q

Delhi University Entrance Test (DUET) 2020 Previous Year Question Paper With Answer Key

This post was last modified on 27 December 2020

Download Document

This download link is referred from the post: DUET Last 10 Years 2011-2021 Question Papers With Answer Key || Delhi University Entrance Test conducted by the NTA

Topic:- GENETICS MSC S2

In March 2013, German researchers published the DNA sequence of the genome of a cell line, which were derived from cervical cancer cells taken unknowingly from a female patient in 1951. What was this woman's name and what is the name of the immortal cell line derived from her? [Question ID = 4375]
1. Henrietta Lacks; HeLa cells [Option ID = 17494]
2. Charlotte O`Hara; CHO cells [Option ID = 17495]
3. Henrietta Kelvin; HEK cells [Option ID = 17496]
4. Simone Hayes; SiHa cells [Option ID = 17497]
Correct Answer :-
- Henrietta Lacks; HeLa cells [Option ID = 17494]

--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---

Which one of the following geometries do the atoms in a molecule of water adopt? [Question ID = 4376]
1. Linear [Option ID = 17498]
2. Tetrahedral [Option ID = 17499]
3. Octahedral [Option ID = 17500]
4. Trigonal planar [Option ID = 17501]
Correct Answer :-
--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
- Tetrahedral [Option ID = 17499]
Which one of the following constitutes the chemical form of the bulk of stored energy in the human body? [Question ID = 4377]
1. Glucose [Option ID = 17502]
2. Glycogen [Option ID = 17503]
3. Fatty acids [Option ID = 17504]
4. Triglycerides [Option ID = 17505]
Correct Answer :-
- Triglycerides [Option ID = 17505]
Tetracycline blocks protein synthesis by [Question ID = 4378]
1. Inhibiting translocase enzyme [Option ID = 17506]
2. Inhibiting peptidyl transferase [Option ID = 17507]
3. Inhibiting binding of aminoacyl tRNA to ribosomes [Option ID = 17508]
4. Inhibiting initiation of translation [Option ID = 17509]
Correct Answer :-
- Inhibiting binding of aminoacyl tRNA to ribosomes [Option ID = 17508]
What sort of experiment is done to determine whether two mutations are in the same or in different genes? [Question ID = 4379]
1. Complementation test [Option ID = 17510]
2. Chi-square test [Option ID = 17511]
3. Co-dominance test [Option ID = 17512]
4. Epistasis test [Option ID = 17513]
Correct Answer :-
- Complementation test [Option ID = 17510]
The genetic map for three genes A, B and C is as follows: A-B = 10 map units, B-C = 5 map units and A-C = 15 map units. In an individual of genotype AbC/aBc, the percentage of gametes expected to be Abc is (assume no interference) [Question ID = 4380]
1. 0.25 [Option ID = 17514]
2. 0.5 [Option ID = 17515]
3. 2.5 [Option ID = 17516]
4. 5.0 [Option ID = 17517]
The following table represents the F2 progeny obtained following selfing of F1 progeny derived from a cross between parents with pure dominant and recessive phenotypes. Further, the table shows the results for four different phenotypes. The phenotypes are governed by single or multiple genes.

Phenotype Dominant Phenotype Recessive Phenotype

Plant height 95 7

Flower color 72 25

Pod size 98 2

Pod shape 118 2

Identify the phenotype which is governed by a single gene [Question ID = 4381]
1. Plant Height [Option ID = 17518]
2. Flower color [Option ID = 17519]
3. Pod size [Option ID = 17520]
4. Pod shape [Option ID = 17521]
Correct Answer :-
- Flower color [Option ID = 17519]

Phenotype	Dominant Phenotype	Recessive Phenotype
Plant height	95	7
Flower color	72	25
Pod size	98	2
Pod shape	118	2

