyde + Phenol [Option ID = 2219]
- Adipic acid + Hexamethylenediamine [Option ID = 2220]
- Dimethyl terephthalate + Ethylene glycol [Option ID = 2221]
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Correct Answer :-
• Vinyl cyanide [Option ID = 2218]
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Which of the following possess a SP-carbon in its structure?
[Question ID = 557]
- CH2=CCI-CH=CH2 [Option ID = 2222]
- CH2=CH-CH=CH2 [Option ID = 2223]
- CH2=C=CH2 [Option ID = 2224]
- CH3-CH=CH-CH=CCl2 [Option ID = 2225]
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Correct Answer :-
• CH2=C=CH2 [Option ID = 2224]
-
Citral, a natural compound isolated from lemon grass oil is
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[Question ID = 558]
- A polyphenol plante
- A terpinoid [Option ID = 2227]
- An unnatural amino acid [Option ID = 2228]
- A carotenoid [Option ID = 2229]
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Correct Answer :-
• A terpinoid [Option ID = 2227]
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Arrange the following compounds in order of their decreasing boiling points
a) CH3CH2CH2CHO,
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b) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH,
c) H5C2-O-C2H5,
d) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH3
[Question ID = 559]
- a > b > c > d [Option ID = 2230]
- c > b > a > d [Option ID = 2231]
- a > b > d > c [Option ID = 2232]
- b > a > d > c [Option ID = 2233]
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Correct Answer :-
•b>a> d > c [Option ID = 2233]
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CD is the difference between the absorption of left and right handed circularly polarized light as a function of wavelength. In the following (e=extinction, c=concentration, l= pathlength). Which one is incorrect?
[Question ID = 560]
- CD=DA/(absorbance units)=4pq(degrees)/(180 ln10) [Option ID = 2234]
- CD= [eL (l) - eR (1)]lc [Option ID = 2235]
- CD = De (l)lc [Option ID = 2236]
- CD = ecl [Option ID = 2237]
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Correct Answer :-
• CD=DA/(absorbance units)=4pq(degrees)/(180 ln10) [Option ID = 2234]
-
Pernicious anemia is caused by
[Question ID = 561]
- Auto antibodies to intrinsic factor [Option ID = 2238]
- Auto antibodies to vitamin B12 [Option ID = 2239]
- Auto antibodies to RBC antigens [Option ID = 2240]
- None [Option ID = 2241]
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Correct Answer :-
• Auto - antibodies to intrinsic factor [Option ID = 2238]
-
Atopic individuals
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[Question ID = 562]
- Show increased sensitivity to allergens [Option ID = 2242]
- Are more prone to auto-immune disorders [Option ID = 2243]
- Are resistant to bacterial infections [Option ID = 2244]
- Resistant to viral infections [Option ID = 2245]
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Correct Answer :-
• Show increased sensitivity to allergens [Option ID = 2242]
-
Match the items in GroupI with Group II:
[Question ID = 563]
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Group I
A. Circular Dichroism
B. X-ray Crystallography
C. Freeze-drying
D. Ultracentrifugation
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Group II
I. Dehydration
II. Sedimentation Coefficient
III. Secondary structure determination
IV. Tertiary structure determination
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Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
- AIV, BI, C - II, D - III [Option ID = 2246]
- AI, BIV, C - III, D - II [Option ID = 2247]
- A II, BIII, CIV, D-1 [Option ID = 2248]
- A III, BIV, C - I, D - II [Option ID = 2249]
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Correct Answer :-
• A III, BIV, C - I, D - II [Option ID = 2249]
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______ are inhibitory interneurons which modulate motor functions by sharpening the signals and secrete _____ for exerting their function.
[Question ID = 564]
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- Renshaw cells; glycine [Option ID = 2250]
- Red nuclei; L-Dopamine [Option ID = 2251]
- Gamma neurons; glycine [Option ID = 2252]
- Alpha neurons; Acetylcholine [Option ID = 2253]
Correct Answer :-
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• Renshaw cells; glycine [Option ID = 2250]
-
Yeast two hybrid technique is used for the study of:
[Question ID = 565]
- Protein and protein interactions [Option ID = 2254]
- DNA and Protein interactions [Option ID = 2255]
- RNA and Protein interactions [Option ID = 2256]
- All of these [Option ID = 2257]
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Correct Answer :-
• Protein and protein interactions [Option ID = 2254]
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Homeostatic regulation of feeding is controlled by
[Question ID = 566]
- Hypothalamus and hind brain [Option ID = 2258]
- Mid brain and hind brain [Option ID = 2259]
- Higher cortical regions and hind brain [Option ID = 2260]
- Limbic system [Option ID = 2261]
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Correct Answer :-
• Hypothalamus and hind brain [Option ID = 2258]
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This download link is referred from the post: DUET Last 10 Years 2011-2021 Question Papers With Answer Key || Delhi University Entrance Test conducted by the NTA
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