--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---

The early genetic maps that were developed used phenotypes as markers because: [Question ID = 4382]
1. A phenotype governed by a gene could be visually identified and its inheritance pattern followed [Option ID = 17522]
2. The location of the gene on the chromosome could be easily identified by banding patterns like in the polytene chromosomes [Option ID = 17523]
3. The gene specifying a given phenotype could be easily cloned [Option ID = 17524]
4. Genes spanned larger regions than the current day DNA markers like SNPs [Option ID = 17525]
Correct Answer :-
--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
- A phenotype governed by a gene could be visually identified and its inheritance pattern followed [Option ID = 17522]
Duplication, deletion, inversion and translocation are examples of chromosomal rearrangements. Which of these can lead to changes in the genetic map? [Question ID = 4383]
1. Translocation and duplication [Option ID = 17526]
2. Deletion and inversion [Option ID = 17527]
3. Translocation, duplication, and deletion [Option ID = 17528]
4. Duplication, deletion, inversion and translocation [Option ID = 17529]
Correct Answer :-
- Duplication, deletion, inversion and translocation [Option ID = 17529]
With reference to spontaneous mutations, one of the questions asked by geneticists was whether spontaneous mutations are induced in response to external stimuli or whether variants are present at a low frequency in most populations. In order to answer this, "fluctuation test" was carried out by: [Question ID = 4384]
1. Salvador Luria and Max Delbrück [Option ID = 17530]
2. Francois Jacob and Jacques Monod [Option ID = 17531]
3. Thomas Hunt Morgan [Option ID = 17532]
4. Seymour Benzer [Option ID = 17533]
Correct Answer :-
- Salvador Luria and Max Delbrück [Option ID = 17530]
In E. coli four Hfr strains donate the following genetic markers, shown in the order donated: Strain 1: A D C E Q Strain 2: A K M T Y Strain 3: C E Q W X Strain 4: M T Y X W All these HFr strains are derived from the same F+ strain. What is the order of these markers on the circular chromosome of the original F+?
1. Y T M K A D C E Q W X Y [Option ID = 17534]
2. Y T M K A D C E Q W X Y [Option ID = 17535]
3. D C E Q A K M T Y X W D [Option ID = 17536]
4. C E Q W X Y T M A K D C [Option ID = 17537]
Correct Answer :-
- Y T M K A D C E Q W X Y [Option ID = 17535]
Given that an autosomal gene has 6 alleles, how many heterozygous genotypes can be formed? [Question ID = 4386]
1. 12 [Option ID = 17538]
2. 15 [Option ID = 17539]
3. 18 [Option ID = 17540]
4. 24 [Option ID = 17541]
Correct Answer :-
- 15 [Option ID = 17539]

--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---

Mendel's law of segregation, as applied to the behaviour of chromosomes during cell division means that: [Question ID = 4387]
1. Alleles of a gene separate from each other when homologous chromosomes separate at meiosis II [Option ID = 17542]
2. Alleles of a gene separate from each other when chromatids separate at meiosis II [Option ID = 17543]
3. Alleles of a gene separate from each other when homologous chromosomes separate at meiosis I, or when chromatids separate at meiosis II if there is a cross over between the gene and the centromere [Option ID = 17544]
4. Alleles of a gene separate from each other when chromatids separate at meiosis I, or when homologous chromosomes separate at meiosis II if there is a cross over between the gene and the centromere [Option ID = 17545]
Correct Answer :-
--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
- Alleles of a gene separate from each other when homologous chromosomes separate at meiosis I, or when chromatids separate at meiosis II if there is a cross over between the gene and the centromere [Option ID = 17544]
Interference is a common phenomenon during crossing over in meiosis. As the frequency of observed Double Cross Over (DCO) becomes close to the expected frequency of DCO, the coefficient of coincidence will: [Question ID = 4388]
1. Increase [Option ID = 17546]
2. Decrease [Option ID = 17547]
3. Remain same [Option ID = 17548]
4. No relationship between the two [Option ID = 17549]
Correct Answer :-
- Increase [Option ID = 17546]
When two plants with pink flowers are crossed, the progeny obtained has pink flowers. When the F₁ pink-flowered progeny is selfed, the F2 progeny have pink-flowered and white-flowered plants in a 15:1 ratio. This is a case of [Question ID = 4389]
1. Incomplete dominance [Option ID = 17550]
2. Duplicate gene [Option ID = 17551]
3. Recessive epistasis [Option ID = 17552]
4. Dominant epistasis [Option ID = 17553]
Correct Answer :-
- Duplicate gene [Option ID = 17551]
In humans, the haploid number of chromosomes is 23. Assuming that no recombination occurs, how many different types of gametes can arise by independent assortment? [Question ID = 4390]
1. 23 [Option ID = 17554]
2. 2²³ [Option ID = 17555]
3. 46 [Option ID = 17556]
4. 462 [Option ID = 17557]
Correct Answer :-
- 2²³ [Option ID = 17555]
Colour blindness is an X-linked recessive character. A colour-blind man and his wife with normal vision have a colour-blind daughter. What is the probability that their new born son would be colour-blind? [Question ID = 4391]
1. 0 [Option ID = 17558]
2. 1/4 [Option ID = 17559]
3. 1/2 [Option ID = 17560]
4. 1 [Option ID = 17561]
Correct Answer :-
- 1/2 [Option ID = 17560]

--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---

In Drosophila (fruit flies), eye colour is sex-linked and red eye colour is dominant to white eye colour. Which of the following are not possible in a cross between a red-eyed male and a heterozygous female? [Question ID = 4392]
1. Red-eyed male [Option ID = 17562]
2. White-eyed male [Option ID = 17563]
3. Carrier female [Option ID = 17564]
4. Homozygous white-eyed female [Option ID = 17565]
Correct Answer :-
--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
- Homozygous white-eyed female [Option ID = 17565]
The frequency of a disorder controlled by an autosomal recessive allele is 1 in 10000. What is the frequency of the recessive allele? [Question ID = 4393]
1. 1/100 [Option ID = 17566]
2. 1/200 [Option ID = 17567]
3. 1/1000 [Option ID = 17568]
4. 1/2000 [Option ID = 17569]
Correct Answer :-
- 1/100 [Option ID = 17566]
Balanced polymorphism describes the preservation of genetic variability through the selection of heterozygotes. Which one of the following is an example of balanced polymorphism? [Question ID = 4394]
1. Blood groups [Option ID = 17570]
2. Sickle cell trait [Option ID = 17571]
3. Skin colour [Option ID = 17572]
4. Industrial melanism [Option ID = 17573]
Correct Answer :-
- Sickle cell trait [Option ID = 17571]
What genotype is present most often among the progeny (F2) of a dihybrid cross (AaBb X AaBb)? [Question ID = 4395]
1. AaBb [Option ID = 17574]
2. AABb [Option ID = 17575]
3. AABB [Option ID = 17576]
4. AAbb [Option ID = 17577]
Correct Answer :-
- AaBb [Option ID = 17574]
A man and a woman, who do not show any apparent signs of a certain inherited disease, have seven children (5 daughters and 5 sons). Three of the sons suffer and one of the daughters are affected. Which of the following mode of inheritance can explain these results ?
1. Sex linked dominant [Option ID = 17578]
2. Autosomal recessive [Option ID = 17579]
3. Autosomal dominant [Option ID = 17580]
4. Sex limited dominant [Option ID = 17581]
Correct Answer :-
- Sex linked recessive [Option ID = 17578]

--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---

What are the assumptions of Hardy Weinberg equilibrium? [Question ID = 4397]
1. Small population size, random mating, no selection, no migration, no mutation [Option ID = 17582]
2. Large population size, random mating, no selection, no migration, no mutation [Option ID = 17583]
3. Large population size, random mating, heterozygotes survive the best, no migration, no mutation [Option ID = 17584]
4. Large population size, like individuals mate, no selection, no migration, no mutation [Option ID = 17585]
Correct Answer :-
--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
- Large population size, random mating, no selection, no migration, no mutation [Option ID = 17583]
In the Himalayan rabbits, the ears, feet, and muzzle are pigmented while the rest of the body is white. This is because of they express an enzyme variant that is ineffective at body temperature but function at lower temperature experienced by cells of extremities. This is an example of: [Question ID = 4398]
1. Incomplete dominance [Option ID = 17586]
2. Conditional mutation [Option ID = 17587]
3. Suppressor mutation [Option ID = 17588]
4. Epistasis [Option ID = 17589]
Correct Answer :-
- Conditional mutation [Option ID = 17587]
Which of the following is an autosomal dominant disorder? [Question ID = 4399]
1. Huntington's disease [Option ID = 17590]
2. Tay-Sach's disease [Option ID = 17591]
3. Cystic Fibrosis [Option ID = 17592]
4. Sickle Cell Anaemia [Option ID = 17593]
Correct Answer :-
- Huntington's disease [Option ID = 17590]
In a cloning experiment, the 'gene of interest' is to be inserted into the lacZ gene present on a vector which also carries the gene for tetracycline resistance. The transformed cells are plated on three (3) different media containing i) tetracycline + X-gal, ii) only tetracycline, and iii) only X-gal; which one of the following results would indicate successful cloning of the gene of interest? [Question ID = 4400]
1. White colony on the tetracycline + X-gal plates [Option ID = 17594]
2. Blue colony on the tetracycline + X-gal plates [Option ID = 17595]
3. Any colony on the tetracycline + X-gal plates irrespective of color [Option ID = 17596]
4. Blue colony on X-gal plate which does not grow on tetracycline plates [Option ID = 17597]
Correct Answer :-
- White colony on the tetracycline + X-gal plates [Option ID = 17594]
In a typical Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR), the reaction is cycled between 95°C → 55°C → 72°C. If the composition/length of the primer pair is altered, which one of the above mentioned temperatures should be adjusted accordingly? [Question ID = 4401]
1. 95°C [Option ID = 17598]
2. 55°C [Option ID = 17599]
3. 72°C [Option ID = 17600]
4. 55°C and 72°C [Option ID = 17601]
Which one of the following statements about two-hybrid is correct? [Question ID = 4402]
1. It is fused with the activation domain of a transcription factor [Option ID = 17602]
2. It is fused with the DNA binding domain of a transcription factor [Option ID = 17603]
3. It is expressed only if the proteins being tested interact [Option ID = 17604]
4. It always requires the presence of histidine in the growth medium for its expression [Option ID = 17605]
Correct Answer :-
- It is expressed only if the proteins being tested interact [Option ID = 17604]

--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---

Which of the following techniques will one use to identify the spatial pattern of expression of a gene in a developing embryo? [Question ID = 4403]
1. Microarray [Option ID = 17606]
2. In situ hybridization [Option ID = 17607]
3. Northern hybridization [Option ID = 17608]
4. qPCR [Option ID = 17609]
Correct Answer :-
--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
- In situ hybridization [Option ID = 17607]
Colchicine treatment of root tip meristem cells results in all of the following EXCEPT: [Question ID = 4404]
1. Induction of polyploidy [Option ID = 17610]
2. Prevention of cytokinesis [Option ID = 17611]
3. Inhibition of meiotic spindle assembly [Option ID = 17612]
4. Prevention of chromosome segregation [Option ID = 17613]
Correct Answer :-
- Inhibition of meiotic spindle assembly [Option ID = 17612]
Which one of the following techniques can be utilized to investigate DNA-Protein interaction? [Question ID = 4405]
1. DNA foot printing [Option ID = 17614]
2. Comparative Genomic Hybridization (CGH) [Option ID = 17615]
3. Yeast three hybrid system [Option ID = 17616]
4. Single-strand conformation polymorphism (SSCP) [Option ID = 17617]
Correct Answer :-
- DNA foot printing [Option ID = 17614]
Which one of the following microscopy techniques is based on the specimen's interference with the wavelength of light to produce a high contrast image without staining? [Question ID = 4406]
1. Bright field light microscopy [Option ID = 17618]
2. Phase contrast microscopy [Option ID = 17620]
3. Fluorescence microscopy [Option ID = 17621]
Correct Answer :-
--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
- Phase contrast microscopy [Option ID = 17620]
SDS is used in gel electrophoresis for the separation of a mixture of proteins based on their molecular size. SDS is used to [Question ID = 4407]
1. Disrupt protein dimers [Option ID = 17622]
2. Stabilize the proteins [Option ID = 17623]
3. Decrease the surface tension of the buffers [Option ID = 17624]
4. Have a uniform charge density on the proteins [Option ID = 17625]
Correct Answer :-
- Have a uniform charge density on the proteins [Option ID = 17625]
A breeder identified a variegation mutant in the leaf colour in a normal green population of maize. To study the genetics of this mutant he made a cross between variegated and green plants using variegated as the female parent. All the F₁ and the selfed F2 progeny were variegated. The leaf variegation in maize could be due to: [Question ID = 4408]
1. Maternal effect [Option ID = 17626]
2. Mendelian inheritance [Option ID = 17627]
3. Maternal inheritance [Option ID = 17628]
4. Mendelian inheritance, with variegated being dominant over green [Option ID = 17629]
Correct Answer :-
- Maternal inheritance [Option ID = 17628]
You have a protein which has a different three-dimensional conformation based on whether the buffer has acidic or basic pH. You separate it on a 10cm long Native PAGE which has been made in buffer with pH 4.5 and you find the protein band to have migrated to 8cm after applying 20mA current for 3hrs. You then separate the same protein on a 10cm Native PAGE made with buffer of pH 11 for 3hrs by applying a current of 20mA. How far would the protein band run? [Question ID = 4409]
1. Greater than 8 cm but less than 9cm [Option ID = 17630]
2. Equal to 8cm [Option ID = 17631]
3. Less than 8cm but further than 6cm [Option ID = 17632]
4. Either greater or less than 8cm [Option ID = 17633]
Correct Answer :-
- Either greater or less than 8cm [Option ID = 17633]
Which one of the following processes is used by some bacteria to regulate expression of an amino acid biosynthetic operon in accordance to the levels of aminoacetylated tRNA in the cell? [Question ID = 4410]
1. Antitermination [Option ID = 17634]
2. Attenuation [Option ID = 17635]
3. Aminoacylation [Option ID = 17636]
4. Activation of transcription [Option ID = 17637]
Correct Answer :-
- Attenuation [Option ID = 17635]

--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---

The DNA content a gamete of a diploid organism is 'C'. What will be the DNA content of its somatic cell in G₁ phase of cell cycle? [Question ID = 4411]
1. 1/2C [Option ID = 17638]
2. C [Option ID = 17639]
3. 2C [Option ID = 17640]
4. 4C [Option ID = 17641]
Correct Answer :-
--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
- 2C [Option ID = 17640]
Variation in which types of repeat sequence commonly arise by replication slippage? [Question ID = 4412]
1. Microsatellites [Option ID = 17642]
2. Minisatellites [Option ID = 17643]
3. Retrotransposons [Option ID = 17644]
4. DNA transposon [Option ID = 17645]
Correct Answer :-
- Microsatellites [Option ID = 17642]
Which of the following is a maternal effect in early Drosophila development? [Question ID = 4413]
1. Maternal, gap, pair-rule, segment polarity [Option ID = 17646]
2. Gap, maternal, segment polarity, pair-rule [Option ID = 17647]
3. Maternal, pair-rule, gap, segment polarity [Option ID = 17648]
4. Gap, segment polarity, pair-rule, homeotic gene [Option ID = 17649]
Correct Answer :-
- Maternal, gap, pair-rule, segment polarity [Option ID = 17646]
The process of non-reciprocal recombination by which one allele in a heterozygote is converted into the corresponding allele is called: [Question ID = 4414]
1. Gene targeting [Option ID = 17650]
2. Gene knockout [Option ID = 17651]
3. Gene replacement [Option ID = 17652]
4. Gene conversion [Option ID = 17653]
Correct Answer :-
- Gene conversion [Option ID = 17653]
Which of the following can be taken as evidence for 'Genomic Equivalence': the theory that all cells of an organism contain an equivalent complement of genetic information ? [Question ID = 4415]
1. Sequencing of the human genome [Option ID = 17654]
2. Cloning of Dolly [Option ID = 17655]
3. Analysis of transcriptome of different stages of development in Drosophila [Option ID = 17656]
4. Development of a detailed genetic map in Neurospora [Option ID = 17657]
Correct Answer :-
- Cloning of Dolly [Option ID = 17655]

--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---

In meiosis, an inversion in one member of a pair of homologous chromosomes will most likely lead to which of the following? [Question ID = 4416]
1. Nondisjunction of the affected chromosome [Option ID = 17658]
2. Chromosomes with duplications and deficiencies [Option ID = 17659]
3. Increased recombination frequency in the inverted region [Option ID = 17660]
4. Mispairing of the affected chromosome with a non-homologous chromosome [Option ID = 17661]
Correct Answer :-
--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
- Chromosomes with duplications and deficiencies [Option ID = 17659]
Bacterial core RNA polymerase (RNAP) can bind to DNA. However, in order to initiate transcription from specific promoter sequences, it needs to associate with a sigma factor to form the holo-enzyme. The following table gives information on the binding of core and holo- RNAP to DNA.
This download link is referred from the post: DUET Last 10 Years 2011-2021 Question Papers With Answer Key || Delhi University Entrance Test conducted by the NTA

Association constant (Arbitrary Units) Half life of complex (AU)

With non-specific DNA sequence With promoter DNA sequence With non specific DNA sequence With promoter DNA sequence

--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---

This post was last modified on 27 December 2020

Get the MBBS Question Bank Android App

q

Share This Post:

Share This Post: