Download DUET (Delhi University Entrance Test conducted by the NTA) 2018 DU LLM Question Paper With Solution Key
2)
3)
4)
DU LLM
Topic:- DU_J18_LLM_Topic01
Which of the following statement is true regarding the social contract theory on origin of State?
1. State is a creation of agreement between people
2. Thomas Hobbes? social contract theory supported limited constitutional monarchy
3. According to Rousseau, the ruler was bound by the general will of the people
4. According to Locke, the sovereign was absolute and his word was the law.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 485]
1. All are correct. [Option ID = 1940]
2. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1938]
3. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
4. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1937]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
[Question ID = 500]
1. A stipulation in a contract of sale may be a condition or warranty. [Option ID = 1997]
2. A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
3. A breach of condition results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1998]
4. All these [Option ID = 2000]
Correct Answer :-
A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
Which of the following exceptions to strict liability were recognised by Justice Blackburn in Rylands v. Fletcher?
1. Vis major
2. Statutory authority
3. Plaintiff?s own default
4. Act of third party
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 463]
1. 3 and 4 [Option ID = 1849]
2. 1, 2 and 3 [Option ID = 1851]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1852]
4. 1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Which of the following Acts was amended by the Criminal Law Amendment Act, 2013?
[Question ID = 467]
1. None of these [Option ID = 1868]
2. The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 [Option ID = 1867]
3. The Information Technology Act, 2000 [Option ID = 1865]
4. The Immoral Trafficking (Prevention) Act, 1956 [Option ID = 1866]
Correct Answer :-
FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
1)
2)
3)
4)
DU LLM
Topic:- DU_J18_LLM_Topic01
Which of the following statement is true regarding the social contract theory on origin of State?
1. State is a creation of agreement between people
2. Thomas Hobbes? social contract theory supported limited constitutional monarchy
3. According to Rousseau, the ruler was bound by the general will of the people
4. According to Locke, the sovereign was absolute and his word was the law.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 485]
1. All are correct. [Option ID = 1940]
2. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1938]
3. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
4. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1937]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
[Question ID = 500]
1. A stipulation in a contract of sale may be a condition or warranty. [Option ID = 1997]
2. A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
3. A breach of condition results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1998]
4. All these [Option ID = 2000]
Correct Answer :-
A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
Which of the following exceptions to strict liability were recognised by Justice Blackburn in Rylands v. Fletcher?
1. Vis major
2. Statutory authority
3. Plaintiff?s own default
4. Act of third party
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 463]
1. 3 and 4 [Option ID = 1849]
2. 1, 2 and 3 [Option ID = 1851]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1852]
4. 1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Which of the following Acts was amended by the Criminal Law Amendment Act, 2013?
[Question ID = 467]
1. None of these [Option ID = 1868]
2. The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 [Option ID = 1867]
3. The Information Technology Act, 2000 [Option ID = 1865]
4. The Immoral Trafficking (Prevention) Act, 1956 [Option ID = 1866]
Correct Answer :-
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 [Option ID = 1867]
Which of the following observations on fundamental rights was made by the Supreme Court in K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India?
1. There is no overlap between rights enumerated under Article 19 and Article 21 of the Constitution of India.
2. The constitutional values embodied under every Article of Part III of the Constitution of India animates the interpretation of the other.
3. Only Article 21 contains residue of fundamental rights that are not expressly stipulated under Article 19 of the Constitution of India.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 501]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 2004]
2. Only 3 is correct. [Option ID = 2001]
3. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2002]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 2003]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2002]
Which of the following is sensitive personal information according to rule 3 of the Information Technology (Reasonable Security
Practices and Procedures and Sensitive Data or Information) Rules, 2011?
1. Credit card details
2. Medical records
3. Mobile number
4. Sexual orientation
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 436]
1. 1, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1742]
2. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1743]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1741]
4. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1744]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1743]
Which of the following is/are mechanism/mechanisms of pacific settlement of disputes under the UN Charter?
[Question ID = 419]
1. Enquiry [Option ID = 1673]
2. Judicial Settlement [Option ID = 1675]
3. Arbitration [Option ID = 1674]
4. All these [Option ID = 1676]
Correct Answer :-
All these [Option ID = 1676]
Which of the following actions of host is allowed under the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations of 1961:
[Question ID = 425]
1. The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata. [Option ID
= 1697]
2. The host state can any time search the premises of the diplomatic staff. [Option ID = 1699]
3. The host state can at any time withdraw the immunities granted to diplomats. [Option ID = 1700]
4. The host state can at any time confiscate the diplomatic bag. [Option ID = 1698]
Correct Answer :-
The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata.
[Option ID = 1697]
Which of the following provisions of the UN Charter is correctly matched:
FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
1)
2)
3)
4)
DU LLM
Topic:- DU_J18_LLM_Topic01
Which of the following statement is true regarding the social contract theory on origin of State?
1. State is a creation of agreement between people
2. Thomas Hobbes? social contract theory supported limited constitutional monarchy
3. According to Rousseau, the ruler was bound by the general will of the people
4. According to Locke, the sovereign was absolute and his word was the law.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 485]
1. All are correct. [Option ID = 1940]
2. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1938]
3. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
4. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1937]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
[Question ID = 500]
1. A stipulation in a contract of sale may be a condition or warranty. [Option ID = 1997]
2. A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
3. A breach of condition results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1998]
4. All these [Option ID = 2000]
Correct Answer :-
A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
Which of the following exceptions to strict liability were recognised by Justice Blackburn in Rylands v. Fletcher?
1. Vis major
2. Statutory authority
3. Plaintiff?s own default
4. Act of third party
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 463]
1. 3 and 4 [Option ID = 1849]
2. 1, 2 and 3 [Option ID = 1851]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1852]
4. 1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Which of the following Acts was amended by the Criminal Law Amendment Act, 2013?
[Question ID = 467]
1. None of these [Option ID = 1868]
2. The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 [Option ID = 1867]
3. The Information Technology Act, 2000 [Option ID = 1865]
4. The Immoral Trafficking (Prevention) Act, 1956 [Option ID = 1866]
Correct Answer :-
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 [Option ID = 1867]
Which of the following observations on fundamental rights was made by the Supreme Court in K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India?
1. There is no overlap between rights enumerated under Article 19 and Article 21 of the Constitution of India.
2. The constitutional values embodied under every Article of Part III of the Constitution of India animates the interpretation of the other.
3. Only Article 21 contains residue of fundamental rights that are not expressly stipulated under Article 19 of the Constitution of India.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 501]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 2004]
2. Only 3 is correct. [Option ID = 2001]
3. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2002]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 2003]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2002]
Which of the following is sensitive personal information according to rule 3 of the Information Technology (Reasonable Security
Practices and Procedures and Sensitive Data or Information) Rules, 2011?
1. Credit card details
2. Medical records
3. Mobile number
4. Sexual orientation
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 436]
1. 1, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1742]
2. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1743]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1741]
4. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1744]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1743]
Which of the following is/are mechanism/mechanisms of pacific settlement of disputes under the UN Charter?
[Question ID = 419]
1. Enquiry [Option ID = 1673]
2. Judicial Settlement [Option ID = 1675]
3. Arbitration [Option ID = 1674]
4. All these [Option ID = 1676]
Correct Answer :-
All these [Option ID = 1676]
Which of the following actions of host is allowed under the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations of 1961:
[Question ID = 425]
1. The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata. [Option ID
= 1697]
2. The host state can any time search the premises of the diplomatic staff. [Option ID = 1699]
3. The host state can at any time withdraw the immunities granted to diplomats. [Option ID = 1700]
4. The host state can at any time confiscate the diplomatic bag. [Option ID = 1698]
Correct Answer :-
The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata.
[Option ID = 1697]
Which of the following provisions of the UN Charter is correctly matched:
10)
11)
12)
13)
14)
[Question ID = 428]
1. Article 2 (5) Principle of Settlement of Disputes by Peaceful Means [Option ID = 1712]
2. Article 2 (6) Principle of Non-Intervention [Option ID = 1710]
3. Article 2 (4) Prohibition on Use of Force [Option ID = 1709]
4. Article 2 (2) Principle of Sovereign Equality of the UN Members [Option ID = 1711]
Correct Answer :-
Article 2 (4) Prohibition on Use of Force [Option ID = 1709]
Which of the following are ?Inventions Not Patentable? under the Patent Act, 1970?
[Question ID = 431]
1. Invention relating to atomic Energy [Option ID = 1723]
2. A method of agriculture or horticulture [Option ID = 1721]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1724]
4. Topography of integrated circuits [Option ID = 1722]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1724]
Which of the following are conditions of a valid Hindu marriage in accordance with section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
1. Prior consent of the parties.
2. Neither Party must have a spouse living at the time of the marriage.
3. The bridegroom must have completed the age of 21 years and the bride, the age of 18 years at the time of the marriage.
4. The parties are not sagotras of each other.
5. The parties are not sapindas of each other.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 452]
1. Only 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1808]
2. Only 1, 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1805]
3. Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1807]
4. Only 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1806]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1806]
Which of the following is an example of obligatio erga omnes of states under International Law?
[Question ID = 422]
1. Protection from Wars [Option ID = 1687]
2. Protection from slavery [Option ID = 1685]
3. Protection from Political Crimes [Option ID = 1686]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1688]
Correct Answer :-
Protection from slavery [Option ID = 1685]
Which of the following is an implied condition in case of a contract for sale by sample?
[Question ID = 499]
1. Goods shall not be free from any defect, rendering them unmerchantable, which would not be apparent on reasonable examination of the sample. [Option
ID = 1995]
2. Bulk not corresponding with the sample in quality. [Option ID = 1993]
3. Buyer shall not have a reasonable opportunity of comparing the bulk with the sample. [Option ID = 1994]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1996]
Correct Answer :-
None of these [Option ID = 1996]
Read the following statements about the offence of dacoity under the Indian Penal Code, 1860:
FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
1)
2)
3)
4)
DU LLM
Topic:- DU_J18_LLM_Topic01
Which of the following statement is true regarding the social contract theory on origin of State?
1. State is a creation of agreement between people
2. Thomas Hobbes? social contract theory supported limited constitutional monarchy
3. According to Rousseau, the ruler was bound by the general will of the people
4. According to Locke, the sovereign was absolute and his word was the law.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 485]
1. All are correct. [Option ID = 1940]
2. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1938]
3. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
4. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1937]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
[Question ID = 500]
1. A stipulation in a contract of sale may be a condition or warranty. [Option ID = 1997]
2. A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
3. A breach of condition results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1998]
4. All these [Option ID = 2000]
Correct Answer :-
A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
Which of the following exceptions to strict liability were recognised by Justice Blackburn in Rylands v. Fletcher?
1. Vis major
2. Statutory authority
3. Plaintiff?s own default
4. Act of third party
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 463]
1. 3 and 4 [Option ID = 1849]
2. 1, 2 and 3 [Option ID = 1851]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1852]
4. 1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Which of the following Acts was amended by the Criminal Law Amendment Act, 2013?
[Question ID = 467]
1. None of these [Option ID = 1868]
2. The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 [Option ID = 1867]
3. The Information Technology Act, 2000 [Option ID = 1865]
4. The Immoral Trafficking (Prevention) Act, 1956 [Option ID = 1866]
Correct Answer :-
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 [Option ID = 1867]
Which of the following observations on fundamental rights was made by the Supreme Court in K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India?
1. There is no overlap between rights enumerated under Article 19 and Article 21 of the Constitution of India.
2. The constitutional values embodied under every Article of Part III of the Constitution of India animates the interpretation of the other.
3. Only Article 21 contains residue of fundamental rights that are not expressly stipulated under Article 19 of the Constitution of India.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 501]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 2004]
2. Only 3 is correct. [Option ID = 2001]
3. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2002]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 2003]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2002]
Which of the following is sensitive personal information according to rule 3 of the Information Technology (Reasonable Security
Practices and Procedures and Sensitive Data or Information) Rules, 2011?
1. Credit card details
2. Medical records
3. Mobile number
4. Sexual orientation
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 436]
1. 1, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1742]
2. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1743]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1741]
4. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1744]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1743]
Which of the following is/are mechanism/mechanisms of pacific settlement of disputes under the UN Charter?
[Question ID = 419]
1. Enquiry [Option ID = 1673]
2. Judicial Settlement [Option ID = 1675]
3. Arbitration [Option ID = 1674]
4. All these [Option ID = 1676]
Correct Answer :-
All these [Option ID = 1676]
Which of the following actions of host is allowed under the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations of 1961:
[Question ID = 425]
1. The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata. [Option ID
= 1697]
2. The host state can any time search the premises of the diplomatic staff. [Option ID = 1699]
3. The host state can at any time withdraw the immunities granted to diplomats. [Option ID = 1700]
4. The host state can at any time confiscate the diplomatic bag. [Option ID = 1698]
Correct Answer :-
The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata.
[Option ID = 1697]
Which of the following provisions of the UN Charter is correctly matched:
10)
11)
12)
13)
14)
[Question ID = 428]
1. Article 2 (5) Principle of Settlement of Disputes by Peaceful Means [Option ID = 1712]
2. Article 2 (6) Principle of Non-Intervention [Option ID = 1710]
3. Article 2 (4) Prohibition on Use of Force [Option ID = 1709]
4. Article 2 (2) Principle of Sovereign Equality of the UN Members [Option ID = 1711]
Correct Answer :-
Article 2 (4) Prohibition on Use of Force [Option ID = 1709]
Which of the following are ?Inventions Not Patentable? under the Patent Act, 1970?
[Question ID = 431]
1. Invention relating to atomic Energy [Option ID = 1723]
2. A method of agriculture or horticulture [Option ID = 1721]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1724]
4. Topography of integrated circuits [Option ID = 1722]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1724]
Which of the following are conditions of a valid Hindu marriage in accordance with section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
1. Prior consent of the parties.
2. Neither Party must have a spouse living at the time of the marriage.
3. The bridegroom must have completed the age of 21 years and the bride, the age of 18 years at the time of the marriage.
4. The parties are not sagotras of each other.
5. The parties are not sapindas of each other.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 452]
1. Only 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1808]
2. Only 1, 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1805]
3. Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1807]
4. Only 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1806]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1806]
Which of the following is an example of obligatio erga omnes of states under International Law?
[Question ID = 422]
1. Protection from Wars [Option ID = 1687]
2. Protection from slavery [Option ID = 1685]
3. Protection from Political Crimes [Option ID = 1686]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1688]
Correct Answer :-
Protection from slavery [Option ID = 1685]
Which of the following is an implied condition in case of a contract for sale by sample?
[Question ID = 499]
1. Goods shall not be free from any defect, rendering them unmerchantable, which would not be apparent on reasonable examination of the sample. [Option
ID = 1995]
2. Bulk not corresponding with the sample in quality. [Option ID = 1993]
3. Buyer shall not have a reasonable opportunity of comparing the bulk with the sample. [Option ID = 1994]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1996]
Correct Answer :-
None of these [Option ID = 1996]
Read the following statements about the offence of dacoity under the Indian Penal Code, 1860:
15)
16)
17)
18)
19)
1. Attempt to commit dacoity is punishable.
2. Assembling for the purpose of dacoity is punishable.
3. Preparation for dacoity is punishable.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 477]
1. Only 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1907]
2. Only 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1908]
3. Only 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1906]
4. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1905]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1905]
Which among the following is generally referred to as the subtle species of fraud? [Question ID = 498]
1. Undue Influence [Option ID = 1990]
2. Deliberate Mistake [Option ID = 1992]
3. Misrepresentation [Option ID = 1989]
4. Coercion [Option ID = 1991]
Correct Answer :-
Undue Influence [Option ID = 1990]
A member of the UN may be suspended from its membership [Question ID = 417]
1. by the Security Council [Option ID = 1666]
2. by the International Court of Justice upon the request made by the UN General Assembly [Option ID = 1665]
3. by the General Assembly upon the recommendations of the Security Council [Option ID = 1667]
4. by the UN Secretary General [Option ID = 1668]
Correct Answer :-
by the General Assembly upon the recommendations of the Security Council [Option ID = 1667]
According to the Information Technology Act, 2000, an electronic record is deemed to be received at a place where addressee
[Question ID = 439]
1. All these [Option ID = 1756]
2. has his server. [Option ID = 1753]
3. has his place of business. [Option ID = 1754]
4. retrieves the record. [Option ID = 1755]
Correct Answer :-
has his place of business. [Option ID = 1754]
According to Fuller, in order to evade failure, law must have the following characteristics:
1. Law must be publicly accessible
2. Law must be clear and unambiguous
3. Law must not command what cannot be done
4. Law must introduce frequent changes
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 481]
1. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1923]
2. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1921]
3. All are correct. [Option ID = 1924]
4. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1922]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1921]
Who among the following remarked that international law is positive morality? [Question ID = 486]
1. Lon Fuller [Option ID = 1941]
2. Jeremy Bentham [Option ID = 1942]
3. H.L.A. Hart [Option ID = 1943]
FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
1)
2)
3)
4)
DU LLM
Topic:- DU_J18_LLM_Topic01
Which of the following statement is true regarding the social contract theory on origin of State?
1. State is a creation of agreement between people
2. Thomas Hobbes? social contract theory supported limited constitutional monarchy
3. According to Rousseau, the ruler was bound by the general will of the people
4. According to Locke, the sovereign was absolute and his word was the law.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 485]
1. All are correct. [Option ID = 1940]
2. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1938]
3. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
4. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1937]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
[Question ID = 500]
1. A stipulation in a contract of sale may be a condition or warranty. [Option ID = 1997]
2. A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
3. A breach of condition results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1998]
4. All these [Option ID = 2000]
Correct Answer :-
A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
Which of the following exceptions to strict liability were recognised by Justice Blackburn in Rylands v. Fletcher?
1. Vis major
2. Statutory authority
3. Plaintiff?s own default
4. Act of third party
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 463]
1. 3 and 4 [Option ID = 1849]
2. 1, 2 and 3 [Option ID = 1851]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1852]
4. 1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Which of the following Acts was amended by the Criminal Law Amendment Act, 2013?
[Question ID = 467]
1. None of these [Option ID = 1868]
2. The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 [Option ID = 1867]
3. The Information Technology Act, 2000 [Option ID = 1865]
4. The Immoral Trafficking (Prevention) Act, 1956 [Option ID = 1866]
Correct Answer :-
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 [Option ID = 1867]
Which of the following observations on fundamental rights was made by the Supreme Court in K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India?
1. There is no overlap between rights enumerated under Article 19 and Article 21 of the Constitution of India.
2. The constitutional values embodied under every Article of Part III of the Constitution of India animates the interpretation of the other.
3. Only Article 21 contains residue of fundamental rights that are not expressly stipulated under Article 19 of the Constitution of India.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 501]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 2004]
2. Only 3 is correct. [Option ID = 2001]
3. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2002]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 2003]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2002]
Which of the following is sensitive personal information according to rule 3 of the Information Technology (Reasonable Security
Practices and Procedures and Sensitive Data or Information) Rules, 2011?
1. Credit card details
2. Medical records
3. Mobile number
4. Sexual orientation
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 436]
1. 1, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1742]
2. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1743]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1741]
4. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1744]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1743]
Which of the following is/are mechanism/mechanisms of pacific settlement of disputes under the UN Charter?
[Question ID = 419]
1. Enquiry [Option ID = 1673]
2. Judicial Settlement [Option ID = 1675]
3. Arbitration [Option ID = 1674]
4. All these [Option ID = 1676]
Correct Answer :-
All these [Option ID = 1676]
Which of the following actions of host is allowed under the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations of 1961:
[Question ID = 425]
1. The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata. [Option ID
= 1697]
2. The host state can any time search the premises of the diplomatic staff. [Option ID = 1699]
3. The host state can at any time withdraw the immunities granted to diplomats. [Option ID = 1700]
4. The host state can at any time confiscate the diplomatic bag. [Option ID = 1698]
Correct Answer :-
The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata.
[Option ID = 1697]
Which of the following provisions of the UN Charter is correctly matched:
10)
11)
12)
13)
14)
[Question ID = 428]
1. Article 2 (5) Principle of Settlement of Disputes by Peaceful Means [Option ID = 1712]
2. Article 2 (6) Principle of Non-Intervention [Option ID = 1710]
3. Article 2 (4) Prohibition on Use of Force [Option ID = 1709]
4. Article 2 (2) Principle of Sovereign Equality of the UN Members [Option ID = 1711]
Correct Answer :-
Article 2 (4) Prohibition on Use of Force [Option ID = 1709]
Which of the following are ?Inventions Not Patentable? under the Patent Act, 1970?
[Question ID = 431]
1. Invention relating to atomic Energy [Option ID = 1723]
2. A method of agriculture or horticulture [Option ID = 1721]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1724]
4. Topography of integrated circuits [Option ID = 1722]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1724]
Which of the following are conditions of a valid Hindu marriage in accordance with section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
1. Prior consent of the parties.
2. Neither Party must have a spouse living at the time of the marriage.
3. The bridegroom must have completed the age of 21 years and the bride, the age of 18 years at the time of the marriage.
4. The parties are not sagotras of each other.
5. The parties are not sapindas of each other.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 452]
1. Only 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1808]
2. Only 1, 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1805]
3. Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1807]
4. Only 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1806]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1806]
Which of the following is an example of obligatio erga omnes of states under International Law?
[Question ID = 422]
1. Protection from Wars [Option ID = 1687]
2. Protection from slavery [Option ID = 1685]
3. Protection from Political Crimes [Option ID = 1686]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1688]
Correct Answer :-
Protection from slavery [Option ID = 1685]
Which of the following is an implied condition in case of a contract for sale by sample?
[Question ID = 499]
1. Goods shall not be free from any defect, rendering them unmerchantable, which would not be apparent on reasonable examination of the sample. [Option
ID = 1995]
2. Bulk not corresponding with the sample in quality. [Option ID = 1993]
3. Buyer shall not have a reasonable opportunity of comparing the bulk with the sample. [Option ID = 1994]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1996]
Correct Answer :-
None of these [Option ID = 1996]
Read the following statements about the offence of dacoity under the Indian Penal Code, 1860:
15)
16)
17)
18)
19)
1. Attempt to commit dacoity is punishable.
2. Assembling for the purpose of dacoity is punishable.
3. Preparation for dacoity is punishable.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 477]
1. Only 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1907]
2. Only 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1908]
3. Only 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1906]
4. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1905]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1905]
Which among the following is generally referred to as the subtle species of fraud? [Question ID = 498]
1. Undue Influence [Option ID = 1990]
2. Deliberate Mistake [Option ID = 1992]
3. Misrepresentation [Option ID = 1989]
4. Coercion [Option ID = 1991]
Correct Answer :-
Undue Influence [Option ID = 1990]
A member of the UN may be suspended from its membership [Question ID = 417]
1. by the Security Council [Option ID = 1666]
2. by the International Court of Justice upon the request made by the UN General Assembly [Option ID = 1665]
3. by the General Assembly upon the recommendations of the Security Council [Option ID = 1667]
4. by the UN Secretary General [Option ID = 1668]
Correct Answer :-
by the General Assembly upon the recommendations of the Security Council [Option ID = 1667]
According to the Information Technology Act, 2000, an electronic record is deemed to be received at a place where addressee
[Question ID = 439]
1. All these [Option ID = 1756]
2. has his server. [Option ID = 1753]
3. has his place of business. [Option ID = 1754]
4. retrieves the record. [Option ID = 1755]
Correct Answer :-
has his place of business. [Option ID = 1754]
According to Fuller, in order to evade failure, law must have the following characteristics:
1. Law must be publicly accessible
2. Law must be clear and unambiguous
3. Law must not command what cannot be done
4. Law must introduce frequent changes
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 481]
1. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1923]
2. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1921]
3. All are correct. [Option ID = 1924]
4. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1922]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1921]
Who among the following remarked that international law is positive morality? [Question ID = 486]
1. Lon Fuller [Option ID = 1941]
2. Jeremy Bentham [Option ID = 1942]
3. H.L.A. Hart [Option ID = 1943]
20)
21)
22)
23)
24)
25)
4. John Austin [Option ID = 1944]
Correct Answer :-
John Austin [Option ID = 1944]
Trade mark includes
[Question ID = 435]
1. Certification mark [Option ID = 1737]
2. Collective mark [Option ID = 1738]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1740]
4. Well known trade mark [Option ID = 1739]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1740]
Lakshmi and Ram married under the Special Marriage Act, 1954. Ram died in 2010 leaving behind Lakshmi, his mother, a son and a
daughter. The intestate and testamentary succession to his property would be governed by [Question ID = 454]
1. Intestate succession according to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and testamentary succession according to the Indian Succession Act, 1925. [Option ID
= 1816]
2. His ancestral property would devolve on his son and mother and separate property to his wife, son and daughter. [Option ID = 1815]
3. The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 [Option ID = 1813]
4. The Indian Succession Act, 1925 [Option ID = 1814]
Correct Answer :-
Intestate succession according to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and testamentary succession according to the Indian Succession Act, 1925. [Option
ID = 1816]
Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 is applicable in cases of cruelty by husband or relatives of the husband within
[Question ID = 476]
1. 2 years of marriage [Option ID = 1903]
2. 3 years of marriage [Option ID = 1902]
3. No time limit [Option ID = 1904]
4. 7 years of marriage [Option ID = 1901]
Correct Answer :-
No time limit [Option ID = 1904]
John Rawls? idea of basing justice on a contract has been challenged by [Question ID = 487]
1. Jeremy Bentham [Option ID = 1945]
2. Tom Bingham [Option ID = 1947]
3. Amartya Sen [Option ID = 1946]
4. Upendra Baxi [Option ID = 1948]
Correct Answer :-
Amartya Sen [Option ID = 1946]
Dinesh finds a gold ring on the road, not knowing to whom the ring belongs. Dinesh picks up the ring. Dinesh is guilty of which
offence under the Indian Penal Code, 1860? [Question ID = 471]
1. No offence [Option ID = 1884]
2. Theft [Option ID = 1882]
3. Criminal breach of trust [Option ID = 1883]
4. Dishonest Misappropriation [Option ID = 1881]
Correct Answer :-
No offence [Option ID = 1884]
First Geneva Convention of 1949 deals with
[Question ID = 424]
1. Amelioration of the Condition of the Wounded and Sick in Armed Forces in the Field. [Option ID = 1695]
2. Amelioration of the Condition of Wounded, Sick and Shipwrecked Members of Armed Forces at Sea. [Option ID = 1694]
FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
1)
2)
3)
4)
DU LLM
Topic:- DU_J18_LLM_Topic01
Which of the following statement is true regarding the social contract theory on origin of State?
1. State is a creation of agreement between people
2. Thomas Hobbes? social contract theory supported limited constitutional monarchy
3. According to Rousseau, the ruler was bound by the general will of the people
4. According to Locke, the sovereign was absolute and his word was the law.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 485]
1. All are correct. [Option ID = 1940]
2. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1938]
3. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
4. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1937]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
[Question ID = 500]
1. A stipulation in a contract of sale may be a condition or warranty. [Option ID = 1997]
2. A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
3. A breach of condition results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1998]
4. All these [Option ID = 2000]
Correct Answer :-
A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
Which of the following exceptions to strict liability were recognised by Justice Blackburn in Rylands v. Fletcher?
1. Vis major
2. Statutory authority
3. Plaintiff?s own default
4. Act of third party
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 463]
1. 3 and 4 [Option ID = 1849]
2. 1, 2 and 3 [Option ID = 1851]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1852]
4. 1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Which of the following Acts was amended by the Criminal Law Amendment Act, 2013?
[Question ID = 467]
1. None of these [Option ID = 1868]
2. The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 [Option ID = 1867]
3. The Information Technology Act, 2000 [Option ID = 1865]
4. The Immoral Trafficking (Prevention) Act, 1956 [Option ID = 1866]
Correct Answer :-
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 [Option ID = 1867]
Which of the following observations on fundamental rights was made by the Supreme Court in K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India?
1. There is no overlap between rights enumerated under Article 19 and Article 21 of the Constitution of India.
2. The constitutional values embodied under every Article of Part III of the Constitution of India animates the interpretation of the other.
3. Only Article 21 contains residue of fundamental rights that are not expressly stipulated under Article 19 of the Constitution of India.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 501]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 2004]
2. Only 3 is correct. [Option ID = 2001]
3. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2002]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 2003]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2002]
Which of the following is sensitive personal information according to rule 3 of the Information Technology (Reasonable Security
Practices and Procedures and Sensitive Data or Information) Rules, 2011?
1. Credit card details
2. Medical records
3. Mobile number
4. Sexual orientation
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 436]
1. 1, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1742]
2. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1743]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1741]
4. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1744]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1743]
Which of the following is/are mechanism/mechanisms of pacific settlement of disputes under the UN Charter?
[Question ID = 419]
1. Enquiry [Option ID = 1673]
2. Judicial Settlement [Option ID = 1675]
3. Arbitration [Option ID = 1674]
4. All these [Option ID = 1676]
Correct Answer :-
All these [Option ID = 1676]
Which of the following actions of host is allowed under the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations of 1961:
[Question ID = 425]
1. The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata. [Option ID
= 1697]
2. The host state can any time search the premises of the diplomatic staff. [Option ID = 1699]
3. The host state can at any time withdraw the immunities granted to diplomats. [Option ID = 1700]
4. The host state can at any time confiscate the diplomatic bag. [Option ID = 1698]
Correct Answer :-
The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata.
[Option ID = 1697]
Which of the following provisions of the UN Charter is correctly matched:
10)
11)
12)
13)
14)
[Question ID = 428]
1. Article 2 (5) Principle of Settlement of Disputes by Peaceful Means [Option ID = 1712]
2. Article 2 (6) Principle of Non-Intervention [Option ID = 1710]
3. Article 2 (4) Prohibition on Use of Force [Option ID = 1709]
4. Article 2 (2) Principle of Sovereign Equality of the UN Members [Option ID = 1711]
Correct Answer :-
Article 2 (4) Prohibition on Use of Force [Option ID = 1709]
Which of the following are ?Inventions Not Patentable? under the Patent Act, 1970?
[Question ID = 431]
1. Invention relating to atomic Energy [Option ID = 1723]
2. A method of agriculture or horticulture [Option ID = 1721]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1724]
4. Topography of integrated circuits [Option ID = 1722]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1724]
Which of the following are conditions of a valid Hindu marriage in accordance with section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
1. Prior consent of the parties.
2. Neither Party must have a spouse living at the time of the marriage.
3. The bridegroom must have completed the age of 21 years and the bride, the age of 18 years at the time of the marriage.
4. The parties are not sagotras of each other.
5. The parties are not sapindas of each other.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 452]
1. Only 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1808]
2. Only 1, 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1805]
3. Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1807]
4. Only 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1806]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1806]
Which of the following is an example of obligatio erga omnes of states under International Law?
[Question ID = 422]
1. Protection from Wars [Option ID = 1687]
2. Protection from slavery [Option ID = 1685]
3. Protection from Political Crimes [Option ID = 1686]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1688]
Correct Answer :-
Protection from slavery [Option ID = 1685]
Which of the following is an implied condition in case of a contract for sale by sample?
[Question ID = 499]
1. Goods shall not be free from any defect, rendering them unmerchantable, which would not be apparent on reasonable examination of the sample. [Option
ID = 1995]
2. Bulk not corresponding with the sample in quality. [Option ID = 1993]
3. Buyer shall not have a reasonable opportunity of comparing the bulk with the sample. [Option ID = 1994]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1996]
Correct Answer :-
None of these [Option ID = 1996]
Read the following statements about the offence of dacoity under the Indian Penal Code, 1860:
15)
16)
17)
18)
19)
1. Attempt to commit dacoity is punishable.
2. Assembling for the purpose of dacoity is punishable.
3. Preparation for dacoity is punishable.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 477]
1. Only 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1907]
2. Only 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1908]
3. Only 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1906]
4. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1905]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1905]
Which among the following is generally referred to as the subtle species of fraud? [Question ID = 498]
1. Undue Influence [Option ID = 1990]
2. Deliberate Mistake [Option ID = 1992]
3. Misrepresentation [Option ID = 1989]
4. Coercion [Option ID = 1991]
Correct Answer :-
Undue Influence [Option ID = 1990]
A member of the UN may be suspended from its membership [Question ID = 417]
1. by the Security Council [Option ID = 1666]
2. by the International Court of Justice upon the request made by the UN General Assembly [Option ID = 1665]
3. by the General Assembly upon the recommendations of the Security Council [Option ID = 1667]
4. by the UN Secretary General [Option ID = 1668]
Correct Answer :-
by the General Assembly upon the recommendations of the Security Council [Option ID = 1667]
According to the Information Technology Act, 2000, an electronic record is deemed to be received at a place where addressee
[Question ID = 439]
1. All these [Option ID = 1756]
2. has his server. [Option ID = 1753]
3. has his place of business. [Option ID = 1754]
4. retrieves the record. [Option ID = 1755]
Correct Answer :-
has his place of business. [Option ID = 1754]
According to Fuller, in order to evade failure, law must have the following characteristics:
1. Law must be publicly accessible
2. Law must be clear and unambiguous
3. Law must not command what cannot be done
4. Law must introduce frequent changes
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 481]
1. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1923]
2. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1921]
3. All are correct. [Option ID = 1924]
4. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1922]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1921]
Who among the following remarked that international law is positive morality? [Question ID = 486]
1. Lon Fuller [Option ID = 1941]
2. Jeremy Bentham [Option ID = 1942]
3. H.L.A. Hart [Option ID = 1943]
20)
21)
22)
23)
24)
25)
4. John Austin [Option ID = 1944]
Correct Answer :-
John Austin [Option ID = 1944]
Trade mark includes
[Question ID = 435]
1. Certification mark [Option ID = 1737]
2. Collective mark [Option ID = 1738]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1740]
4. Well known trade mark [Option ID = 1739]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1740]
Lakshmi and Ram married under the Special Marriage Act, 1954. Ram died in 2010 leaving behind Lakshmi, his mother, a son and a
daughter. The intestate and testamentary succession to his property would be governed by [Question ID = 454]
1. Intestate succession according to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and testamentary succession according to the Indian Succession Act, 1925. [Option ID
= 1816]
2. His ancestral property would devolve on his son and mother and separate property to his wife, son and daughter. [Option ID = 1815]
3. The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 [Option ID = 1813]
4. The Indian Succession Act, 1925 [Option ID = 1814]
Correct Answer :-
Intestate succession according to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and testamentary succession according to the Indian Succession Act, 1925. [Option
ID = 1816]
Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 is applicable in cases of cruelty by husband or relatives of the husband within
[Question ID = 476]
1. 2 years of marriage [Option ID = 1903]
2. 3 years of marriage [Option ID = 1902]
3. No time limit [Option ID = 1904]
4. 7 years of marriage [Option ID = 1901]
Correct Answer :-
No time limit [Option ID = 1904]
John Rawls? idea of basing justice on a contract has been challenged by [Question ID = 487]
1. Jeremy Bentham [Option ID = 1945]
2. Tom Bingham [Option ID = 1947]
3. Amartya Sen [Option ID = 1946]
4. Upendra Baxi [Option ID = 1948]
Correct Answer :-
Amartya Sen [Option ID = 1946]
Dinesh finds a gold ring on the road, not knowing to whom the ring belongs. Dinesh picks up the ring. Dinesh is guilty of which
offence under the Indian Penal Code, 1860? [Question ID = 471]
1. No offence [Option ID = 1884]
2. Theft [Option ID = 1882]
3. Criminal breach of trust [Option ID = 1883]
4. Dishonest Misappropriation [Option ID = 1881]
Correct Answer :-
No offence [Option ID = 1884]
First Geneva Convention of 1949 deals with
[Question ID = 424]
1. Amelioration of the Condition of the Wounded and Sick in Armed Forces in the Field. [Option ID = 1695]
2. Amelioration of the Condition of Wounded, Sick and Shipwrecked Members of Armed Forces at Sea. [Option ID = 1694]
26)
27)
28)
29)
30)
31)
3. Treatment of Prisoners of War. [Option ID = 1693]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1696]
Correct Answer :-
Amelioration of the Condition of the Wounded and Sick in Armed Forces in the Field. [Option ID = 1695]
Shamim Ara claimed her dower after the death of her husband from her husband?s property. She is a/an [Question ID = 453]
1. preferential creditor to all other creditors subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1809]
2. ordinary unsecured creditor, having no priority over other unsecured creditors, subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1812]
3. ordinary unsecured creditor but having priority over other unsecured creditors [Option ID = 1811]
4. secured creditor subject to her right of retention. [Option ID = 1810]
Correct Answer :-
ordinary unsecured creditor, having no priority over other unsecured creditors, subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1812]
To cede a part of the Indian Territory in favour of any foreign country, which one of the following procedural requirement must be
complied with? [Question ID = 503]
1. A law made by Parliament to the effect would be relevant and sufficient. [Option ID = 2012]
2. A law must be passed in compliance with Article 3 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2009]
3. A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed in compliance with Article 368 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2010]
4. A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed to amend the Constitution as per Article 368 and followed up by a law passed relatable to Article 3 of the
Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2011]
Correct Answer :-
A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed in compliance with Article 368 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2010]
Who defined defamation as ?publication of a statement which tends to lower a person in the estimation of right thinking members of
society generally, or which tends to make them shun or avoid that person?. [Question ID = 461]
1. Winfield [Option ID = 1841]
2. Glanville Williams [Option ID = 1844]
3. Salmond [Option ID = 1842]
4. Pollock [Option ID = 1843]
Correct Answer :-
Winfield [Option ID = 1841]
Who among the following can file a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986?
[Question ID = 457]
1. Any recognised consumer association [Option ID = 1826]
2. The Central Government or any State Government [Option ID = 1827]
3. A consumer [Option ID = 1825]
4. All of these [Option ID = 1828]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1828]
In which of the following cases has the Supreme Court made it mandatory for candidates contesting elections to the legislatures and
their spouses to declare their source of income at the time of filing nominations?
[Question ID = 478]
1. People?s Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India [Option ID = 1912]
2. Jan Chaukidar v. Union of India [Option ID = 1910]
3. Association for Democratic Reforms v. Union of India [Option ID = 1911]
4. Lok Prahari v. Union of India [Option ID = 1909]
Correct Answer :-
Lok Prahari v. Union of India [Option ID = 1909]
In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that the public authority providing services or goods as per the definition
under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 must be held liable to pay adequate compensation to the consumer for harassment or mental
agony or oppression caused to him for capricious exercise of power and the money could then be recovered from the erring public
officials?
FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
1)
2)
3)
4)
DU LLM
Topic:- DU_J18_LLM_Topic01
Which of the following statement is true regarding the social contract theory on origin of State?
1. State is a creation of agreement between people
2. Thomas Hobbes? social contract theory supported limited constitutional monarchy
3. According to Rousseau, the ruler was bound by the general will of the people
4. According to Locke, the sovereign was absolute and his word was the law.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 485]
1. All are correct. [Option ID = 1940]
2. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1938]
3. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
4. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1937]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
[Question ID = 500]
1. A stipulation in a contract of sale may be a condition or warranty. [Option ID = 1997]
2. A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
3. A breach of condition results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1998]
4. All these [Option ID = 2000]
Correct Answer :-
A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
Which of the following exceptions to strict liability were recognised by Justice Blackburn in Rylands v. Fletcher?
1. Vis major
2. Statutory authority
3. Plaintiff?s own default
4. Act of third party
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 463]
1. 3 and 4 [Option ID = 1849]
2. 1, 2 and 3 [Option ID = 1851]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1852]
4. 1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Which of the following Acts was amended by the Criminal Law Amendment Act, 2013?
[Question ID = 467]
1. None of these [Option ID = 1868]
2. The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 [Option ID = 1867]
3. The Information Technology Act, 2000 [Option ID = 1865]
4. The Immoral Trafficking (Prevention) Act, 1956 [Option ID = 1866]
Correct Answer :-
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 [Option ID = 1867]
Which of the following observations on fundamental rights was made by the Supreme Court in K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India?
1. There is no overlap between rights enumerated under Article 19 and Article 21 of the Constitution of India.
2. The constitutional values embodied under every Article of Part III of the Constitution of India animates the interpretation of the other.
3. Only Article 21 contains residue of fundamental rights that are not expressly stipulated under Article 19 of the Constitution of India.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 501]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 2004]
2. Only 3 is correct. [Option ID = 2001]
3. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2002]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 2003]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2002]
Which of the following is sensitive personal information according to rule 3 of the Information Technology (Reasonable Security
Practices and Procedures and Sensitive Data or Information) Rules, 2011?
1. Credit card details
2. Medical records
3. Mobile number
4. Sexual orientation
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 436]
1. 1, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1742]
2. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1743]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1741]
4. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1744]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1743]
Which of the following is/are mechanism/mechanisms of pacific settlement of disputes under the UN Charter?
[Question ID = 419]
1. Enquiry [Option ID = 1673]
2. Judicial Settlement [Option ID = 1675]
3. Arbitration [Option ID = 1674]
4. All these [Option ID = 1676]
Correct Answer :-
All these [Option ID = 1676]
Which of the following actions of host is allowed under the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations of 1961:
[Question ID = 425]
1. The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata. [Option ID
= 1697]
2. The host state can any time search the premises of the diplomatic staff. [Option ID = 1699]
3. The host state can at any time withdraw the immunities granted to diplomats. [Option ID = 1700]
4. The host state can at any time confiscate the diplomatic bag. [Option ID = 1698]
Correct Answer :-
The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata.
[Option ID = 1697]
Which of the following provisions of the UN Charter is correctly matched:
10)
11)
12)
13)
14)
[Question ID = 428]
1. Article 2 (5) Principle of Settlement of Disputes by Peaceful Means [Option ID = 1712]
2. Article 2 (6) Principle of Non-Intervention [Option ID = 1710]
3. Article 2 (4) Prohibition on Use of Force [Option ID = 1709]
4. Article 2 (2) Principle of Sovereign Equality of the UN Members [Option ID = 1711]
Correct Answer :-
Article 2 (4) Prohibition on Use of Force [Option ID = 1709]
Which of the following are ?Inventions Not Patentable? under the Patent Act, 1970?
[Question ID = 431]
1. Invention relating to atomic Energy [Option ID = 1723]
2. A method of agriculture or horticulture [Option ID = 1721]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1724]
4. Topography of integrated circuits [Option ID = 1722]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1724]
Which of the following are conditions of a valid Hindu marriage in accordance with section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
1. Prior consent of the parties.
2. Neither Party must have a spouse living at the time of the marriage.
3. The bridegroom must have completed the age of 21 years and the bride, the age of 18 years at the time of the marriage.
4. The parties are not sagotras of each other.
5. The parties are not sapindas of each other.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 452]
1. Only 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1808]
2. Only 1, 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1805]
3. Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1807]
4. Only 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1806]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1806]
Which of the following is an example of obligatio erga omnes of states under International Law?
[Question ID = 422]
1. Protection from Wars [Option ID = 1687]
2. Protection from slavery [Option ID = 1685]
3. Protection from Political Crimes [Option ID = 1686]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1688]
Correct Answer :-
Protection from slavery [Option ID = 1685]
Which of the following is an implied condition in case of a contract for sale by sample?
[Question ID = 499]
1. Goods shall not be free from any defect, rendering them unmerchantable, which would not be apparent on reasonable examination of the sample. [Option
ID = 1995]
2. Bulk not corresponding with the sample in quality. [Option ID = 1993]
3. Buyer shall not have a reasonable opportunity of comparing the bulk with the sample. [Option ID = 1994]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1996]
Correct Answer :-
None of these [Option ID = 1996]
Read the following statements about the offence of dacoity under the Indian Penal Code, 1860:
15)
16)
17)
18)
19)
1. Attempt to commit dacoity is punishable.
2. Assembling for the purpose of dacoity is punishable.
3. Preparation for dacoity is punishable.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 477]
1. Only 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1907]
2. Only 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1908]
3. Only 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1906]
4. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1905]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1905]
Which among the following is generally referred to as the subtle species of fraud? [Question ID = 498]
1. Undue Influence [Option ID = 1990]
2. Deliberate Mistake [Option ID = 1992]
3. Misrepresentation [Option ID = 1989]
4. Coercion [Option ID = 1991]
Correct Answer :-
Undue Influence [Option ID = 1990]
A member of the UN may be suspended from its membership [Question ID = 417]
1. by the Security Council [Option ID = 1666]
2. by the International Court of Justice upon the request made by the UN General Assembly [Option ID = 1665]
3. by the General Assembly upon the recommendations of the Security Council [Option ID = 1667]
4. by the UN Secretary General [Option ID = 1668]
Correct Answer :-
by the General Assembly upon the recommendations of the Security Council [Option ID = 1667]
According to the Information Technology Act, 2000, an electronic record is deemed to be received at a place where addressee
[Question ID = 439]
1. All these [Option ID = 1756]
2. has his server. [Option ID = 1753]
3. has his place of business. [Option ID = 1754]
4. retrieves the record. [Option ID = 1755]
Correct Answer :-
has his place of business. [Option ID = 1754]
According to Fuller, in order to evade failure, law must have the following characteristics:
1. Law must be publicly accessible
2. Law must be clear and unambiguous
3. Law must not command what cannot be done
4. Law must introduce frequent changes
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 481]
1. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1923]
2. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1921]
3. All are correct. [Option ID = 1924]
4. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1922]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1921]
Who among the following remarked that international law is positive morality? [Question ID = 486]
1. Lon Fuller [Option ID = 1941]
2. Jeremy Bentham [Option ID = 1942]
3. H.L.A. Hart [Option ID = 1943]
20)
21)
22)
23)
24)
25)
4. John Austin [Option ID = 1944]
Correct Answer :-
John Austin [Option ID = 1944]
Trade mark includes
[Question ID = 435]
1. Certification mark [Option ID = 1737]
2. Collective mark [Option ID = 1738]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1740]
4. Well known trade mark [Option ID = 1739]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1740]
Lakshmi and Ram married under the Special Marriage Act, 1954. Ram died in 2010 leaving behind Lakshmi, his mother, a son and a
daughter. The intestate and testamentary succession to his property would be governed by [Question ID = 454]
1. Intestate succession according to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and testamentary succession according to the Indian Succession Act, 1925. [Option ID
= 1816]
2. His ancestral property would devolve on his son and mother and separate property to his wife, son and daughter. [Option ID = 1815]
3. The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 [Option ID = 1813]
4. The Indian Succession Act, 1925 [Option ID = 1814]
Correct Answer :-
Intestate succession according to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and testamentary succession according to the Indian Succession Act, 1925. [Option
ID = 1816]
Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 is applicable in cases of cruelty by husband or relatives of the husband within
[Question ID = 476]
1. 2 years of marriage [Option ID = 1903]
2. 3 years of marriage [Option ID = 1902]
3. No time limit [Option ID = 1904]
4. 7 years of marriage [Option ID = 1901]
Correct Answer :-
No time limit [Option ID = 1904]
John Rawls? idea of basing justice on a contract has been challenged by [Question ID = 487]
1. Jeremy Bentham [Option ID = 1945]
2. Tom Bingham [Option ID = 1947]
3. Amartya Sen [Option ID = 1946]
4. Upendra Baxi [Option ID = 1948]
Correct Answer :-
Amartya Sen [Option ID = 1946]
Dinesh finds a gold ring on the road, not knowing to whom the ring belongs. Dinesh picks up the ring. Dinesh is guilty of which
offence under the Indian Penal Code, 1860? [Question ID = 471]
1. No offence [Option ID = 1884]
2. Theft [Option ID = 1882]
3. Criminal breach of trust [Option ID = 1883]
4. Dishonest Misappropriation [Option ID = 1881]
Correct Answer :-
No offence [Option ID = 1884]
First Geneva Convention of 1949 deals with
[Question ID = 424]
1. Amelioration of the Condition of the Wounded and Sick in Armed Forces in the Field. [Option ID = 1695]
2. Amelioration of the Condition of Wounded, Sick and Shipwrecked Members of Armed Forces at Sea. [Option ID = 1694]
26)
27)
28)
29)
30)
31)
3. Treatment of Prisoners of War. [Option ID = 1693]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1696]
Correct Answer :-
Amelioration of the Condition of the Wounded and Sick in Armed Forces in the Field. [Option ID = 1695]
Shamim Ara claimed her dower after the death of her husband from her husband?s property. She is a/an [Question ID = 453]
1. preferential creditor to all other creditors subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1809]
2. ordinary unsecured creditor, having no priority over other unsecured creditors, subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1812]
3. ordinary unsecured creditor but having priority over other unsecured creditors [Option ID = 1811]
4. secured creditor subject to her right of retention. [Option ID = 1810]
Correct Answer :-
ordinary unsecured creditor, having no priority over other unsecured creditors, subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1812]
To cede a part of the Indian Territory in favour of any foreign country, which one of the following procedural requirement must be
complied with? [Question ID = 503]
1. A law made by Parliament to the effect would be relevant and sufficient. [Option ID = 2012]
2. A law must be passed in compliance with Article 3 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2009]
3. A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed in compliance with Article 368 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2010]
4. A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed to amend the Constitution as per Article 368 and followed up by a law passed relatable to Article 3 of the
Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2011]
Correct Answer :-
A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed in compliance with Article 368 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2010]
Who defined defamation as ?publication of a statement which tends to lower a person in the estimation of right thinking members of
society generally, or which tends to make them shun or avoid that person?. [Question ID = 461]
1. Winfield [Option ID = 1841]
2. Glanville Williams [Option ID = 1844]
3. Salmond [Option ID = 1842]
4. Pollock [Option ID = 1843]
Correct Answer :-
Winfield [Option ID = 1841]
Who among the following can file a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986?
[Question ID = 457]
1. Any recognised consumer association [Option ID = 1826]
2. The Central Government or any State Government [Option ID = 1827]
3. A consumer [Option ID = 1825]
4. All of these [Option ID = 1828]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1828]
In which of the following cases has the Supreme Court made it mandatory for candidates contesting elections to the legislatures and
their spouses to declare their source of income at the time of filing nominations?
[Question ID = 478]
1. People?s Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India [Option ID = 1912]
2. Jan Chaukidar v. Union of India [Option ID = 1910]
3. Association for Democratic Reforms v. Union of India [Option ID = 1911]
4. Lok Prahari v. Union of India [Option ID = 1909]
Correct Answer :-
Lok Prahari v. Union of India [Option ID = 1909]
In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that the public authority providing services or goods as per the definition
under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 must be held liable to pay adequate compensation to the consumer for harassment or mental
agony or oppression caused to him for capricious exercise of power and the money could then be recovered from the erring public
officials?
32)
33)
34)
35)
36)
[Question ID = 465]
1. State of Gujarat v. Memom Mahomed [Option ID = 1860]
2. Shyam Sunder v. State of Rajasthan [Option ID = 1858]
3. Indian Medical Association v. V.P. Shantha [Option ID = 1857]
4. Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta [Option ID = 1859]
Correct Answer :-
Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta [Option ID = 1859]
In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that ?An intermediary shall be liable for a third party information hosted by
him if upon receiving actual knowledge from the court order or on being notified by the appropriate government, he fails to expeditiously
remove that material??
[Question ID = 438]
1. My Space Inc. v. Super Cassettes [Option ID = 1750]
2. Google India Pvt. Ltd. v. M/s Visaka Industries [Option ID = 1751]
3. Shreya Singhal v. Union of India [Option ID = 1749]
4. Avinash Bajaj v. State [Option ID = 1752]
Correct Answer :-
Shreya Singhal v. Union of India [Option ID = 1749]
In which of the following case, Lord Wilberforce opined that ?It is necessary to consider three elements inherent in any claim for
nervous shock: the class of persons whose claim should be recognized, the proximity of such persons to the incident and the means
adopted by which shock is caused??
[Question ID = 464]
1. Page v. Smith [Option ID = 1855]
2. Hinz v. Berry [Option ID = 1854]
3. Bourhill v. Young [Option ID = 1856]
4. McLoughlin v. O?Brian [Option ID = 1853]
Correct Answer :-
McLoughlin v. O?Brian [Option ID = 1853]
In which of the following offences minimum five offenders are required?
1. Affray
2. Robbery
3. Dacoity
4. Rioting
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 475]
1. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1897]
2. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1898]
3. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1900]
4. 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1899]
Correct Answer :-
3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1899]
A foreign company intends to merge with an Indian Company. As per the relevant provision in the Companies (Compromises,
Arrangements and Amalgamation) Rules, 2016, it needs to obtain prior approval of [Question ID = 442]
1. Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs. [Option ID = 1766]
2. Securities and Exchange Board of India. [Option ID = 1765]
3. Reserve Bank of India. [Option ID = 1767]
4. Department of Economic Affairs. [Option ID = 1768]
Correct Answer :-
Reserve Bank of India. [Option ID = 1767]
Who coined the term ?Compensatory Discrimination?? [Question ID = 512]
1. Prof. P.N. Singh [Option ID = 2047]
2. Prof. Marc Galanter [Option ID = 2046]
3. Prof. Upendra Baxi [Option ID = 2048]
FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
1)
2)
3)
4)
DU LLM
Topic:- DU_J18_LLM_Topic01
Which of the following statement is true regarding the social contract theory on origin of State?
1. State is a creation of agreement between people
2. Thomas Hobbes? social contract theory supported limited constitutional monarchy
3. According to Rousseau, the ruler was bound by the general will of the people
4. According to Locke, the sovereign was absolute and his word was the law.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 485]
1. All are correct. [Option ID = 1940]
2. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1938]
3. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
4. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1937]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
[Question ID = 500]
1. A stipulation in a contract of sale may be a condition or warranty. [Option ID = 1997]
2. A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
3. A breach of condition results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1998]
4. All these [Option ID = 2000]
Correct Answer :-
A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
Which of the following exceptions to strict liability were recognised by Justice Blackburn in Rylands v. Fletcher?
1. Vis major
2. Statutory authority
3. Plaintiff?s own default
4. Act of third party
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 463]
1. 3 and 4 [Option ID = 1849]
2. 1, 2 and 3 [Option ID = 1851]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1852]
4. 1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Which of the following Acts was amended by the Criminal Law Amendment Act, 2013?
[Question ID = 467]
1. None of these [Option ID = 1868]
2. The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 [Option ID = 1867]
3. The Information Technology Act, 2000 [Option ID = 1865]
4. The Immoral Trafficking (Prevention) Act, 1956 [Option ID = 1866]
Correct Answer :-
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 [Option ID = 1867]
Which of the following observations on fundamental rights was made by the Supreme Court in K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India?
1. There is no overlap between rights enumerated under Article 19 and Article 21 of the Constitution of India.
2. The constitutional values embodied under every Article of Part III of the Constitution of India animates the interpretation of the other.
3. Only Article 21 contains residue of fundamental rights that are not expressly stipulated under Article 19 of the Constitution of India.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 501]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 2004]
2. Only 3 is correct. [Option ID = 2001]
3. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2002]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 2003]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2002]
Which of the following is sensitive personal information according to rule 3 of the Information Technology (Reasonable Security
Practices and Procedures and Sensitive Data or Information) Rules, 2011?
1. Credit card details
2. Medical records
3. Mobile number
4. Sexual orientation
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 436]
1. 1, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1742]
2. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1743]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1741]
4. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1744]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1743]
Which of the following is/are mechanism/mechanisms of pacific settlement of disputes under the UN Charter?
[Question ID = 419]
1. Enquiry [Option ID = 1673]
2. Judicial Settlement [Option ID = 1675]
3. Arbitration [Option ID = 1674]
4. All these [Option ID = 1676]
Correct Answer :-
All these [Option ID = 1676]
Which of the following actions of host is allowed under the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations of 1961:
[Question ID = 425]
1. The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata. [Option ID
= 1697]
2. The host state can any time search the premises of the diplomatic staff. [Option ID = 1699]
3. The host state can at any time withdraw the immunities granted to diplomats. [Option ID = 1700]
4. The host state can at any time confiscate the diplomatic bag. [Option ID = 1698]
Correct Answer :-
The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata.
[Option ID = 1697]
Which of the following provisions of the UN Charter is correctly matched:
10)
11)
12)
13)
14)
[Question ID = 428]
1. Article 2 (5) Principle of Settlement of Disputes by Peaceful Means [Option ID = 1712]
2. Article 2 (6) Principle of Non-Intervention [Option ID = 1710]
3. Article 2 (4) Prohibition on Use of Force [Option ID = 1709]
4. Article 2 (2) Principle of Sovereign Equality of the UN Members [Option ID = 1711]
Correct Answer :-
Article 2 (4) Prohibition on Use of Force [Option ID = 1709]
Which of the following are ?Inventions Not Patentable? under the Patent Act, 1970?
[Question ID = 431]
1. Invention relating to atomic Energy [Option ID = 1723]
2. A method of agriculture or horticulture [Option ID = 1721]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1724]
4. Topography of integrated circuits [Option ID = 1722]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1724]
Which of the following are conditions of a valid Hindu marriage in accordance with section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
1. Prior consent of the parties.
2. Neither Party must have a spouse living at the time of the marriage.
3. The bridegroom must have completed the age of 21 years and the bride, the age of 18 years at the time of the marriage.
4. The parties are not sagotras of each other.
5. The parties are not sapindas of each other.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 452]
1. Only 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1808]
2. Only 1, 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1805]
3. Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1807]
4. Only 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1806]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1806]
Which of the following is an example of obligatio erga omnes of states under International Law?
[Question ID = 422]
1. Protection from Wars [Option ID = 1687]
2. Protection from slavery [Option ID = 1685]
3. Protection from Political Crimes [Option ID = 1686]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1688]
Correct Answer :-
Protection from slavery [Option ID = 1685]
Which of the following is an implied condition in case of a contract for sale by sample?
[Question ID = 499]
1. Goods shall not be free from any defect, rendering them unmerchantable, which would not be apparent on reasonable examination of the sample. [Option
ID = 1995]
2. Bulk not corresponding with the sample in quality. [Option ID = 1993]
3. Buyer shall not have a reasonable opportunity of comparing the bulk with the sample. [Option ID = 1994]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1996]
Correct Answer :-
None of these [Option ID = 1996]
Read the following statements about the offence of dacoity under the Indian Penal Code, 1860:
15)
16)
17)
18)
19)
1. Attempt to commit dacoity is punishable.
2. Assembling for the purpose of dacoity is punishable.
3. Preparation for dacoity is punishable.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 477]
1. Only 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1907]
2. Only 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1908]
3. Only 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1906]
4. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1905]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1905]
Which among the following is generally referred to as the subtle species of fraud? [Question ID = 498]
1. Undue Influence [Option ID = 1990]
2. Deliberate Mistake [Option ID = 1992]
3. Misrepresentation [Option ID = 1989]
4. Coercion [Option ID = 1991]
Correct Answer :-
Undue Influence [Option ID = 1990]
A member of the UN may be suspended from its membership [Question ID = 417]
1. by the Security Council [Option ID = 1666]
2. by the International Court of Justice upon the request made by the UN General Assembly [Option ID = 1665]
3. by the General Assembly upon the recommendations of the Security Council [Option ID = 1667]
4. by the UN Secretary General [Option ID = 1668]
Correct Answer :-
by the General Assembly upon the recommendations of the Security Council [Option ID = 1667]
According to the Information Technology Act, 2000, an electronic record is deemed to be received at a place where addressee
[Question ID = 439]
1. All these [Option ID = 1756]
2. has his server. [Option ID = 1753]
3. has his place of business. [Option ID = 1754]
4. retrieves the record. [Option ID = 1755]
Correct Answer :-
has his place of business. [Option ID = 1754]
According to Fuller, in order to evade failure, law must have the following characteristics:
1. Law must be publicly accessible
2. Law must be clear and unambiguous
3. Law must not command what cannot be done
4. Law must introduce frequent changes
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 481]
1. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1923]
2. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1921]
3. All are correct. [Option ID = 1924]
4. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1922]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1921]
Who among the following remarked that international law is positive morality? [Question ID = 486]
1. Lon Fuller [Option ID = 1941]
2. Jeremy Bentham [Option ID = 1942]
3. H.L.A. Hart [Option ID = 1943]
20)
21)
22)
23)
24)
25)
4. John Austin [Option ID = 1944]
Correct Answer :-
John Austin [Option ID = 1944]
Trade mark includes
[Question ID = 435]
1. Certification mark [Option ID = 1737]
2. Collective mark [Option ID = 1738]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1740]
4. Well known trade mark [Option ID = 1739]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1740]
Lakshmi and Ram married under the Special Marriage Act, 1954. Ram died in 2010 leaving behind Lakshmi, his mother, a son and a
daughter. The intestate and testamentary succession to his property would be governed by [Question ID = 454]
1. Intestate succession according to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and testamentary succession according to the Indian Succession Act, 1925. [Option ID
= 1816]
2. His ancestral property would devolve on his son and mother and separate property to his wife, son and daughter. [Option ID = 1815]
3. The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 [Option ID = 1813]
4. The Indian Succession Act, 1925 [Option ID = 1814]
Correct Answer :-
Intestate succession according to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and testamentary succession according to the Indian Succession Act, 1925. [Option
ID = 1816]
Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 is applicable in cases of cruelty by husband or relatives of the husband within
[Question ID = 476]
1. 2 years of marriage [Option ID = 1903]
2. 3 years of marriage [Option ID = 1902]
3. No time limit [Option ID = 1904]
4. 7 years of marriage [Option ID = 1901]
Correct Answer :-
No time limit [Option ID = 1904]
John Rawls? idea of basing justice on a contract has been challenged by [Question ID = 487]
1. Jeremy Bentham [Option ID = 1945]
2. Tom Bingham [Option ID = 1947]
3. Amartya Sen [Option ID = 1946]
4. Upendra Baxi [Option ID = 1948]
Correct Answer :-
Amartya Sen [Option ID = 1946]
Dinesh finds a gold ring on the road, not knowing to whom the ring belongs. Dinesh picks up the ring. Dinesh is guilty of which
offence under the Indian Penal Code, 1860? [Question ID = 471]
1. No offence [Option ID = 1884]
2. Theft [Option ID = 1882]
3. Criminal breach of trust [Option ID = 1883]
4. Dishonest Misappropriation [Option ID = 1881]
Correct Answer :-
No offence [Option ID = 1884]
First Geneva Convention of 1949 deals with
[Question ID = 424]
1. Amelioration of the Condition of the Wounded and Sick in Armed Forces in the Field. [Option ID = 1695]
2. Amelioration of the Condition of Wounded, Sick and Shipwrecked Members of Armed Forces at Sea. [Option ID = 1694]
26)
27)
28)
29)
30)
31)
3. Treatment of Prisoners of War. [Option ID = 1693]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1696]
Correct Answer :-
Amelioration of the Condition of the Wounded and Sick in Armed Forces in the Field. [Option ID = 1695]
Shamim Ara claimed her dower after the death of her husband from her husband?s property. She is a/an [Question ID = 453]
1. preferential creditor to all other creditors subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1809]
2. ordinary unsecured creditor, having no priority over other unsecured creditors, subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1812]
3. ordinary unsecured creditor but having priority over other unsecured creditors [Option ID = 1811]
4. secured creditor subject to her right of retention. [Option ID = 1810]
Correct Answer :-
ordinary unsecured creditor, having no priority over other unsecured creditors, subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1812]
To cede a part of the Indian Territory in favour of any foreign country, which one of the following procedural requirement must be
complied with? [Question ID = 503]
1. A law made by Parliament to the effect would be relevant and sufficient. [Option ID = 2012]
2. A law must be passed in compliance with Article 3 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2009]
3. A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed in compliance with Article 368 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2010]
4. A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed to amend the Constitution as per Article 368 and followed up by a law passed relatable to Article 3 of the
Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2011]
Correct Answer :-
A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed in compliance with Article 368 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2010]
Who defined defamation as ?publication of a statement which tends to lower a person in the estimation of right thinking members of
society generally, or which tends to make them shun or avoid that person?. [Question ID = 461]
1. Winfield [Option ID = 1841]
2. Glanville Williams [Option ID = 1844]
3. Salmond [Option ID = 1842]
4. Pollock [Option ID = 1843]
Correct Answer :-
Winfield [Option ID = 1841]
Who among the following can file a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986?
[Question ID = 457]
1. Any recognised consumer association [Option ID = 1826]
2. The Central Government or any State Government [Option ID = 1827]
3. A consumer [Option ID = 1825]
4. All of these [Option ID = 1828]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1828]
In which of the following cases has the Supreme Court made it mandatory for candidates contesting elections to the legislatures and
their spouses to declare their source of income at the time of filing nominations?
[Question ID = 478]
1. People?s Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India [Option ID = 1912]
2. Jan Chaukidar v. Union of India [Option ID = 1910]
3. Association for Democratic Reforms v. Union of India [Option ID = 1911]
4. Lok Prahari v. Union of India [Option ID = 1909]
Correct Answer :-
Lok Prahari v. Union of India [Option ID = 1909]
In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that the public authority providing services or goods as per the definition
under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 must be held liable to pay adequate compensation to the consumer for harassment or mental
agony or oppression caused to him for capricious exercise of power and the money could then be recovered from the erring public
officials?
32)
33)
34)
35)
36)
[Question ID = 465]
1. State of Gujarat v. Memom Mahomed [Option ID = 1860]
2. Shyam Sunder v. State of Rajasthan [Option ID = 1858]
3. Indian Medical Association v. V.P. Shantha [Option ID = 1857]
4. Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta [Option ID = 1859]
Correct Answer :-
Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta [Option ID = 1859]
In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that ?An intermediary shall be liable for a third party information hosted by
him if upon receiving actual knowledge from the court order or on being notified by the appropriate government, he fails to expeditiously
remove that material??
[Question ID = 438]
1. My Space Inc. v. Super Cassettes [Option ID = 1750]
2. Google India Pvt. Ltd. v. M/s Visaka Industries [Option ID = 1751]
3. Shreya Singhal v. Union of India [Option ID = 1749]
4. Avinash Bajaj v. State [Option ID = 1752]
Correct Answer :-
Shreya Singhal v. Union of India [Option ID = 1749]
In which of the following case, Lord Wilberforce opined that ?It is necessary to consider three elements inherent in any claim for
nervous shock: the class of persons whose claim should be recognized, the proximity of such persons to the incident and the means
adopted by which shock is caused??
[Question ID = 464]
1. Page v. Smith [Option ID = 1855]
2. Hinz v. Berry [Option ID = 1854]
3. Bourhill v. Young [Option ID = 1856]
4. McLoughlin v. O?Brian [Option ID = 1853]
Correct Answer :-
McLoughlin v. O?Brian [Option ID = 1853]
In which of the following offences minimum five offenders are required?
1. Affray
2. Robbery
3. Dacoity
4. Rioting
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 475]
1. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1897]
2. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1898]
3. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1900]
4. 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1899]
Correct Answer :-
3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1899]
A foreign company intends to merge with an Indian Company. As per the relevant provision in the Companies (Compromises,
Arrangements and Amalgamation) Rules, 2016, it needs to obtain prior approval of [Question ID = 442]
1. Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs. [Option ID = 1766]
2. Securities and Exchange Board of India. [Option ID = 1765]
3. Reserve Bank of India. [Option ID = 1767]
4. Department of Economic Affairs. [Option ID = 1768]
Correct Answer :-
Reserve Bank of India. [Option ID = 1767]
Who coined the term ?Compensatory Discrimination?? [Question ID = 512]
1. Prof. P.N. Singh [Option ID = 2047]
2. Prof. Marc Galanter [Option ID = 2046]
3. Prof. Upendra Baxi [Option ID = 2048]
37)
38)
39)
40)
41)
42)
4. Justice Krishna Iyer [Option ID = 2045]
Correct Answer :-
Prof. Marc Galanter [Option ID = 2046]
What is the limitation period for filing a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986? [Question ID = 459]
1. One year from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1834]
2. 2 years from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1833]
3. 6 months from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1835]
4. 90 days from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1836]
Correct Answer :-
2 years from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1833]
What is the role of section 135, Trade Marks Act, 1999? [Question ID = 434]
1. relief for recovery of property [Option ID = 1734]
2. relief for specific performance [Option ID = 1735]
3. relief for infringement [Option ID = 1733]
4. declaration of the title [Option ID = 1736]
Correct Answer :-
relief for infringement [Option ID = 1733]
What is the principle of complementarity in the context of the International Criminal Court (ICC)? [Question ID = 427]
1. It means the ICC will assist the domestic criminal court in trial and prosecution of the individual accused of committing crimes enlisted in the Rome
Statute, 1998. [Option ID = 1707]
2. It means the ICC will seek for demand production of accused to its jurisdiction. [Option ID = 1708]
3. It means the ICC will prosecute an individual only when that individual submits to its jurisdiction. [Option ID = 1706]
4. It means the ICC will only prosecute an individual if states are unwilling or unable to prosecute. [Option ID = 1705]
Correct Answer :-
It means the ICC will only prosecute an individual if states are unwilling or unable to prosecute. [Option ID = 1705]
The question regarding disqualification of the Speaker of Lok Sabha under the X Schedule of the Constitution of India is referred for
the decision to [Question ID = 479]
1. A member elected for this purpose by the Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1916]
2. Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1914]
3. Deputy Chairperson of Rajya Sabha [Option ID = 1913]
4. President of India [Option ID = 1915]
Correct Answer :-
A member elected for this purpose by the Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1916]
Dissolution of a firm can be carried by
[Question ID = 447]
1. expiry of the term for which it was constituted. [Option ID = 1786]
2. adjudication of a partner as an insolvent. [Option ID = 1787]
3. death of a partner. [Option ID = 1785]
4. All of these [Option ID = 1788]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1788]
?A?, ?B? and ?C? are partners in a partnership firm named AB&C. ?A? retires from the firm without giving any public notice. Thereafter, an
existing creditor lends Rs. ten lakh to the firm on the basis of his knowledge that ?A?, ?B? and ?C? are the three partners in the firm. This
amount remains unpaid by the firm. The creditor wants to recover the unpaid loan amount from the firm. [Question ID = 445]
1. No one will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1780]
2. ?A?, ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1778]
3. Only ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1779]
4. Only ?A? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1777]
Correct Answer :-
FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
1)
2)
3)
4)
DU LLM
Topic:- DU_J18_LLM_Topic01
Which of the following statement is true regarding the social contract theory on origin of State?
1. State is a creation of agreement between people
2. Thomas Hobbes? social contract theory supported limited constitutional monarchy
3. According to Rousseau, the ruler was bound by the general will of the people
4. According to Locke, the sovereign was absolute and his word was the law.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 485]
1. All are correct. [Option ID = 1940]
2. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1938]
3. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
4. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1937]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
[Question ID = 500]
1. A stipulation in a contract of sale may be a condition or warranty. [Option ID = 1997]
2. A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
3. A breach of condition results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1998]
4. All these [Option ID = 2000]
Correct Answer :-
A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
Which of the following exceptions to strict liability were recognised by Justice Blackburn in Rylands v. Fletcher?
1. Vis major
2. Statutory authority
3. Plaintiff?s own default
4. Act of third party
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 463]
1. 3 and 4 [Option ID = 1849]
2. 1, 2 and 3 [Option ID = 1851]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1852]
4. 1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Which of the following Acts was amended by the Criminal Law Amendment Act, 2013?
[Question ID = 467]
1. None of these [Option ID = 1868]
2. The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 [Option ID = 1867]
3. The Information Technology Act, 2000 [Option ID = 1865]
4. The Immoral Trafficking (Prevention) Act, 1956 [Option ID = 1866]
Correct Answer :-
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 [Option ID = 1867]
Which of the following observations on fundamental rights was made by the Supreme Court in K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India?
1. There is no overlap between rights enumerated under Article 19 and Article 21 of the Constitution of India.
2. The constitutional values embodied under every Article of Part III of the Constitution of India animates the interpretation of the other.
3. Only Article 21 contains residue of fundamental rights that are not expressly stipulated under Article 19 of the Constitution of India.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 501]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 2004]
2. Only 3 is correct. [Option ID = 2001]
3. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2002]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 2003]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2002]
Which of the following is sensitive personal information according to rule 3 of the Information Technology (Reasonable Security
Practices and Procedures and Sensitive Data or Information) Rules, 2011?
1. Credit card details
2. Medical records
3. Mobile number
4. Sexual orientation
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 436]
1. 1, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1742]
2. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1743]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1741]
4. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1744]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1743]
Which of the following is/are mechanism/mechanisms of pacific settlement of disputes under the UN Charter?
[Question ID = 419]
1. Enquiry [Option ID = 1673]
2. Judicial Settlement [Option ID = 1675]
3. Arbitration [Option ID = 1674]
4. All these [Option ID = 1676]
Correct Answer :-
All these [Option ID = 1676]
Which of the following actions of host is allowed under the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations of 1961:
[Question ID = 425]
1. The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata. [Option ID
= 1697]
2. The host state can any time search the premises of the diplomatic staff. [Option ID = 1699]
3. The host state can at any time withdraw the immunities granted to diplomats. [Option ID = 1700]
4. The host state can at any time confiscate the diplomatic bag. [Option ID = 1698]
Correct Answer :-
The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata.
[Option ID = 1697]
Which of the following provisions of the UN Charter is correctly matched:
10)
11)
12)
13)
14)
[Question ID = 428]
1. Article 2 (5) Principle of Settlement of Disputes by Peaceful Means [Option ID = 1712]
2. Article 2 (6) Principle of Non-Intervention [Option ID = 1710]
3. Article 2 (4) Prohibition on Use of Force [Option ID = 1709]
4. Article 2 (2) Principle of Sovereign Equality of the UN Members [Option ID = 1711]
Correct Answer :-
Article 2 (4) Prohibition on Use of Force [Option ID = 1709]
Which of the following are ?Inventions Not Patentable? under the Patent Act, 1970?
[Question ID = 431]
1. Invention relating to atomic Energy [Option ID = 1723]
2. A method of agriculture or horticulture [Option ID = 1721]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1724]
4. Topography of integrated circuits [Option ID = 1722]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1724]
Which of the following are conditions of a valid Hindu marriage in accordance with section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
1. Prior consent of the parties.
2. Neither Party must have a spouse living at the time of the marriage.
3. The bridegroom must have completed the age of 21 years and the bride, the age of 18 years at the time of the marriage.
4. The parties are not sagotras of each other.
5. The parties are not sapindas of each other.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 452]
1. Only 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1808]
2. Only 1, 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1805]
3. Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1807]
4. Only 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1806]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1806]
Which of the following is an example of obligatio erga omnes of states under International Law?
[Question ID = 422]
1. Protection from Wars [Option ID = 1687]
2. Protection from slavery [Option ID = 1685]
3. Protection from Political Crimes [Option ID = 1686]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1688]
Correct Answer :-
Protection from slavery [Option ID = 1685]
Which of the following is an implied condition in case of a contract for sale by sample?
[Question ID = 499]
1. Goods shall not be free from any defect, rendering them unmerchantable, which would not be apparent on reasonable examination of the sample. [Option
ID = 1995]
2. Bulk not corresponding with the sample in quality. [Option ID = 1993]
3. Buyer shall not have a reasonable opportunity of comparing the bulk with the sample. [Option ID = 1994]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1996]
Correct Answer :-
None of these [Option ID = 1996]
Read the following statements about the offence of dacoity under the Indian Penal Code, 1860:
15)
16)
17)
18)
19)
1. Attempt to commit dacoity is punishable.
2. Assembling for the purpose of dacoity is punishable.
3. Preparation for dacoity is punishable.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 477]
1. Only 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1907]
2. Only 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1908]
3. Only 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1906]
4. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1905]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1905]
Which among the following is generally referred to as the subtle species of fraud? [Question ID = 498]
1. Undue Influence [Option ID = 1990]
2. Deliberate Mistake [Option ID = 1992]
3. Misrepresentation [Option ID = 1989]
4. Coercion [Option ID = 1991]
Correct Answer :-
Undue Influence [Option ID = 1990]
A member of the UN may be suspended from its membership [Question ID = 417]
1. by the Security Council [Option ID = 1666]
2. by the International Court of Justice upon the request made by the UN General Assembly [Option ID = 1665]
3. by the General Assembly upon the recommendations of the Security Council [Option ID = 1667]
4. by the UN Secretary General [Option ID = 1668]
Correct Answer :-
by the General Assembly upon the recommendations of the Security Council [Option ID = 1667]
According to the Information Technology Act, 2000, an electronic record is deemed to be received at a place where addressee
[Question ID = 439]
1. All these [Option ID = 1756]
2. has his server. [Option ID = 1753]
3. has his place of business. [Option ID = 1754]
4. retrieves the record. [Option ID = 1755]
Correct Answer :-
has his place of business. [Option ID = 1754]
According to Fuller, in order to evade failure, law must have the following characteristics:
1. Law must be publicly accessible
2. Law must be clear and unambiguous
3. Law must not command what cannot be done
4. Law must introduce frequent changes
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 481]
1. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1923]
2. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1921]
3. All are correct. [Option ID = 1924]
4. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1922]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1921]
Who among the following remarked that international law is positive morality? [Question ID = 486]
1. Lon Fuller [Option ID = 1941]
2. Jeremy Bentham [Option ID = 1942]
3. H.L.A. Hart [Option ID = 1943]
20)
21)
22)
23)
24)
25)
4. John Austin [Option ID = 1944]
Correct Answer :-
John Austin [Option ID = 1944]
Trade mark includes
[Question ID = 435]
1. Certification mark [Option ID = 1737]
2. Collective mark [Option ID = 1738]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1740]
4. Well known trade mark [Option ID = 1739]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1740]
Lakshmi and Ram married under the Special Marriage Act, 1954. Ram died in 2010 leaving behind Lakshmi, his mother, a son and a
daughter. The intestate and testamentary succession to his property would be governed by [Question ID = 454]
1. Intestate succession according to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and testamentary succession according to the Indian Succession Act, 1925. [Option ID
= 1816]
2. His ancestral property would devolve on his son and mother and separate property to his wife, son and daughter. [Option ID = 1815]
3. The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 [Option ID = 1813]
4. The Indian Succession Act, 1925 [Option ID = 1814]
Correct Answer :-
Intestate succession according to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and testamentary succession according to the Indian Succession Act, 1925. [Option
ID = 1816]
Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 is applicable in cases of cruelty by husband or relatives of the husband within
[Question ID = 476]
1. 2 years of marriage [Option ID = 1903]
2. 3 years of marriage [Option ID = 1902]
3. No time limit [Option ID = 1904]
4. 7 years of marriage [Option ID = 1901]
Correct Answer :-
No time limit [Option ID = 1904]
John Rawls? idea of basing justice on a contract has been challenged by [Question ID = 487]
1. Jeremy Bentham [Option ID = 1945]
2. Tom Bingham [Option ID = 1947]
3. Amartya Sen [Option ID = 1946]
4. Upendra Baxi [Option ID = 1948]
Correct Answer :-
Amartya Sen [Option ID = 1946]
Dinesh finds a gold ring on the road, not knowing to whom the ring belongs. Dinesh picks up the ring. Dinesh is guilty of which
offence under the Indian Penal Code, 1860? [Question ID = 471]
1. No offence [Option ID = 1884]
2. Theft [Option ID = 1882]
3. Criminal breach of trust [Option ID = 1883]
4. Dishonest Misappropriation [Option ID = 1881]
Correct Answer :-
No offence [Option ID = 1884]
First Geneva Convention of 1949 deals with
[Question ID = 424]
1. Amelioration of the Condition of the Wounded and Sick in Armed Forces in the Field. [Option ID = 1695]
2. Amelioration of the Condition of Wounded, Sick and Shipwrecked Members of Armed Forces at Sea. [Option ID = 1694]
26)
27)
28)
29)
30)
31)
3. Treatment of Prisoners of War. [Option ID = 1693]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1696]
Correct Answer :-
Amelioration of the Condition of the Wounded and Sick in Armed Forces in the Field. [Option ID = 1695]
Shamim Ara claimed her dower after the death of her husband from her husband?s property. She is a/an [Question ID = 453]
1. preferential creditor to all other creditors subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1809]
2. ordinary unsecured creditor, having no priority over other unsecured creditors, subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1812]
3. ordinary unsecured creditor but having priority over other unsecured creditors [Option ID = 1811]
4. secured creditor subject to her right of retention. [Option ID = 1810]
Correct Answer :-
ordinary unsecured creditor, having no priority over other unsecured creditors, subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1812]
To cede a part of the Indian Territory in favour of any foreign country, which one of the following procedural requirement must be
complied with? [Question ID = 503]
1. A law made by Parliament to the effect would be relevant and sufficient. [Option ID = 2012]
2. A law must be passed in compliance with Article 3 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2009]
3. A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed in compliance with Article 368 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2010]
4. A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed to amend the Constitution as per Article 368 and followed up by a law passed relatable to Article 3 of the
Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2011]
Correct Answer :-
A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed in compliance with Article 368 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2010]
Who defined defamation as ?publication of a statement which tends to lower a person in the estimation of right thinking members of
society generally, or which tends to make them shun or avoid that person?. [Question ID = 461]
1. Winfield [Option ID = 1841]
2. Glanville Williams [Option ID = 1844]
3. Salmond [Option ID = 1842]
4. Pollock [Option ID = 1843]
Correct Answer :-
Winfield [Option ID = 1841]
Who among the following can file a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986?
[Question ID = 457]
1. Any recognised consumer association [Option ID = 1826]
2. The Central Government or any State Government [Option ID = 1827]
3. A consumer [Option ID = 1825]
4. All of these [Option ID = 1828]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1828]
In which of the following cases has the Supreme Court made it mandatory for candidates contesting elections to the legislatures and
their spouses to declare their source of income at the time of filing nominations?
[Question ID = 478]
1. People?s Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India [Option ID = 1912]
2. Jan Chaukidar v. Union of India [Option ID = 1910]
3. Association for Democratic Reforms v. Union of India [Option ID = 1911]
4. Lok Prahari v. Union of India [Option ID = 1909]
Correct Answer :-
Lok Prahari v. Union of India [Option ID = 1909]
In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that the public authority providing services or goods as per the definition
under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 must be held liable to pay adequate compensation to the consumer for harassment or mental
agony or oppression caused to him for capricious exercise of power and the money could then be recovered from the erring public
officials?
32)
33)
34)
35)
36)
[Question ID = 465]
1. State of Gujarat v. Memom Mahomed [Option ID = 1860]
2. Shyam Sunder v. State of Rajasthan [Option ID = 1858]
3. Indian Medical Association v. V.P. Shantha [Option ID = 1857]
4. Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta [Option ID = 1859]
Correct Answer :-
Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta [Option ID = 1859]
In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that ?An intermediary shall be liable for a third party information hosted by
him if upon receiving actual knowledge from the court order or on being notified by the appropriate government, he fails to expeditiously
remove that material??
[Question ID = 438]
1. My Space Inc. v. Super Cassettes [Option ID = 1750]
2. Google India Pvt. Ltd. v. M/s Visaka Industries [Option ID = 1751]
3. Shreya Singhal v. Union of India [Option ID = 1749]
4. Avinash Bajaj v. State [Option ID = 1752]
Correct Answer :-
Shreya Singhal v. Union of India [Option ID = 1749]
In which of the following case, Lord Wilberforce opined that ?It is necessary to consider three elements inherent in any claim for
nervous shock: the class of persons whose claim should be recognized, the proximity of such persons to the incident and the means
adopted by which shock is caused??
[Question ID = 464]
1. Page v. Smith [Option ID = 1855]
2. Hinz v. Berry [Option ID = 1854]
3. Bourhill v. Young [Option ID = 1856]
4. McLoughlin v. O?Brian [Option ID = 1853]
Correct Answer :-
McLoughlin v. O?Brian [Option ID = 1853]
In which of the following offences minimum five offenders are required?
1. Affray
2. Robbery
3. Dacoity
4. Rioting
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 475]
1. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1897]
2. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1898]
3. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1900]
4. 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1899]
Correct Answer :-
3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1899]
A foreign company intends to merge with an Indian Company. As per the relevant provision in the Companies (Compromises,
Arrangements and Amalgamation) Rules, 2016, it needs to obtain prior approval of [Question ID = 442]
1. Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs. [Option ID = 1766]
2. Securities and Exchange Board of India. [Option ID = 1765]
3. Reserve Bank of India. [Option ID = 1767]
4. Department of Economic Affairs. [Option ID = 1768]
Correct Answer :-
Reserve Bank of India. [Option ID = 1767]
Who coined the term ?Compensatory Discrimination?? [Question ID = 512]
1. Prof. P.N. Singh [Option ID = 2047]
2. Prof. Marc Galanter [Option ID = 2046]
3. Prof. Upendra Baxi [Option ID = 2048]
37)
38)
39)
40)
41)
42)
4. Justice Krishna Iyer [Option ID = 2045]
Correct Answer :-
Prof. Marc Galanter [Option ID = 2046]
What is the limitation period for filing a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986? [Question ID = 459]
1. One year from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1834]
2. 2 years from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1833]
3. 6 months from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1835]
4. 90 days from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1836]
Correct Answer :-
2 years from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1833]
What is the role of section 135, Trade Marks Act, 1999? [Question ID = 434]
1. relief for recovery of property [Option ID = 1734]
2. relief for specific performance [Option ID = 1735]
3. relief for infringement [Option ID = 1733]
4. declaration of the title [Option ID = 1736]
Correct Answer :-
relief for infringement [Option ID = 1733]
What is the principle of complementarity in the context of the International Criminal Court (ICC)? [Question ID = 427]
1. It means the ICC will assist the domestic criminal court in trial and prosecution of the individual accused of committing crimes enlisted in the Rome
Statute, 1998. [Option ID = 1707]
2. It means the ICC will seek for demand production of accused to its jurisdiction. [Option ID = 1708]
3. It means the ICC will prosecute an individual only when that individual submits to its jurisdiction. [Option ID = 1706]
4. It means the ICC will only prosecute an individual if states are unwilling or unable to prosecute. [Option ID = 1705]
Correct Answer :-
It means the ICC will only prosecute an individual if states are unwilling or unable to prosecute. [Option ID = 1705]
The question regarding disqualification of the Speaker of Lok Sabha under the X Schedule of the Constitution of India is referred for
the decision to [Question ID = 479]
1. A member elected for this purpose by the Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1916]
2. Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1914]
3. Deputy Chairperson of Rajya Sabha [Option ID = 1913]
4. President of India [Option ID = 1915]
Correct Answer :-
A member elected for this purpose by the Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1916]
Dissolution of a firm can be carried by
[Question ID = 447]
1. expiry of the term for which it was constituted. [Option ID = 1786]
2. adjudication of a partner as an insolvent. [Option ID = 1787]
3. death of a partner. [Option ID = 1785]
4. All of these [Option ID = 1788]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1788]
?A?, ?B? and ?C? are partners in a partnership firm named AB&C. ?A? retires from the firm without giving any public notice. Thereafter, an
existing creditor lends Rs. ten lakh to the firm on the basis of his knowledge that ?A?, ?B? and ?C? are the three partners in the firm. This
amount remains unpaid by the firm. The creditor wants to recover the unpaid loan amount from the firm. [Question ID = 445]
1. No one will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1780]
2. ?A?, ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1778]
3. Only ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1779]
4. Only ?A? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1777]
Correct Answer :-
43)
44)
45)
46)
?A?, ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1778]
Assertion (A): Distributive justice is based on the principle that there has to be equal distribution amongst the equals.
Reason (R): Reasonable classification is the essence of equality as justice cannot be achieved by promulgating uniform law for everyone.
1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct reason for A.
2. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct reason for A.
3. Both A and R are incorrect.
4. A is incorrect but R is correct.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 488]
1. 2 [Option ID = 1950]
2. 1 [Option ID = 1949]
3. 3 [Option ID = 1951]
4. 4 [Option ID = 1952]
Correct Answer :-
1 [Option ID = 1949]
Consider the following statement about the Military Staff Committee:
1. It shall advise and assist the Security Council on all questions relating to military requirements for maintenance of international peace
and security.
2. It shall consist of Chiefs of Staff of the permanent members and two non- members nominated by the General Assembly.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 420]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1679]
2. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1680]
3. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1677]
4. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1678]
Correct Answer :-
Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1677]
Consider the following statements:
1. Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons is the first legally binding international agreement to comprehensively prohibit nuclear
weapons.
2. It was passed on July 7, 2017 by the Security Council.
3. It has not come into force.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 426]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1701]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1702]
3. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1704]
4. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1703]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1703]
Consider the following statements:
1. Moses v. Macferlan is a prominent example of theory of unjust enrichment as propounded by Lord Mansfield.
2. According to this theory, the demands of justice and equity is to prevent the unjust enrichment of one person at the cost of another.
3. Sinclair v. Brougham has propounded the theory of ?Implied-in-fact? contract to elaborate the nature of Quasi Contracts.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 491]
1. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1961]
2. Only 1 and 3 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1964]
3. Only 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1962]
FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
1)
2)
3)
4)
DU LLM
Topic:- DU_J18_LLM_Topic01
Which of the following statement is true regarding the social contract theory on origin of State?
1. State is a creation of agreement between people
2. Thomas Hobbes? social contract theory supported limited constitutional monarchy
3. According to Rousseau, the ruler was bound by the general will of the people
4. According to Locke, the sovereign was absolute and his word was the law.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 485]
1. All are correct. [Option ID = 1940]
2. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1938]
3. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
4. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1937]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
[Question ID = 500]
1. A stipulation in a contract of sale may be a condition or warranty. [Option ID = 1997]
2. A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
3. A breach of condition results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1998]
4. All these [Option ID = 2000]
Correct Answer :-
A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
Which of the following exceptions to strict liability were recognised by Justice Blackburn in Rylands v. Fletcher?
1. Vis major
2. Statutory authority
3. Plaintiff?s own default
4. Act of third party
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 463]
1. 3 and 4 [Option ID = 1849]
2. 1, 2 and 3 [Option ID = 1851]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1852]
4. 1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Which of the following Acts was amended by the Criminal Law Amendment Act, 2013?
[Question ID = 467]
1. None of these [Option ID = 1868]
2. The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 [Option ID = 1867]
3. The Information Technology Act, 2000 [Option ID = 1865]
4. The Immoral Trafficking (Prevention) Act, 1956 [Option ID = 1866]
Correct Answer :-
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 [Option ID = 1867]
Which of the following observations on fundamental rights was made by the Supreme Court in K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India?
1. There is no overlap between rights enumerated under Article 19 and Article 21 of the Constitution of India.
2. The constitutional values embodied under every Article of Part III of the Constitution of India animates the interpretation of the other.
3. Only Article 21 contains residue of fundamental rights that are not expressly stipulated under Article 19 of the Constitution of India.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 501]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 2004]
2. Only 3 is correct. [Option ID = 2001]
3. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2002]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 2003]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2002]
Which of the following is sensitive personal information according to rule 3 of the Information Technology (Reasonable Security
Practices and Procedures and Sensitive Data or Information) Rules, 2011?
1. Credit card details
2. Medical records
3. Mobile number
4. Sexual orientation
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 436]
1. 1, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1742]
2. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1743]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1741]
4. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1744]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1743]
Which of the following is/are mechanism/mechanisms of pacific settlement of disputes under the UN Charter?
[Question ID = 419]
1. Enquiry [Option ID = 1673]
2. Judicial Settlement [Option ID = 1675]
3. Arbitration [Option ID = 1674]
4. All these [Option ID = 1676]
Correct Answer :-
All these [Option ID = 1676]
Which of the following actions of host is allowed under the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations of 1961:
[Question ID = 425]
1. The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata. [Option ID
= 1697]
2. The host state can any time search the premises of the diplomatic staff. [Option ID = 1699]
3. The host state can at any time withdraw the immunities granted to diplomats. [Option ID = 1700]
4. The host state can at any time confiscate the diplomatic bag. [Option ID = 1698]
Correct Answer :-
The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata.
[Option ID = 1697]
Which of the following provisions of the UN Charter is correctly matched:
10)
11)
12)
13)
14)
[Question ID = 428]
1. Article 2 (5) Principle of Settlement of Disputes by Peaceful Means [Option ID = 1712]
2. Article 2 (6) Principle of Non-Intervention [Option ID = 1710]
3. Article 2 (4) Prohibition on Use of Force [Option ID = 1709]
4. Article 2 (2) Principle of Sovereign Equality of the UN Members [Option ID = 1711]
Correct Answer :-
Article 2 (4) Prohibition on Use of Force [Option ID = 1709]
Which of the following are ?Inventions Not Patentable? under the Patent Act, 1970?
[Question ID = 431]
1. Invention relating to atomic Energy [Option ID = 1723]
2. A method of agriculture or horticulture [Option ID = 1721]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1724]
4. Topography of integrated circuits [Option ID = 1722]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1724]
Which of the following are conditions of a valid Hindu marriage in accordance with section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
1. Prior consent of the parties.
2. Neither Party must have a spouse living at the time of the marriage.
3. The bridegroom must have completed the age of 21 years and the bride, the age of 18 years at the time of the marriage.
4. The parties are not sagotras of each other.
5. The parties are not sapindas of each other.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 452]
1. Only 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1808]
2. Only 1, 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1805]
3. Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1807]
4. Only 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1806]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1806]
Which of the following is an example of obligatio erga omnes of states under International Law?
[Question ID = 422]
1. Protection from Wars [Option ID = 1687]
2. Protection from slavery [Option ID = 1685]
3. Protection from Political Crimes [Option ID = 1686]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1688]
Correct Answer :-
Protection from slavery [Option ID = 1685]
Which of the following is an implied condition in case of a contract for sale by sample?
[Question ID = 499]
1. Goods shall not be free from any defect, rendering them unmerchantable, which would not be apparent on reasonable examination of the sample. [Option
ID = 1995]
2. Bulk not corresponding with the sample in quality. [Option ID = 1993]
3. Buyer shall not have a reasonable opportunity of comparing the bulk with the sample. [Option ID = 1994]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1996]
Correct Answer :-
None of these [Option ID = 1996]
Read the following statements about the offence of dacoity under the Indian Penal Code, 1860:
15)
16)
17)
18)
19)
1. Attempt to commit dacoity is punishable.
2. Assembling for the purpose of dacoity is punishable.
3. Preparation for dacoity is punishable.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 477]
1. Only 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1907]
2. Only 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1908]
3. Only 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1906]
4. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1905]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1905]
Which among the following is generally referred to as the subtle species of fraud? [Question ID = 498]
1. Undue Influence [Option ID = 1990]
2. Deliberate Mistake [Option ID = 1992]
3. Misrepresentation [Option ID = 1989]
4. Coercion [Option ID = 1991]
Correct Answer :-
Undue Influence [Option ID = 1990]
A member of the UN may be suspended from its membership [Question ID = 417]
1. by the Security Council [Option ID = 1666]
2. by the International Court of Justice upon the request made by the UN General Assembly [Option ID = 1665]
3. by the General Assembly upon the recommendations of the Security Council [Option ID = 1667]
4. by the UN Secretary General [Option ID = 1668]
Correct Answer :-
by the General Assembly upon the recommendations of the Security Council [Option ID = 1667]
According to the Information Technology Act, 2000, an electronic record is deemed to be received at a place where addressee
[Question ID = 439]
1. All these [Option ID = 1756]
2. has his server. [Option ID = 1753]
3. has his place of business. [Option ID = 1754]
4. retrieves the record. [Option ID = 1755]
Correct Answer :-
has his place of business. [Option ID = 1754]
According to Fuller, in order to evade failure, law must have the following characteristics:
1. Law must be publicly accessible
2. Law must be clear and unambiguous
3. Law must not command what cannot be done
4. Law must introduce frequent changes
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 481]
1. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1923]
2. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1921]
3. All are correct. [Option ID = 1924]
4. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1922]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1921]
Who among the following remarked that international law is positive morality? [Question ID = 486]
1. Lon Fuller [Option ID = 1941]
2. Jeremy Bentham [Option ID = 1942]
3. H.L.A. Hart [Option ID = 1943]
20)
21)
22)
23)
24)
25)
4. John Austin [Option ID = 1944]
Correct Answer :-
John Austin [Option ID = 1944]
Trade mark includes
[Question ID = 435]
1. Certification mark [Option ID = 1737]
2. Collective mark [Option ID = 1738]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1740]
4. Well known trade mark [Option ID = 1739]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1740]
Lakshmi and Ram married under the Special Marriage Act, 1954. Ram died in 2010 leaving behind Lakshmi, his mother, a son and a
daughter. The intestate and testamentary succession to his property would be governed by [Question ID = 454]
1. Intestate succession according to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and testamentary succession according to the Indian Succession Act, 1925. [Option ID
= 1816]
2. His ancestral property would devolve on his son and mother and separate property to his wife, son and daughter. [Option ID = 1815]
3. The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 [Option ID = 1813]
4. The Indian Succession Act, 1925 [Option ID = 1814]
Correct Answer :-
Intestate succession according to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and testamentary succession according to the Indian Succession Act, 1925. [Option
ID = 1816]
Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 is applicable in cases of cruelty by husband or relatives of the husband within
[Question ID = 476]
1. 2 years of marriage [Option ID = 1903]
2. 3 years of marriage [Option ID = 1902]
3. No time limit [Option ID = 1904]
4. 7 years of marriage [Option ID = 1901]
Correct Answer :-
No time limit [Option ID = 1904]
John Rawls? idea of basing justice on a contract has been challenged by [Question ID = 487]
1. Jeremy Bentham [Option ID = 1945]
2. Tom Bingham [Option ID = 1947]
3. Amartya Sen [Option ID = 1946]
4. Upendra Baxi [Option ID = 1948]
Correct Answer :-
Amartya Sen [Option ID = 1946]
Dinesh finds a gold ring on the road, not knowing to whom the ring belongs. Dinesh picks up the ring. Dinesh is guilty of which
offence under the Indian Penal Code, 1860? [Question ID = 471]
1. No offence [Option ID = 1884]
2. Theft [Option ID = 1882]
3. Criminal breach of trust [Option ID = 1883]
4. Dishonest Misappropriation [Option ID = 1881]
Correct Answer :-
No offence [Option ID = 1884]
First Geneva Convention of 1949 deals with
[Question ID = 424]
1. Amelioration of the Condition of the Wounded and Sick in Armed Forces in the Field. [Option ID = 1695]
2. Amelioration of the Condition of Wounded, Sick and Shipwrecked Members of Armed Forces at Sea. [Option ID = 1694]
26)
27)
28)
29)
30)
31)
3. Treatment of Prisoners of War. [Option ID = 1693]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1696]
Correct Answer :-
Amelioration of the Condition of the Wounded and Sick in Armed Forces in the Field. [Option ID = 1695]
Shamim Ara claimed her dower after the death of her husband from her husband?s property. She is a/an [Question ID = 453]
1. preferential creditor to all other creditors subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1809]
2. ordinary unsecured creditor, having no priority over other unsecured creditors, subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1812]
3. ordinary unsecured creditor but having priority over other unsecured creditors [Option ID = 1811]
4. secured creditor subject to her right of retention. [Option ID = 1810]
Correct Answer :-
ordinary unsecured creditor, having no priority over other unsecured creditors, subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1812]
To cede a part of the Indian Territory in favour of any foreign country, which one of the following procedural requirement must be
complied with? [Question ID = 503]
1. A law made by Parliament to the effect would be relevant and sufficient. [Option ID = 2012]
2. A law must be passed in compliance with Article 3 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2009]
3. A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed in compliance with Article 368 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2010]
4. A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed to amend the Constitution as per Article 368 and followed up by a law passed relatable to Article 3 of the
Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2011]
Correct Answer :-
A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed in compliance with Article 368 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2010]
Who defined defamation as ?publication of a statement which tends to lower a person in the estimation of right thinking members of
society generally, or which tends to make them shun or avoid that person?. [Question ID = 461]
1. Winfield [Option ID = 1841]
2. Glanville Williams [Option ID = 1844]
3. Salmond [Option ID = 1842]
4. Pollock [Option ID = 1843]
Correct Answer :-
Winfield [Option ID = 1841]
Who among the following can file a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986?
[Question ID = 457]
1. Any recognised consumer association [Option ID = 1826]
2. The Central Government or any State Government [Option ID = 1827]
3. A consumer [Option ID = 1825]
4. All of these [Option ID = 1828]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1828]
In which of the following cases has the Supreme Court made it mandatory for candidates contesting elections to the legislatures and
their spouses to declare their source of income at the time of filing nominations?
[Question ID = 478]
1. People?s Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India [Option ID = 1912]
2. Jan Chaukidar v. Union of India [Option ID = 1910]
3. Association for Democratic Reforms v. Union of India [Option ID = 1911]
4. Lok Prahari v. Union of India [Option ID = 1909]
Correct Answer :-
Lok Prahari v. Union of India [Option ID = 1909]
In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that the public authority providing services or goods as per the definition
under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 must be held liable to pay adequate compensation to the consumer for harassment or mental
agony or oppression caused to him for capricious exercise of power and the money could then be recovered from the erring public
officials?
32)
33)
34)
35)
36)
[Question ID = 465]
1. State of Gujarat v. Memom Mahomed [Option ID = 1860]
2. Shyam Sunder v. State of Rajasthan [Option ID = 1858]
3. Indian Medical Association v. V.P. Shantha [Option ID = 1857]
4. Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta [Option ID = 1859]
Correct Answer :-
Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta [Option ID = 1859]
In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that ?An intermediary shall be liable for a third party information hosted by
him if upon receiving actual knowledge from the court order or on being notified by the appropriate government, he fails to expeditiously
remove that material??
[Question ID = 438]
1. My Space Inc. v. Super Cassettes [Option ID = 1750]
2. Google India Pvt. Ltd. v. M/s Visaka Industries [Option ID = 1751]
3. Shreya Singhal v. Union of India [Option ID = 1749]
4. Avinash Bajaj v. State [Option ID = 1752]
Correct Answer :-
Shreya Singhal v. Union of India [Option ID = 1749]
In which of the following case, Lord Wilberforce opined that ?It is necessary to consider three elements inherent in any claim for
nervous shock: the class of persons whose claim should be recognized, the proximity of such persons to the incident and the means
adopted by which shock is caused??
[Question ID = 464]
1. Page v. Smith [Option ID = 1855]
2. Hinz v. Berry [Option ID = 1854]
3. Bourhill v. Young [Option ID = 1856]
4. McLoughlin v. O?Brian [Option ID = 1853]
Correct Answer :-
McLoughlin v. O?Brian [Option ID = 1853]
In which of the following offences minimum five offenders are required?
1. Affray
2. Robbery
3. Dacoity
4. Rioting
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 475]
1. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1897]
2. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1898]
3. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1900]
4. 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1899]
Correct Answer :-
3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1899]
A foreign company intends to merge with an Indian Company. As per the relevant provision in the Companies (Compromises,
Arrangements and Amalgamation) Rules, 2016, it needs to obtain prior approval of [Question ID = 442]
1. Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs. [Option ID = 1766]
2. Securities and Exchange Board of India. [Option ID = 1765]
3. Reserve Bank of India. [Option ID = 1767]
4. Department of Economic Affairs. [Option ID = 1768]
Correct Answer :-
Reserve Bank of India. [Option ID = 1767]
Who coined the term ?Compensatory Discrimination?? [Question ID = 512]
1. Prof. P.N. Singh [Option ID = 2047]
2. Prof. Marc Galanter [Option ID = 2046]
3. Prof. Upendra Baxi [Option ID = 2048]
37)
38)
39)
40)
41)
42)
4. Justice Krishna Iyer [Option ID = 2045]
Correct Answer :-
Prof. Marc Galanter [Option ID = 2046]
What is the limitation period for filing a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986? [Question ID = 459]
1. One year from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1834]
2. 2 years from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1833]
3. 6 months from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1835]
4. 90 days from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1836]
Correct Answer :-
2 years from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1833]
What is the role of section 135, Trade Marks Act, 1999? [Question ID = 434]
1. relief for recovery of property [Option ID = 1734]
2. relief for specific performance [Option ID = 1735]
3. relief for infringement [Option ID = 1733]
4. declaration of the title [Option ID = 1736]
Correct Answer :-
relief for infringement [Option ID = 1733]
What is the principle of complementarity in the context of the International Criminal Court (ICC)? [Question ID = 427]
1. It means the ICC will assist the domestic criminal court in trial and prosecution of the individual accused of committing crimes enlisted in the Rome
Statute, 1998. [Option ID = 1707]
2. It means the ICC will seek for demand production of accused to its jurisdiction. [Option ID = 1708]
3. It means the ICC will prosecute an individual only when that individual submits to its jurisdiction. [Option ID = 1706]
4. It means the ICC will only prosecute an individual if states are unwilling or unable to prosecute. [Option ID = 1705]
Correct Answer :-
It means the ICC will only prosecute an individual if states are unwilling or unable to prosecute. [Option ID = 1705]
The question regarding disqualification of the Speaker of Lok Sabha under the X Schedule of the Constitution of India is referred for
the decision to [Question ID = 479]
1. A member elected for this purpose by the Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1916]
2. Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1914]
3. Deputy Chairperson of Rajya Sabha [Option ID = 1913]
4. President of India [Option ID = 1915]
Correct Answer :-
A member elected for this purpose by the Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1916]
Dissolution of a firm can be carried by
[Question ID = 447]
1. expiry of the term for which it was constituted. [Option ID = 1786]
2. adjudication of a partner as an insolvent. [Option ID = 1787]
3. death of a partner. [Option ID = 1785]
4. All of these [Option ID = 1788]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1788]
?A?, ?B? and ?C? are partners in a partnership firm named AB&C. ?A? retires from the firm without giving any public notice. Thereafter, an
existing creditor lends Rs. ten lakh to the firm on the basis of his knowledge that ?A?, ?B? and ?C? are the three partners in the firm. This
amount remains unpaid by the firm. The creditor wants to recover the unpaid loan amount from the firm. [Question ID = 445]
1. No one will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1780]
2. ?A?, ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1778]
3. Only ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1779]
4. Only ?A? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1777]
Correct Answer :-
43)
44)
45)
46)
?A?, ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1778]
Assertion (A): Distributive justice is based on the principle that there has to be equal distribution amongst the equals.
Reason (R): Reasonable classification is the essence of equality as justice cannot be achieved by promulgating uniform law for everyone.
1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct reason for A.
2. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct reason for A.
3. Both A and R are incorrect.
4. A is incorrect but R is correct.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 488]
1. 2 [Option ID = 1950]
2. 1 [Option ID = 1949]
3. 3 [Option ID = 1951]
4. 4 [Option ID = 1952]
Correct Answer :-
1 [Option ID = 1949]
Consider the following statement about the Military Staff Committee:
1. It shall advise and assist the Security Council on all questions relating to military requirements for maintenance of international peace
and security.
2. It shall consist of Chiefs of Staff of the permanent members and two non- members nominated by the General Assembly.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 420]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1679]
2. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1680]
3. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1677]
4. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1678]
Correct Answer :-
Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1677]
Consider the following statements:
1. Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons is the first legally binding international agreement to comprehensively prohibit nuclear
weapons.
2. It was passed on July 7, 2017 by the Security Council.
3. It has not come into force.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 426]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1701]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1702]
3. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1704]
4. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1703]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1703]
Consider the following statements:
1. Moses v. Macferlan is a prominent example of theory of unjust enrichment as propounded by Lord Mansfield.
2. According to this theory, the demands of justice and equity is to prevent the unjust enrichment of one person at the cost of another.
3. Sinclair v. Brougham has propounded the theory of ?Implied-in-fact? contract to elaborate the nature of Quasi Contracts.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 491]
1. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1961]
2. Only 1 and 3 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1964]
3. Only 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1962]
47)
48)
49)
50)
51)
4. Only 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1963]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1961]
Consider the following statements:
1. A contract with a minor is void, however, a minor can after attaining majority ratify an agreement made by him during his minority.
2. Minor is not liable for the wrongful act when the cause of action in substance is ex contractu.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 496]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1983]
2. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1984]
3. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1981]
4. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1982]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1982]
Consider the following statements:
1. The Bolitho test relates to medical negligence.
2. The Bolitho test was referred to in Malay Kumar Ganguly v. Sukumar Mukherjee.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 458]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1830]
2. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1829]
3. 1 is correct but 2 is incorrect. [Option ID = 1831]
4. 1 is incorrect but 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1832]
Correct Answer :-
Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1830]
Savithri, a married Hindu woman died intestate leaving behind her husband and mother. Properties mentioned in Schedule ?A? was
inherited by her from her father and Schedule ?B? property was her self-acquired property. Pick out the correct legal proposition from
below: [Question ID = 456]
1. Her husband and mother will share equally in both the properties. [Option ID = 1821]
2. Her husband alone will succeed to both properties. [Option ID = 1822]
3. Her husband will inherit Schedule ?B? property and mother will inherit Schedule ?A? property. [Option ID = 1824]
4. Her mother will alone succeed to both properties. [Option ID = 1823]
Correct Answer :-
Her husband will inherit Schedule ?B? property and mother will inherit Schedule ?A? property. [Option ID = 1824]
Article 290-A of the Constitution of India refers to [Question ID = 505]
1. Annual payment to certain Devaswom Funds [Option ID = 2020]
2. Privy purse sums of Rulers [Option ID = 2017]
3. Exemption of property and income of a State from Union taxation [Option ID = 2018]
4. Exemption from taxation by States in respect of water or electricity in certain cases [Option ID = 2019]
Correct Answer :-
Annual payment to certain Devaswom Funds [Option ID = 2020]
Match the cases mentioned in List I with legal issues mentioned in List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
1)
2)
3)
4)
DU LLM
Topic:- DU_J18_LLM_Topic01
Which of the following statement is true regarding the social contract theory on origin of State?
1. State is a creation of agreement between people
2. Thomas Hobbes? social contract theory supported limited constitutional monarchy
3. According to Rousseau, the ruler was bound by the general will of the people
4. According to Locke, the sovereign was absolute and his word was the law.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 485]
1. All are correct. [Option ID = 1940]
2. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1938]
3. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
4. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1937]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
[Question ID = 500]
1. A stipulation in a contract of sale may be a condition or warranty. [Option ID = 1997]
2. A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
3. A breach of condition results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1998]
4. All these [Option ID = 2000]
Correct Answer :-
A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
Which of the following exceptions to strict liability were recognised by Justice Blackburn in Rylands v. Fletcher?
1. Vis major
2. Statutory authority
3. Plaintiff?s own default
4. Act of third party
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 463]
1. 3 and 4 [Option ID = 1849]
2. 1, 2 and 3 [Option ID = 1851]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1852]
4. 1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Which of the following Acts was amended by the Criminal Law Amendment Act, 2013?
[Question ID = 467]
1. None of these [Option ID = 1868]
2. The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 [Option ID = 1867]
3. The Information Technology Act, 2000 [Option ID = 1865]
4. The Immoral Trafficking (Prevention) Act, 1956 [Option ID = 1866]
Correct Answer :-
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 [Option ID = 1867]
Which of the following observations on fundamental rights was made by the Supreme Court in K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India?
1. There is no overlap between rights enumerated under Article 19 and Article 21 of the Constitution of India.
2. The constitutional values embodied under every Article of Part III of the Constitution of India animates the interpretation of the other.
3. Only Article 21 contains residue of fundamental rights that are not expressly stipulated under Article 19 of the Constitution of India.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 501]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 2004]
2. Only 3 is correct. [Option ID = 2001]
3. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2002]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 2003]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2002]
Which of the following is sensitive personal information according to rule 3 of the Information Technology (Reasonable Security
Practices and Procedures and Sensitive Data or Information) Rules, 2011?
1. Credit card details
2. Medical records
3. Mobile number
4. Sexual orientation
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 436]
1. 1, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1742]
2. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1743]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1741]
4. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1744]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1743]
Which of the following is/are mechanism/mechanisms of pacific settlement of disputes under the UN Charter?
[Question ID = 419]
1. Enquiry [Option ID = 1673]
2. Judicial Settlement [Option ID = 1675]
3. Arbitration [Option ID = 1674]
4. All these [Option ID = 1676]
Correct Answer :-
All these [Option ID = 1676]
Which of the following actions of host is allowed under the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations of 1961:
[Question ID = 425]
1. The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata. [Option ID
= 1697]
2. The host state can any time search the premises of the diplomatic staff. [Option ID = 1699]
3. The host state can at any time withdraw the immunities granted to diplomats. [Option ID = 1700]
4. The host state can at any time confiscate the diplomatic bag. [Option ID = 1698]
Correct Answer :-
The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata.
[Option ID = 1697]
Which of the following provisions of the UN Charter is correctly matched:
10)
11)
12)
13)
14)
[Question ID = 428]
1. Article 2 (5) Principle of Settlement of Disputes by Peaceful Means [Option ID = 1712]
2. Article 2 (6) Principle of Non-Intervention [Option ID = 1710]
3. Article 2 (4) Prohibition on Use of Force [Option ID = 1709]
4. Article 2 (2) Principle of Sovereign Equality of the UN Members [Option ID = 1711]
Correct Answer :-
Article 2 (4) Prohibition on Use of Force [Option ID = 1709]
Which of the following are ?Inventions Not Patentable? under the Patent Act, 1970?
[Question ID = 431]
1. Invention relating to atomic Energy [Option ID = 1723]
2. A method of agriculture or horticulture [Option ID = 1721]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1724]
4. Topography of integrated circuits [Option ID = 1722]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1724]
Which of the following are conditions of a valid Hindu marriage in accordance with section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
1. Prior consent of the parties.
2. Neither Party must have a spouse living at the time of the marriage.
3. The bridegroom must have completed the age of 21 years and the bride, the age of 18 years at the time of the marriage.
4. The parties are not sagotras of each other.
5. The parties are not sapindas of each other.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 452]
1. Only 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1808]
2. Only 1, 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1805]
3. Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1807]
4. Only 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1806]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1806]
Which of the following is an example of obligatio erga omnes of states under International Law?
[Question ID = 422]
1. Protection from Wars [Option ID = 1687]
2. Protection from slavery [Option ID = 1685]
3. Protection from Political Crimes [Option ID = 1686]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1688]
Correct Answer :-
Protection from slavery [Option ID = 1685]
Which of the following is an implied condition in case of a contract for sale by sample?
[Question ID = 499]
1. Goods shall not be free from any defect, rendering them unmerchantable, which would not be apparent on reasonable examination of the sample. [Option
ID = 1995]
2. Bulk not corresponding with the sample in quality. [Option ID = 1993]
3. Buyer shall not have a reasonable opportunity of comparing the bulk with the sample. [Option ID = 1994]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1996]
Correct Answer :-
None of these [Option ID = 1996]
Read the following statements about the offence of dacoity under the Indian Penal Code, 1860:
15)
16)
17)
18)
19)
1. Attempt to commit dacoity is punishable.
2. Assembling for the purpose of dacoity is punishable.
3. Preparation for dacoity is punishable.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 477]
1. Only 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1907]
2. Only 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1908]
3. Only 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1906]
4. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1905]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1905]
Which among the following is generally referred to as the subtle species of fraud? [Question ID = 498]
1. Undue Influence [Option ID = 1990]
2. Deliberate Mistake [Option ID = 1992]
3. Misrepresentation [Option ID = 1989]
4. Coercion [Option ID = 1991]
Correct Answer :-
Undue Influence [Option ID = 1990]
A member of the UN may be suspended from its membership [Question ID = 417]
1. by the Security Council [Option ID = 1666]
2. by the International Court of Justice upon the request made by the UN General Assembly [Option ID = 1665]
3. by the General Assembly upon the recommendations of the Security Council [Option ID = 1667]
4. by the UN Secretary General [Option ID = 1668]
Correct Answer :-
by the General Assembly upon the recommendations of the Security Council [Option ID = 1667]
According to the Information Technology Act, 2000, an electronic record is deemed to be received at a place where addressee
[Question ID = 439]
1. All these [Option ID = 1756]
2. has his server. [Option ID = 1753]
3. has his place of business. [Option ID = 1754]
4. retrieves the record. [Option ID = 1755]
Correct Answer :-
has his place of business. [Option ID = 1754]
According to Fuller, in order to evade failure, law must have the following characteristics:
1. Law must be publicly accessible
2. Law must be clear and unambiguous
3. Law must not command what cannot be done
4. Law must introduce frequent changes
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 481]
1. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1923]
2. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1921]
3. All are correct. [Option ID = 1924]
4. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1922]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1921]
Who among the following remarked that international law is positive morality? [Question ID = 486]
1. Lon Fuller [Option ID = 1941]
2. Jeremy Bentham [Option ID = 1942]
3. H.L.A. Hart [Option ID = 1943]
20)
21)
22)
23)
24)
25)
4. John Austin [Option ID = 1944]
Correct Answer :-
John Austin [Option ID = 1944]
Trade mark includes
[Question ID = 435]
1. Certification mark [Option ID = 1737]
2. Collective mark [Option ID = 1738]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1740]
4. Well known trade mark [Option ID = 1739]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1740]
Lakshmi and Ram married under the Special Marriage Act, 1954. Ram died in 2010 leaving behind Lakshmi, his mother, a son and a
daughter. The intestate and testamentary succession to his property would be governed by [Question ID = 454]
1. Intestate succession according to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and testamentary succession according to the Indian Succession Act, 1925. [Option ID
= 1816]
2. His ancestral property would devolve on his son and mother and separate property to his wife, son and daughter. [Option ID = 1815]
3. The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 [Option ID = 1813]
4. The Indian Succession Act, 1925 [Option ID = 1814]
Correct Answer :-
Intestate succession according to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and testamentary succession according to the Indian Succession Act, 1925. [Option
ID = 1816]
Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 is applicable in cases of cruelty by husband or relatives of the husband within
[Question ID = 476]
1. 2 years of marriage [Option ID = 1903]
2. 3 years of marriage [Option ID = 1902]
3. No time limit [Option ID = 1904]
4. 7 years of marriage [Option ID = 1901]
Correct Answer :-
No time limit [Option ID = 1904]
John Rawls? idea of basing justice on a contract has been challenged by [Question ID = 487]
1. Jeremy Bentham [Option ID = 1945]
2. Tom Bingham [Option ID = 1947]
3. Amartya Sen [Option ID = 1946]
4. Upendra Baxi [Option ID = 1948]
Correct Answer :-
Amartya Sen [Option ID = 1946]
Dinesh finds a gold ring on the road, not knowing to whom the ring belongs. Dinesh picks up the ring. Dinesh is guilty of which
offence under the Indian Penal Code, 1860? [Question ID = 471]
1. No offence [Option ID = 1884]
2. Theft [Option ID = 1882]
3. Criminal breach of trust [Option ID = 1883]
4. Dishonest Misappropriation [Option ID = 1881]
Correct Answer :-
No offence [Option ID = 1884]
First Geneva Convention of 1949 deals with
[Question ID = 424]
1. Amelioration of the Condition of the Wounded and Sick in Armed Forces in the Field. [Option ID = 1695]
2. Amelioration of the Condition of Wounded, Sick and Shipwrecked Members of Armed Forces at Sea. [Option ID = 1694]
26)
27)
28)
29)
30)
31)
3. Treatment of Prisoners of War. [Option ID = 1693]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1696]
Correct Answer :-
Amelioration of the Condition of the Wounded and Sick in Armed Forces in the Field. [Option ID = 1695]
Shamim Ara claimed her dower after the death of her husband from her husband?s property. She is a/an [Question ID = 453]
1. preferential creditor to all other creditors subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1809]
2. ordinary unsecured creditor, having no priority over other unsecured creditors, subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1812]
3. ordinary unsecured creditor but having priority over other unsecured creditors [Option ID = 1811]
4. secured creditor subject to her right of retention. [Option ID = 1810]
Correct Answer :-
ordinary unsecured creditor, having no priority over other unsecured creditors, subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1812]
To cede a part of the Indian Territory in favour of any foreign country, which one of the following procedural requirement must be
complied with? [Question ID = 503]
1. A law made by Parliament to the effect would be relevant and sufficient. [Option ID = 2012]
2. A law must be passed in compliance with Article 3 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2009]
3. A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed in compliance with Article 368 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2010]
4. A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed to amend the Constitution as per Article 368 and followed up by a law passed relatable to Article 3 of the
Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2011]
Correct Answer :-
A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed in compliance with Article 368 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2010]
Who defined defamation as ?publication of a statement which tends to lower a person in the estimation of right thinking members of
society generally, or which tends to make them shun or avoid that person?. [Question ID = 461]
1. Winfield [Option ID = 1841]
2. Glanville Williams [Option ID = 1844]
3. Salmond [Option ID = 1842]
4. Pollock [Option ID = 1843]
Correct Answer :-
Winfield [Option ID = 1841]
Who among the following can file a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986?
[Question ID = 457]
1. Any recognised consumer association [Option ID = 1826]
2. The Central Government or any State Government [Option ID = 1827]
3. A consumer [Option ID = 1825]
4. All of these [Option ID = 1828]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1828]
In which of the following cases has the Supreme Court made it mandatory for candidates contesting elections to the legislatures and
their spouses to declare their source of income at the time of filing nominations?
[Question ID = 478]
1. People?s Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India [Option ID = 1912]
2. Jan Chaukidar v. Union of India [Option ID = 1910]
3. Association for Democratic Reforms v. Union of India [Option ID = 1911]
4. Lok Prahari v. Union of India [Option ID = 1909]
Correct Answer :-
Lok Prahari v. Union of India [Option ID = 1909]
In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that the public authority providing services or goods as per the definition
under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 must be held liable to pay adequate compensation to the consumer for harassment or mental
agony or oppression caused to him for capricious exercise of power and the money could then be recovered from the erring public
officials?
32)
33)
34)
35)
36)
[Question ID = 465]
1. State of Gujarat v. Memom Mahomed [Option ID = 1860]
2. Shyam Sunder v. State of Rajasthan [Option ID = 1858]
3. Indian Medical Association v. V.P. Shantha [Option ID = 1857]
4. Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta [Option ID = 1859]
Correct Answer :-
Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta [Option ID = 1859]
In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that ?An intermediary shall be liable for a third party information hosted by
him if upon receiving actual knowledge from the court order or on being notified by the appropriate government, he fails to expeditiously
remove that material??
[Question ID = 438]
1. My Space Inc. v. Super Cassettes [Option ID = 1750]
2. Google India Pvt. Ltd. v. M/s Visaka Industries [Option ID = 1751]
3. Shreya Singhal v. Union of India [Option ID = 1749]
4. Avinash Bajaj v. State [Option ID = 1752]
Correct Answer :-
Shreya Singhal v. Union of India [Option ID = 1749]
In which of the following case, Lord Wilberforce opined that ?It is necessary to consider three elements inherent in any claim for
nervous shock: the class of persons whose claim should be recognized, the proximity of such persons to the incident and the means
adopted by which shock is caused??
[Question ID = 464]
1. Page v. Smith [Option ID = 1855]
2. Hinz v. Berry [Option ID = 1854]
3. Bourhill v. Young [Option ID = 1856]
4. McLoughlin v. O?Brian [Option ID = 1853]
Correct Answer :-
McLoughlin v. O?Brian [Option ID = 1853]
In which of the following offences minimum five offenders are required?
1. Affray
2. Robbery
3. Dacoity
4. Rioting
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 475]
1. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1897]
2. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1898]
3. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1900]
4. 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1899]
Correct Answer :-
3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1899]
A foreign company intends to merge with an Indian Company. As per the relevant provision in the Companies (Compromises,
Arrangements and Amalgamation) Rules, 2016, it needs to obtain prior approval of [Question ID = 442]
1. Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs. [Option ID = 1766]
2. Securities and Exchange Board of India. [Option ID = 1765]
3. Reserve Bank of India. [Option ID = 1767]
4. Department of Economic Affairs. [Option ID = 1768]
Correct Answer :-
Reserve Bank of India. [Option ID = 1767]
Who coined the term ?Compensatory Discrimination?? [Question ID = 512]
1. Prof. P.N. Singh [Option ID = 2047]
2. Prof. Marc Galanter [Option ID = 2046]
3. Prof. Upendra Baxi [Option ID = 2048]
37)
38)
39)
40)
41)
42)
4. Justice Krishna Iyer [Option ID = 2045]
Correct Answer :-
Prof. Marc Galanter [Option ID = 2046]
What is the limitation period for filing a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986? [Question ID = 459]
1. One year from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1834]
2. 2 years from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1833]
3. 6 months from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1835]
4. 90 days from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1836]
Correct Answer :-
2 years from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1833]
What is the role of section 135, Trade Marks Act, 1999? [Question ID = 434]
1. relief for recovery of property [Option ID = 1734]
2. relief for specific performance [Option ID = 1735]
3. relief for infringement [Option ID = 1733]
4. declaration of the title [Option ID = 1736]
Correct Answer :-
relief for infringement [Option ID = 1733]
What is the principle of complementarity in the context of the International Criminal Court (ICC)? [Question ID = 427]
1. It means the ICC will assist the domestic criminal court in trial and prosecution of the individual accused of committing crimes enlisted in the Rome
Statute, 1998. [Option ID = 1707]
2. It means the ICC will seek for demand production of accused to its jurisdiction. [Option ID = 1708]
3. It means the ICC will prosecute an individual only when that individual submits to its jurisdiction. [Option ID = 1706]
4. It means the ICC will only prosecute an individual if states are unwilling or unable to prosecute. [Option ID = 1705]
Correct Answer :-
It means the ICC will only prosecute an individual if states are unwilling or unable to prosecute. [Option ID = 1705]
The question regarding disqualification of the Speaker of Lok Sabha under the X Schedule of the Constitution of India is referred for
the decision to [Question ID = 479]
1. A member elected for this purpose by the Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1916]
2. Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1914]
3. Deputy Chairperson of Rajya Sabha [Option ID = 1913]
4. President of India [Option ID = 1915]
Correct Answer :-
A member elected for this purpose by the Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1916]
Dissolution of a firm can be carried by
[Question ID = 447]
1. expiry of the term for which it was constituted. [Option ID = 1786]
2. adjudication of a partner as an insolvent. [Option ID = 1787]
3. death of a partner. [Option ID = 1785]
4. All of these [Option ID = 1788]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1788]
?A?, ?B? and ?C? are partners in a partnership firm named AB&C. ?A? retires from the firm without giving any public notice. Thereafter, an
existing creditor lends Rs. ten lakh to the firm on the basis of his knowledge that ?A?, ?B? and ?C? are the three partners in the firm. This
amount remains unpaid by the firm. The creditor wants to recover the unpaid loan amount from the firm. [Question ID = 445]
1. No one will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1780]
2. ?A?, ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1778]
3. Only ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1779]
4. Only ?A? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1777]
Correct Answer :-
43)
44)
45)
46)
?A?, ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1778]
Assertion (A): Distributive justice is based on the principle that there has to be equal distribution amongst the equals.
Reason (R): Reasonable classification is the essence of equality as justice cannot be achieved by promulgating uniform law for everyone.
1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct reason for A.
2. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct reason for A.
3. Both A and R are incorrect.
4. A is incorrect but R is correct.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 488]
1. 2 [Option ID = 1950]
2. 1 [Option ID = 1949]
3. 3 [Option ID = 1951]
4. 4 [Option ID = 1952]
Correct Answer :-
1 [Option ID = 1949]
Consider the following statement about the Military Staff Committee:
1. It shall advise and assist the Security Council on all questions relating to military requirements for maintenance of international peace
and security.
2. It shall consist of Chiefs of Staff of the permanent members and two non- members nominated by the General Assembly.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 420]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1679]
2. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1680]
3. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1677]
4. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1678]
Correct Answer :-
Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1677]
Consider the following statements:
1. Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons is the first legally binding international agreement to comprehensively prohibit nuclear
weapons.
2. It was passed on July 7, 2017 by the Security Council.
3. It has not come into force.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 426]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1701]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1702]
3. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1704]
4. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1703]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1703]
Consider the following statements:
1. Moses v. Macferlan is a prominent example of theory of unjust enrichment as propounded by Lord Mansfield.
2. According to this theory, the demands of justice and equity is to prevent the unjust enrichment of one person at the cost of another.
3. Sinclair v. Brougham has propounded the theory of ?Implied-in-fact? contract to elaborate the nature of Quasi Contracts.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 491]
1. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1961]
2. Only 1 and 3 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1964]
3. Only 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1962]
47)
48)
49)
50)
51)
4. Only 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1963]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1961]
Consider the following statements:
1. A contract with a minor is void, however, a minor can after attaining majority ratify an agreement made by him during his minority.
2. Minor is not liable for the wrongful act when the cause of action in substance is ex contractu.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 496]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1983]
2. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1984]
3. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1981]
4. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1982]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1982]
Consider the following statements:
1. The Bolitho test relates to medical negligence.
2. The Bolitho test was referred to in Malay Kumar Ganguly v. Sukumar Mukherjee.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 458]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1830]
2. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1829]
3. 1 is correct but 2 is incorrect. [Option ID = 1831]
4. 1 is incorrect but 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1832]
Correct Answer :-
Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1830]
Savithri, a married Hindu woman died intestate leaving behind her husband and mother. Properties mentioned in Schedule ?A? was
inherited by her from her father and Schedule ?B? property was her self-acquired property. Pick out the correct legal proposition from
below: [Question ID = 456]
1. Her husband and mother will share equally in both the properties. [Option ID = 1821]
2. Her husband alone will succeed to both properties. [Option ID = 1822]
3. Her husband will inherit Schedule ?B? property and mother will inherit Schedule ?A? property. [Option ID = 1824]
4. Her mother will alone succeed to both properties. [Option ID = 1823]
Correct Answer :-
Her husband will inherit Schedule ?B? property and mother will inherit Schedule ?A? property. [Option ID = 1824]
Article 290-A of the Constitution of India refers to [Question ID = 505]
1. Annual payment to certain Devaswom Funds [Option ID = 2020]
2. Privy purse sums of Rulers [Option ID = 2017]
3. Exemption of property and income of a State from Union taxation [Option ID = 2018]
4. Exemption from taxation by States in respect of water or electricity in certain cases [Option ID = 2019]
Correct Answer :-
Annual payment to certain Devaswom Funds [Option ID = 2020]
Match the cases mentioned in List I with legal issues mentioned in List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
52)
Codes:
[Question ID = 449]
1. [Option ID = 1793]
2. [Option ID = 1794]
3. [Option ID = 1796]
4. [Option ID = 1795]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1795]
FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
1)
2)
3)
4)
DU LLM
Topic:- DU_J18_LLM_Topic01
Which of the following statement is true regarding the social contract theory on origin of State?
1. State is a creation of agreement between people
2. Thomas Hobbes? social contract theory supported limited constitutional monarchy
3. According to Rousseau, the ruler was bound by the general will of the people
4. According to Locke, the sovereign was absolute and his word was the law.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 485]
1. All are correct. [Option ID = 1940]
2. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1938]
3. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
4. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1937]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
[Question ID = 500]
1. A stipulation in a contract of sale may be a condition or warranty. [Option ID = 1997]
2. A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
3. A breach of condition results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1998]
4. All these [Option ID = 2000]
Correct Answer :-
A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
Which of the following exceptions to strict liability were recognised by Justice Blackburn in Rylands v. Fletcher?
1. Vis major
2. Statutory authority
3. Plaintiff?s own default
4. Act of third party
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 463]
1. 3 and 4 [Option ID = 1849]
2. 1, 2 and 3 [Option ID = 1851]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1852]
4. 1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Which of the following Acts was amended by the Criminal Law Amendment Act, 2013?
[Question ID = 467]
1. None of these [Option ID = 1868]
2. The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 [Option ID = 1867]
3. The Information Technology Act, 2000 [Option ID = 1865]
4. The Immoral Trafficking (Prevention) Act, 1956 [Option ID = 1866]
Correct Answer :-
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 [Option ID = 1867]
Which of the following observations on fundamental rights was made by the Supreme Court in K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India?
1. There is no overlap between rights enumerated under Article 19 and Article 21 of the Constitution of India.
2. The constitutional values embodied under every Article of Part III of the Constitution of India animates the interpretation of the other.
3. Only Article 21 contains residue of fundamental rights that are not expressly stipulated under Article 19 of the Constitution of India.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 501]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 2004]
2. Only 3 is correct. [Option ID = 2001]
3. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2002]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 2003]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2002]
Which of the following is sensitive personal information according to rule 3 of the Information Technology (Reasonable Security
Practices and Procedures and Sensitive Data or Information) Rules, 2011?
1. Credit card details
2. Medical records
3. Mobile number
4. Sexual orientation
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 436]
1. 1, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1742]
2. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1743]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1741]
4. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1744]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1743]
Which of the following is/are mechanism/mechanisms of pacific settlement of disputes under the UN Charter?
[Question ID = 419]
1. Enquiry [Option ID = 1673]
2. Judicial Settlement [Option ID = 1675]
3. Arbitration [Option ID = 1674]
4. All these [Option ID = 1676]
Correct Answer :-
All these [Option ID = 1676]
Which of the following actions of host is allowed under the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations of 1961:
[Question ID = 425]
1. The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata. [Option ID
= 1697]
2. The host state can any time search the premises of the diplomatic staff. [Option ID = 1699]
3. The host state can at any time withdraw the immunities granted to diplomats. [Option ID = 1700]
4. The host state can at any time confiscate the diplomatic bag. [Option ID = 1698]
Correct Answer :-
The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata.
[Option ID = 1697]
Which of the following provisions of the UN Charter is correctly matched:
10)
11)
12)
13)
14)
[Question ID = 428]
1. Article 2 (5) Principle of Settlement of Disputes by Peaceful Means [Option ID = 1712]
2. Article 2 (6) Principle of Non-Intervention [Option ID = 1710]
3. Article 2 (4) Prohibition on Use of Force [Option ID = 1709]
4. Article 2 (2) Principle of Sovereign Equality of the UN Members [Option ID = 1711]
Correct Answer :-
Article 2 (4) Prohibition on Use of Force [Option ID = 1709]
Which of the following are ?Inventions Not Patentable? under the Patent Act, 1970?
[Question ID = 431]
1. Invention relating to atomic Energy [Option ID = 1723]
2. A method of agriculture or horticulture [Option ID = 1721]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1724]
4. Topography of integrated circuits [Option ID = 1722]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1724]
Which of the following are conditions of a valid Hindu marriage in accordance with section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
1. Prior consent of the parties.
2. Neither Party must have a spouse living at the time of the marriage.
3. The bridegroom must have completed the age of 21 years and the bride, the age of 18 years at the time of the marriage.
4. The parties are not sagotras of each other.
5. The parties are not sapindas of each other.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 452]
1. Only 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1808]
2. Only 1, 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1805]
3. Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1807]
4. Only 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1806]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1806]
Which of the following is an example of obligatio erga omnes of states under International Law?
[Question ID = 422]
1. Protection from Wars [Option ID = 1687]
2. Protection from slavery [Option ID = 1685]
3. Protection from Political Crimes [Option ID = 1686]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1688]
Correct Answer :-
Protection from slavery [Option ID = 1685]
Which of the following is an implied condition in case of a contract for sale by sample?
[Question ID = 499]
1. Goods shall not be free from any defect, rendering them unmerchantable, which would not be apparent on reasonable examination of the sample. [Option
ID = 1995]
2. Bulk not corresponding with the sample in quality. [Option ID = 1993]
3. Buyer shall not have a reasonable opportunity of comparing the bulk with the sample. [Option ID = 1994]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1996]
Correct Answer :-
None of these [Option ID = 1996]
Read the following statements about the offence of dacoity under the Indian Penal Code, 1860:
15)
16)
17)
18)
19)
1. Attempt to commit dacoity is punishable.
2. Assembling for the purpose of dacoity is punishable.
3. Preparation for dacoity is punishable.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 477]
1. Only 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1907]
2. Only 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1908]
3. Only 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1906]
4. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1905]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1905]
Which among the following is generally referred to as the subtle species of fraud? [Question ID = 498]
1. Undue Influence [Option ID = 1990]
2. Deliberate Mistake [Option ID = 1992]
3. Misrepresentation [Option ID = 1989]
4. Coercion [Option ID = 1991]
Correct Answer :-
Undue Influence [Option ID = 1990]
A member of the UN may be suspended from its membership [Question ID = 417]
1. by the Security Council [Option ID = 1666]
2. by the International Court of Justice upon the request made by the UN General Assembly [Option ID = 1665]
3. by the General Assembly upon the recommendations of the Security Council [Option ID = 1667]
4. by the UN Secretary General [Option ID = 1668]
Correct Answer :-
by the General Assembly upon the recommendations of the Security Council [Option ID = 1667]
According to the Information Technology Act, 2000, an electronic record is deemed to be received at a place where addressee
[Question ID = 439]
1. All these [Option ID = 1756]
2. has his server. [Option ID = 1753]
3. has his place of business. [Option ID = 1754]
4. retrieves the record. [Option ID = 1755]
Correct Answer :-
has his place of business. [Option ID = 1754]
According to Fuller, in order to evade failure, law must have the following characteristics:
1. Law must be publicly accessible
2. Law must be clear and unambiguous
3. Law must not command what cannot be done
4. Law must introduce frequent changes
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 481]
1. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1923]
2. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1921]
3. All are correct. [Option ID = 1924]
4. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1922]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1921]
Who among the following remarked that international law is positive morality? [Question ID = 486]
1. Lon Fuller [Option ID = 1941]
2. Jeremy Bentham [Option ID = 1942]
3. H.L.A. Hart [Option ID = 1943]
20)
21)
22)
23)
24)
25)
4. John Austin [Option ID = 1944]
Correct Answer :-
John Austin [Option ID = 1944]
Trade mark includes
[Question ID = 435]
1. Certification mark [Option ID = 1737]
2. Collective mark [Option ID = 1738]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1740]
4. Well known trade mark [Option ID = 1739]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1740]
Lakshmi and Ram married under the Special Marriage Act, 1954. Ram died in 2010 leaving behind Lakshmi, his mother, a son and a
daughter. The intestate and testamentary succession to his property would be governed by [Question ID = 454]
1. Intestate succession according to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and testamentary succession according to the Indian Succession Act, 1925. [Option ID
= 1816]
2. His ancestral property would devolve on his son and mother and separate property to his wife, son and daughter. [Option ID = 1815]
3. The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 [Option ID = 1813]
4. The Indian Succession Act, 1925 [Option ID = 1814]
Correct Answer :-
Intestate succession according to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and testamentary succession according to the Indian Succession Act, 1925. [Option
ID = 1816]
Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 is applicable in cases of cruelty by husband or relatives of the husband within
[Question ID = 476]
1. 2 years of marriage [Option ID = 1903]
2. 3 years of marriage [Option ID = 1902]
3. No time limit [Option ID = 1904]
4. 7 years of marriage [Option ID = 1901]
Correct Answer :-
No time limit [Option ID = 1904]
John Rawls? idea of basing justice on a contract has been challenged by [Question ID = 487]
1. Jeremy Bentham [Option ID = 1945]
2. Tom Bingham [Option ID = 1947]
3. Amartya Sen [Option ID = 1946]
4. Upendra Baxi [Option ID = 1948]
Correct Answer :-
Amartya Sen [Option ID = 1946]
Dinesh finds a gold ring on the road, not knowing to whom the ring belongs. Dinesh picks up the ring. Dinesh is guilty of which
offence under the Indian Penal Code, 1860? [Question ID = 471]
1. No offence [Option ID = 1884]
2. Theft [Option ID = 1882]
3. Criminal breach of trust [Option ID = 1883]
4. Dishonest Misappropriation [Option ID = 1881]
Correct Answer :-
No offence [Option ID = 1884]
First Geneva Convention of 1949 deals with
[Question ID = 424]
1. Amelioration of the Condition of the Wounded and Sick in Armed Forces in the Field. [Option ID = 1695]
2. Amelioration of the Condition of Wounded, Sick and Shipwrecked Members of Armed Forces at Sea. [Option ID = 1694]
26)
27)
28)
29)
30)
31)
3. Treatment of Prisoners of War. [Option ID = 1693]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1696]
Correct Answer :-
Amelioration of the Condition of the Wounded and Sick in Armed Forces in the Field. [Option ID = 1695]
Shamim Ara claimed her dower after the death of her husband from her husband?s property. She is a/an [Question ID = 453]
1. preferential creditor to all other creditors subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1809]
2. ordinary unsecured creditor, having no priority over other unsecured creditors, subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1812]
3. ordinary unsecured creditor but having priority over other unsecured creditors [Option ID = 1811]
4. secured creditor subject to her right of retention. [Option ID = 1810]
Correct Answer :-
ordinary unsecured creditor, having no priority over other unsecured creditors, subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1812]
To cede a part of the Indian Territory in favour of any foreign country, which one of the following procedural requirement must be
complied with? [Question ID = 503]
1. A law made by Parliament to the effect would be relevant and sufficient. [Option ID = 2012]
2. A law must be passed in compliance with Article 3 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2009]
3. A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed in compliance with Article 368 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2010]
4. A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed to amend the Constitution as per Article 368 and followed up by a law passed relatable to Article 3 of the
Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2011]
Correct Answer :-
A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed in compliance with Article 368 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2010]
Who defined defamation as ?publication of a statement which tends to lower a person in the estimation of right thinking members of
society generally, or which tends to make them shun or avoid that person?. [Question ID = 461]
1. Winfield [Option ID = 1841]
2. Glanville Williams [Option ID = 1844]
3. Salmond [Option ID = 1842]
4. Pollock [Option ID = 1843]
Correct Answer :-
Winfield [Option ID = 1841]
Who among the following can file a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986?
[Question ID = 457]
1. Any recognised consumer association [Option ID = 1826]
2. The Central Government or any State Government [Option ID = 1827]
3. A consumer [Option ID = 1825]
4. All of these [Option ID = 1828]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1828]
In which of the following cases has the Supreme Court made it mandatory for candidates contesting elections to the legislatures and
their spouses to declare their source of income at the time of filing nominations?
[Question ID = 478]
1. People?s Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India [Option ID = 1912]
2. Jan Chaukidar v. Union of India [Option ID = 1910]
3. Association for Democratic Reforms v. Union of India [Option ID = 1911]
4. Lok Prahari v. Union of India [Option ID = 1909]
Correct Answer :-
Lok Prahari v. Union of India [Option ID = 1909]
In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that the public authority providing services or goods as per the definition
under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 must be held liable to pay adequate compensation to the consumer for harassment or mental
agony or oppression caused to him for capricious exercise of power and the money could then be recovered from the erring public
officials?
32)
33)
34)
35)
36)
[Question ID = 465]
1. State of Gujarat v. Memom Mahomed [Option ID = 1860]
2. Shyam Sunder v. State of Rajasthan [Option ID = 1858]
3. Indian Medical Association v. V.P. Shantha [Option ID = 1857]
4. Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta [Option ID = 1859]
Correct Answer :-
Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta [Option ID = 1859]
In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that ?An intermediary shall be liable for a third party information hosted by
him if upon receiving actual knowledge from the court order or on being notified by the appropriate government, he fails to expeditiously
remove that material??
[Question ID = 438]
1. My Space Inc. v. Super Cassettes [Option ID = 1750]
2. Google India Pvt. Ltd. v. M/s Visaka Industries [Option ID = 1751]
3. Shreya Singhal v. Union of India [Option ID = 1749]
4. Avinash Bajaj v. State [Option ID = 1752]
Correct Answer :-
Shreya Singhal v. Union of India [Option ID = 1749]
In which of the following case, Lord Wilberforce opined that ?It is necessary to consider three elements inherent in any claim for
nervous shock: the class of persons whose claim should be recognized, the proximity of such persons to the incident and the means
adopted by which shock is caused??
[Question ID = 464]
1. Page v. Smith [Option ID = 1855]
2. Hinz v. Berry [Option ID = 1854]
3. Bourhill v. Young [Option ID = 1856]
4. McLoughlin v. O?Brian [Option ID = 1853]
Correct Answer :-
McLoughlin v. O?Brian [Option ID = 1853]
In which of the following offences minimum five offenders are required?
1. Affray
2. Robbery
3. Dacoity
4. Rioting
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 475]
1. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1897]
2. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1898]
3. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1900]
4. 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1899]
Correct Answer :-
3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1899]
A foreign company intends to merge with an Indian Company. As per the relevant provision in the Companies (Compromises,
Arrangements and Amalgamation) Rules, 2016, it needs to obtain prior approval of [Question ID = 442]
1. Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs. [Option ID = 1766]
2. Securities and Exchange Board of India. [Option ID = 1765]
3. Reserve Bank of India. [Option ID = 1767]
4. Department of Economic Affairs. [Option ID = 1768]
Correct Answer :-
Reserve Bank of India. [Option ID = 1767]
Who coined the term ?Compensatory Discrimination?? [Question ID = 512]
1. Prof. P.N. Singh [Option ID = 2047]
2. Prof. Marc Galanter [Option ID = 2046]
3. Prof. Upendra Baxi [Option ID = 2048]
37)
38)
39)
40)
41)
42)
4. Justice Krishna Iyer [Option ID = 2045]
Correct Answer :-
Prof. Marc Galanter [Option ID = 2046]
What is the limitation period for filing a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986? [Question ID = 459]
1. One year from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1834]
2. 2 years from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1833]
3. 6 months from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1835]
4. 90 days from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1836]
Correct Answer :-
2 years from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1833]
What is the role of section 135, Trade Marks Act, 1999? [Question ID = 434]
1. relief for recovery of property [Option ID = 1734]
2. relief for specific performance [Option ID = 1735]
3. relief for infringement [Option ID = 1733]
4. declaration of the title [Option ID = 1736]
Correct Answer :-
relief for infringement [Option ID = 1733]
What is the principle of complementarity in the context of the International Criminal Court (ICC)? [Question ID = 427]
1. It means the ICC will assist the domestic criminal court in trial and prosecution of the individual accused of committing crimes enlisted in the Rome
Statute, 1998. [Option ID = 1707]
2. It means the ICC will seek for demand production of accused to its jurisdiction. [Option ID = 1708]
3. It means the ICC will prosecute an individual only when that individual submits to its jurisdiction. [Option ID = 1706]
4. It means the ICC will only prosecute an individual if states are unwilling or unable to prosecute. [Option ID = 1705]
Correct Answer :-
It means the ICC will only prosecute an individual if states are unwilling or unable to prosecute. [Option ID = 1705]
The question regarding disqualification of the Speaker of Lok Sabha under the X Schedule of the Constitution of India is referred for
the decision to [Question ID = 479]
1. A member elected for this purpose by the Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1916]
2. Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1914]
3. Deputy Chairperson of Rajya Sabha [Option ID = 1913]
4. President of India [Option ID = 1915]
Correct Answer :-
A member elected for this purpose by the Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1916]
Dissolution of a firm can be carried by
[Question ID = 447]
1. expiry of the term for which it was constituted. [Option ID = 1786]
2. adjudication of a partner as an insolvent. [Option ID = 1787]
3. death of a partner. [Option ID = 1785]
4. All of these [Option ID = 1788]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1788]
?A?, ?B? and ?C? are partners in a partnership firm named AB&C. ?A? retires from the firm without giving any public notice. Thereafter, an
existing creditor lends Rs. ten lakh to the firm on the basis of his knowledge that ?A?, ?B? and ?C? are the three partners in the firm. This
amount remains unpaid by the firm. The creditor wants to recover the unpaid loan amount from the firm. [Question ID = 445]
1. No one will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1780]
2. ?A?, ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1778]
3. Only ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1779]
4. Only ?A? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1777]
Correct Answer :-
43)
44)
45)
46)
?A?, ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1778]
Assertion (A): Distributive justice is based on the principle that there has to be equal distribution amongst the equals.
Reason (R): Reasonable classification is the essence of equality as justice cannot be achieved by promulgating uniform law for everyone.
1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct reason for A.
2. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct reason for A.
3. Both A and R are incorrect.
4. A is incorrect but R is correct.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 488]
1. 2 [Option ID = 1950]
2. 1 [Option ID = 1949]
3. 3 [Option ID = 1951]
4. 4 [Option ID = 1952]
Correct Answer :-
1 [Option ID = 1949]
Consider the following statement about the Military Staff Committee:
1. It shall advise and assist the Security Council on all questions relating to military requirements for maintenance of international peace
and security.
2. It shall consist of Chiefs of Staff of the permanent members and two non- members nominated by the General Assembly.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 420]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1679]
2. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1680]
3. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1677]
4. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1678]
Correct Answer :-
Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1677]
Consider the following statements:
1. Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons is the first legally binding international agreement to comprehensively prohibit nuclear
weapons.
2. It was passed on July 7, 2017 by the Security Council.
3. It has not come into force.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 426]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1701]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1702]
3. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1704]
4. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1703]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1703]
Consider the following statements:
1. Moses v. Macferlan is a prominent example of theory of unjust enrichment as propounded by Lord Mansfield.
2. According to this theory, the demands of justice and equity is to prevent the unjust enrichment of one person at the cost of another.
3. Sinclair v. Brougham has propounded the theory of ?Implied-in-fact? contract to elaborate the nature of Quasi Contracts.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 491]
1. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1961]
2. Only 1 and 3 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1964]
3. Only 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1962]
47)
48)
49)
50)
51)
4. Only 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1963]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1961]
Consider the following statements:
1. A contract with a minor is void, however, a minor can after attaining majority ratify an agreement made by him during his minority.
2. Minor is not liable for the wrongful act when the cause of action in substance is ex contractu.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 496]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1983]
2. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1984]
3. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1981]
4. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1982]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1982]
Consider the following statements:
1. The Bolitho test relates to medical negligence.
2. The Bolitho test was referred to in Malay Kumar Ganguly v. Sukumar Mukherjee.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 458]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1830]
2. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1829]
3. 1 is correct but 2 is incorrect. [Option ID = 1831]
4. 1 is incorrect but 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1832]
Correct Answer :-
Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1830]
Savithri, a married Hindu woman died intestate leaving behind her husband and mother. Properties mentioned in Schedule ?A? was
inherited by her from her father and Schedule ?B? property was her self-acquired property. Pick out the correct legal proposition from
below: [Question ID = 456]
1. Her husband and mother will share equally in both the properties. [Option ID = 1821]
2. Her husband alone will succeed to both properties. [Option ID = 1822]
3. Her husband will inherit Schedule ?B? property and mother will inherit Schedule ?A? property. [Option ID = 1824]
4. Her mother will alone succeed to both properties. [Option ID = 1823]
Correct Answer :-
Her husband will inherit Schedule ?B? property and mother will inherit Schedule ?A? property. [Option ID = 1824]
Article 290-A of the Constitution of India refers to [Question ID = 505]
1. Annual payment to certain Devaswom Funds [Option ID = 2020]
2. Privy purse sums of Rulers [Option ID = 2017]
3. Exemption of property and income of a State from Union taxation [Option ID = 2018]
4. Exemption from taxation by States in respect of water or electricity in certain cases [Option ID = 2019]
Correct Answer :-
Annual payment to certain Devaswom Funds [Option ID = 2020]
Match the cases mentioned in List I with legal issues mentioned in List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
52)
Codes:
[Question ID = 449]
1. [Option ID = 1793]
2. [Option ID = 1794]
3. [Option ID = 1796]
4. [Option ID = 1795]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1795]
53)
[Question ID = 53444]
1. [Option ID = 93763]
2. [Option ID = 93764]
3. [Option ID = 93761]
4. [Option ID = 93762]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 93761]
FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
1)
2)
3)
4)
DU LLM
Topic:- DU_J18_LLM_Topic01
Which of the following statement is true regarding the social contract theory on origin of State?
1. State is a creation of agreement between people
2. Thomas Hobbes? social contract theory supported limited constitutional monarchy
3. According to Rousseau, the ruler was bound by the general will of the people
4. According to Locke, the sovereign was absolute and his word was the law.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 485]
1. All are correct. [Option ID = 1940]
2. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1938]
3. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
4. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1937]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
[Question ID = 500]
1. A stipulation in a contract of sale may be a condition or warranty. [Option ID = 1997]
2. A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
3. A breach of condition results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1998]
4. All these [Option ID = 2000]
Correct Answer :-
A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
Which of the following exceptions to strict liability were recognised by Justice Blackburn in Rylands v. Fletcher?
1. Vis major
2. Statutory authority
3. Plaintiff?s own default
4. Act of third party
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 463]
1. 3 and 4 [Option ID = 1849]
2. 1, 2 and 3 [Option ID = 1851]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1852]
4. 1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Which of the following Acts was amended by the Criminal Law Amendment Act, 2013?
[Question ID = 467]
1. None of these [Option ID = 1868]
2. The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 [Option ID = 1867]
3. The Information Technology Act, 2000 [Option ID = 1865]
4. The Immoral Trafficking (Prevention) Act, 1956 [Option ID = 1866]
Correct Answer :-
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 [Option ID = 1867]
Which of the following observations on fundamental rights was made by the Supreme Court in K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India?
1. There is no overlap between rights enumerated under Article 19 and Article 21 of the Constitution of India.
2. The constitutional values embodied under every Article of Part III of the Constitution of India animates the interpretation of the other.
3. Only Article 21 contains residue of fundamental rights that are not expressly stipulated under Article 19 of the Constitution of India.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 501]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 2004]
2. Only 3 is correct. [Option ID = 2001]
3. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2002]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 2003]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2002]
Which of the following is sensitive personal information according to rule 3 of the Information Technology (Reasonable Security
Practices and Procedures and Sensitive Data or Information) Rules, 2011?
1. Credit card details
2. Medical records
3. Mobile number
4. Sexual orientation
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 436]
1. 1, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1742]
2. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1743]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1741]
4. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1744]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1743]
Which of the following is/are mechanism/mechanisms of pacific settlement of disputes under the UN Charter?
[Question ID = 419]
1. Enquiry [Option ID = 1673]
2. Judicial Settlement [Option ID = 1675]
3. Arbitration [Option ID = 1674]
4. All these [Option ID = 1676]
Correct Answer :-
All these [Option ID = 1676]
Which of the following actions of host is allowed under the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations of 1961:
[Question ID = 425]
1. The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata. [Option ID
= 1697]
2. The host state can any time search the premises of the diplomatic staff. [Option ID = 1699]
3. The host state can at any time withdraw the immunities granted to diplomats. [Option ID = 1700]
4. The host state can at any time confiscate the diplomatic bag. [Option ID = 1698]
Correct Answer :-
The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata.
[Option ID = 1697]
Which of the following provisions of the UN Charter is correctly matched:
10)
11)
12)
13)
14)
[Question ID = 428]
1. Article 2 (5) Principle of Settlement of Disputes by Peaceful Means [Option ID = 1712]
2. Article 2 (6) Principle of Non-Intervention [Option ID = 1710]
3. Article 2 (4) Prohibition on Use of Force [Option ID = 1709]
4. Article 2 (2) Principle of Sovereign Equality of the UN Members [Option ID = 1711]
Correct Answer :-
Article 2 (4) Prohibition on Use of Force [Option ID = 1709]
Which of the following are ?Inventions Not Patentable? under the Patent Act, 1970?
[Question ID = 431]
1. Invention relating to atomic Energy [Option ID = 1723]
2. A method of agriculture or horticulture [Option ID = 1721]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1724]
4. Topography of integrated circuits [Option ID = 1722]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1724]
Which of the following are conditions of a valid Hindu marriage in accordance with section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
1. Prior consent of the parties.
2. Neither Party must have a spouse living at the time of the marriage.
3. The bridegroom must have completed the age of 21 years and the bride, the age of 18 years at the time of the marriage.
4. The parties are not sagotras of each other.
5. The parties are not sapindas of each other.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 452]
1. Only 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1808]
2. Only 1, 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1805]
3. Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1807]
4. Only 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1806]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1806]
Which of the following is an example of obligatio erga omnes of states under International Law?
[Question ID = 422]
1. Protection from Wars [Option ID = 1687]
2. Protection from slavery [Option ID = 1685]
3. Protection from Political Crimes [Option ID = 1686]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1688]
Correct Answer :-
Protection from slavery [Option ID = 1685]
Which of the following is an implied condition in case of a contract for sale by sample?
[Question ID = 499]
1. Goods shall not be free from any defect, rendering them unmerchantable, which would not be apparent on reasonable examination of the sample. [Option
ID = 1995]
2. Bulk not corresponding with the sample in quality. [Option ID = 1993]
3. Buyer shall not have a reasonable opportunity of comparing the bulk with the sample. [Option ID = 1994]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1996]
Correct Answer :-
None of these [Option ID = 1996]
Read the following statements about the offence of dacoity under the Indian Penal Code, 1860:
15)
16)
17)
18)
19)
1. Attempt to commit dacoity is punishable.
2. Assembling for the purpose of dacoity is punishable.
3. Preparation for dacoity is punishable.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 477]
1. Only 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1907]
2. Only 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1908]
3. Only 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1906]
4. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1905]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1905]
Which among the following is generally referred to as the subtle species of fraud? [Question ID = 498]
1. Undue Influence [Option ID = 1990]
2. Deliberate Mistake [Option ID = 1992]
3. Misrepresentation [Option ID = 1989]
4. Coercion [Option ID = 1991]
Correct Answer :-
Undue Influence [Option ID = 1990]
A member of the UN may be suspended from its membership [Question ID = 417]
1. by the Security Council [Option ID = 1666]
2. by the International Court of Justice upon the request made by the UN General Assembly [Option ID = 1665]
3. by the General Assembly upon the recommendations of the Security Council [Option ID = 1667]
4. by the UN Secretary General [Option ID = 1668]
Correct Answer :-
by the General Assembly upon the recommendations of the Security Council [Option ID = 1667]
According to the Information Technology Act, 2000, an electronic record is deemed to be received at a place where addressee
[Question ID = 439]
1. All these [Option ID = 1756]
2. has his server. [Option ID = 1753]
3. has his place of business. [Option ID = 1754]
4. retrieves the record. [Option ID = 1755]
Correct Answer :-
has his place of business. [Option ID = 1754]
According to Fuller, in order to evade failure, law must have the following characteristics:
1. Law must be publicly accessible
2. Law must be clear and unambiguous
3. Law must not command what cannot be done
4. Law must introduce frequent changes
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 481]
1. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1923]
2. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1921]
3. All are correct. [Option ID = 1924]
4. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1922]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1921]
Who among the following remarked that international law is positive morality? [Question ID = 486]
1. Lon Fuller [Option ID = 1941]
2. Jeremy Bentham [Option ID = 1942]
3. H.L.A. Hart [Option ID = 1943]
20)
21)
22)
23)
24)
25)
4. John Austin [Option ID = 1944]
Correct Answer :-
John Austin [Option ID = 1944]
Trade mark includes
[Question ID = 435]
1. Certification mark [Option ID = 1737]
2. Collective mark [Option ID = 1738]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1740]
4. Well known trade mark [Option ID = 1739]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1740]
Lakshmi and Ram married under the Special Marriage Act, 1954. Ram died in 2010 leaving behind Lakshmi, his mother, a son and a
daughter. The intestate and testamentary succession to his property would be governed by [Question ID = 454]
1. Intestate succession according to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and testamentary succession according to the Indian Succession Act, 1925. [Option ID
= 1816]
2. His ancestral property would devolve on his son and mother and separate property to his wife, son and daughter. [Option ID = 1815]
3. The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 [Option ID = 1813]
4. The Indian Succession Act, 1925 [Option ID = 1814]
Correct Answer :-
Intestate succession according to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and testamentary succession according to the Indian Succession Act, 1925. [Option
ID = 1816]
Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 is applicable in cases of cruelty by husband or relatives of the husband within
[Question ID = 476]
1. 2 years of marriage [Option ID = 1903]
2. 3 years of marriage [Option ID = 1902]
3. No time limit [Option ID = 1904]
4. 7 years of marriage [Option ID = 1901]
Correct Answer :-
No time limit [Option ID = 1904]
John Rawls? idea of basing justice on a contract has been challenged by [Question ID = 487]
1. Jeremy Bentham [Option ID = 1945]
2. Tom Bingham [Option ID = 1947]
3. Amartya Sen [Option ID = 1946]
4. Upendra Baxi [Option ID = 1948]
Correct Answer :-
Amartya Sen [Option ID = 1946]
Dinesh finds a gold ring on the road, not knowing to whom the ring belongs. Dinesh picks up the ring. Dinesh is guilty of which
offence under the Indian Penal Code, 1860? [Question ID = 471]
1. No offence [Option ID = 1884]
2. Theft [Option ID = 1882]
3. Criminal breach of trust [Option ID = 1883]
4. Dishonest Misappropriation [Option ID = 1881]
Correct Answer :-
No offence [Option ID = 1884]
First Geneva Convention of 1949 deals with
[Question ID = 424]
1. Amelioration of the Condition of the Wounded and Sick in Armed Forces in the Field. [Option ID = 1695]
2. Amelioration of the Condition of Wounded, Sick and Shipwrecked Members of Armed Forces at Sea. [Option ID = 1694]
26)
27)
28)
29)
30)
31)
3. Treatment of Prisoners of War. [Option ID = 1693]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1696]
Correct Answer :-
Amelioration of the Condition of the Wounded and Sick in Armed Forces in the Field. [Option ID = 1695]
Shamim Ara claimed her dower after the death of her husband from her husband?s property. She is a/an [Question ID = 453]
1. preferential creditor to all other creditors subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1809]
2. ordinary unsecured creditor, having no priority over other unsecured creditors, subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1812]
3. ordinary unsecured creditor but having priority over other unsecured creditors [Option ID = 1811]
4. secured creditor subject to her right of retention. [Option ID = 1810]
Correct Answer :-
ordinary unsecured creditor, having no priority over other unsecured creditors, subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1812]
To cede a part of the Indian Territory in favour of any foreign country, which one of the following procedural requirement must be
complied with? [Question ID = 503]
1. A law made by Parliament to the effect would be relevant and sufficient. [Option ID = 2012]
2. A law must be passed in compliance with Article 3 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2009]
3. A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed in compliance with Article 368 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2010]
4. A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed to amend the Constitution as per Article 368 and followed up by a law passed relatable to Article 3 of the
Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2011]
Correct Answer :-
A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed in compliance with Article 368 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2010]
Who defined defamation as ?publication of a statement which tends to lower a person in the estimation of right thinking members of
society generally, or which tends to make them shun or avoid that person?. [Question ID = 461]
1. Winfield [Option ID = 1841]
2. Glanville Williams [Option ID = 1844]
3. Salmond [Option ID = 1842]
4. Pollock [Option ID = 1843]
Correct Answer :-
Winfield [Option ID = 1841]
Who among the following can file a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986?
[Question ID = 457]
1. Any recognised consumer association [Option ID = 1826]
2. The Central Government or any State Government [Option ID = 1827]
3. A consumer [Option ID = 1825]
4. All of these [Option ID = 1828]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1828]
In which of the following cases has the Supreme Court made it mandatory for candidates contesting elections to the legislatures and
their spouses to declare their source of income at the time of filing nominations?
[Question ID = 478]
1. People?s Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India [Option ID = 1912]
2. Jan Chaukidar v. Union of India [Option ID = 1910]
3. Association for Democratic Reforms v. Union of India [Option ID = 1911]
4. Lok Prahari v. Union of India [Option ID = 1909]
Correct Answer :-
Lok Prahari v. Union of India [Option ID = 1909]
In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that the public authority providing services or goods as per the definition
under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 must be held liable to pay adequate compensation to the consumer for harassment or mental
agony or oppression caused to him for capricious exercise of power and the money could then be recovered from the erring public
officials?
32)
33)
34)
35)
36)
[Question ID = 465]
1. State of Gujarat v. Memom Mahomed [Option ID = 1860]
2. Shyam Sunder v. State of Rajasthan [Option ID = 1858]
3. Indian Medical Association v. V.P. Shantha [Option ID = 1857]
4. Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta [Option ID = 1859]
Correct Answer :-
Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta [Option ID = 1859]
In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that ?An intermediary shall be liable for a third party information hosted by
him if upon receiving actual knowledge from the court order or on being notified by the appropriate government, he fails to expeditiously
remove that material??
[Question ID = 438]
1. My Space Inc. v. Super Cassettes [Option ID = 1750]
2. Google India Pvt. Ltd. v. M/s Visaka Industries [Option ID = 1751]
3. Shreya Singhal v. Union of India [Option ID = 1749]
4. Avinash Bajaj v. State [Option ID = 1752]
Correct Answer :-
Shreya Singhal v. Union of India [Option ID = 1749]
In which of the following case, Lord Wilberforce opined that ?It is necessary to consider three elements inherent in any claim for
nervous shock: the class of persons whose claim should be recognized, the proximity of such persons to the incident and the means
adopted by which shock is caused??
[Question ID = 464]
1. Page v. Smith [Option ID = 1855]
2. Hinz v. Berry [Option ID = 1854]
3. Bourhill v. Young [Option ID = 1856]
4. McLoughlin v. O?Brian [Option ID = 1853]
Correct Answer :-
McLoughlin v. O?Brian [Option ID = 1853]
In which of the following offences minimum five offenders are required?
1. Affray
2. Robbery
3. Dacoity
4. Rioting
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 475]
1. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1897]
2. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1898]
3. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1900]
4. 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1899]
Correct Answer :-
3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1899]
A foreign company intends to merge with an Indian Company. As per the relevant provision in the Companies (Compromises,
Arrangements and Amalgamation) Rules, 2016, it needs to obtain prior approval of [Question ID = 442]
1. Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs. [Option ID = 1766]
2. Securities and Exchange Board of India. [Option ID = 1765]
3. Reserve Bank of India. [Option ID = 1767]
4. Department of Economic Affairs. [Option ID = 1768]
Correct Answer :-
Reserve Bank of India. [Option ID = 1767]
Who coined the term ?Compensatory Discrimination?? [Question ID = 512]
1. Prof. P.N. Singh [Option ID = 2047]
2. Prof. Marc Galanter [Option ID = 2046]
3. Prof. Upendra Baxi [Option ID = 2048]
37)
38)
39)
40)
41)
42)
4. Justice Krishna Iyer [Option ID = 2045]
Correct Answer :-
Prof. Marc Galanter [Option ID = 2046]
What is the limitation period for filing a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986? [Question ID = 459]
1. One year from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1834]
2. 2 years from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1833]
3. 6 months from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1835]
4. 90 days from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1836]
Correct Answer :-
2 years from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1833]
What is the role of section 135, Trade Marks Act, 1999? [Question ID = 434]
1. relief for recovery of property [Option ID = 1734]
2. relief for specific performance [Option ID = 1735]
3. relief for infringement [Option ID = 1733]
4. declaration of the title [Option ID = 1736]
Correct Answer :-
relief for infringement [Option ID = 1733]
What is the principle of complementarity in the context of the International Criminal Court (ICC)? [Question ID = 427]
1. It means the ICC will assist the domestic criminal court in trial and prosecution of the individual accused of committing crimes enlisted in the Rome
Statute, 1998. [Option ID = 1707]
2. It means the ICC will seek for demand production of accused to its jurisdiction. [Option ID = 1708]
3. It means the ICC will prosecute an individual only when that individual submits to its jurisdiction. [Option ID = 1706]
4. It means the ICC will only prosecute an individual if states are unwilling or unable to prosecute. [Option ID = 1705]
Correct Answer :-
It means the ICC will only prosecute an individual if states are unwilling or unable to prosecute. [Option ID = 1705]
The question regarding disqualification of the Speaker of Lok Sabha under the X Schedule of the Constitution of India is referred for
the decision to [Question ID = 479]
1. A member elected for this purpose by the Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1916]
2. Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1914]
3. Deputy Chairperson of Rajya Sabha [Option ID = 1913]
4. President of India [Option ID = 1915]
Correct Answer :-
A member elected for this purpose by the Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1916]
Dissolution of a firm can be carried by
[Question ID = 447]
1. expiry of the term for which it was constituted. [Option ID = 1786]
2. adjudication of a partner as an insolvent. [Option ID = 1787]
3. death of a partner. [Option ID = 1785]
4. All of these [Option ID = 1788]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1788]
?A?, ?B? and ?C? are partners in a partnership firm named AB&C. ?A? retires from the firm without giving any public notice. Thereafter, an
existing creditor lends Rs. ten lakh to the firm on the basis of his knowledge that ?A?, ?B? and ?C? are the three partners in the firm. This
amount remains unpaid by the firm. The creditor wants to recover the unpaid loan amount from the firm. [Question ID = 445]
1. No one will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1780]
2. ?A?, ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1778]
3. Only ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1779]
4. Only ?A? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1777]
Correct Answer :-
43)
44)
45)
46)
?A?, ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1778]
Assertion (A): Distributive justice is based on the principle that there has to be equal distribution amongst the equals.
Reason (R): Reasonable classification is the essence of equality as justice cannot be achieved by promulgating uniform law for everyone.
1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct reason for A.
2. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct reason for A.
3. Both A and R are incorrect.
4. A is incorrect but R is correct.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 488]
1. 2 [Option ID = 1950]
2. 1 [Option ID = 1949]
3. 3 [Option ID = 1951]
4. 4 [Option ID = 1952]
Correct Answer :-
1 [Option ID = 1949]
Consider the following statement about the Military Staff Committee:
1. It shall advise and assist the Security Council on all questions relating to military requirements for maintenance of international peace
and security.
2. It shall consist of Chiefs of Staff of the permanent members and two non- members nominated by the General Assembly.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 420]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1679]
2. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1680]
3. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1677]
4. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1678]
Correct Answer :-
Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1677]
Consider the following statements:
1. Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons is the first legally binding international agreement to comprehensively prohibit nuclear
weapons.
2. It was passed on July 7, 2017 by the Security Council.
3. It has not come into force.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 426]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1701]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1702]
3. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1704]
4. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1703]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1703]
Consider the following statements:
1. Moses v. Macferlan is a prominent example of theory of unjust enrichment as propounded by Lord Mansfield.
2. According to this theory, the demands of justice and equity is to prevent the unjust enrichment of one person at the cost of another.
3. Sinclair v. Brougham has propounded the theory of ?Implied-in-fact? contract to elaborate the nature of Quasi Contracts.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 491]
1. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1961]
2. Only 1 and 3 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1964]
3. Only 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1962]
47)
48)
49)
50)
51)
4. Only 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1963]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1961]
Consider the following statements:
1. A contract with a minor is void, however, a minor can after attaining majority ratify an agreement made by him during his minority.
2. Minor is not liable for the wrongful act when the cause of action in substance is ex contractu.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 496]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1983]
2. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1984]
3. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1981]
4. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1982]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1982]
Consider the following statements:
1. The Bolitho test relates to medical negligence.
2. The Bolitho test was referred to in Malay Kumar Ganguly v. Sukumar Mukherjee.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 458]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1830]
2. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1829]
3. 1 is correct but 2 is incorrect. [Option ID = 1831]
4. 1 is incorrect but 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1832]
Correct Answer :-
Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1830]
Savithri, a married Hindu woman died intestate leaving behind her husband and mother. Properties mentioned in Schedule ?A? was
inherited by her from her father and Schedule ?B? property was her self-acquired property. Pick out the correct legal proposition from
below: [Question ID = 456]
1. Her husband and mother will share equally in both the properties. [Option ID = 1821]
2. Her husband alone will succeed to both properties. [Option ID = 1822]
3. Her husband will inherit Schedule ?B? property and mother will inherit Schedule ?A? property. [Option ID = 1824]
4. Her mother will alone succeed to both properties. [Option ID = 1823]
Correct Answer :-
Her husband will inherit Schedule ?B? property and mother will inherit Schedule ?A? property. [Option ID = 1824]
Article 290-A of the Constitution of India refers to [Question ID = 505]
1. Annual payment to certain Devaswom Funds [Option ID = 2020]
2. Privy purse sums of Rulers [Option ID = 2017]
3. Exemption of property and income of a State from Union taxation [Option ID = 2018]
4. Exemption from taxation by States in respect of water or electricity in certain cases [Option ID = 2019]
Correct Answer :-
Annual payment to certain Devaswom Funds [Option ID = 2020]
Match the cases mentioned in List I with legal issues mentioned in List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
52)
Codes:
[Question ID = 449]
1. [Option ID = 1793]
2. [Option ID = 1794]
3. [Option ID = 1796]
4. [Option ID = 1795]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1795]
53)
[Question ID = 53444]
1. [Option ID = 93763]
2. [Option ID = 93764]
3. [Option ID = 93761]
4. [Option ID = 93762]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 93761]
54)
[Question ID = 495]
1. [Option ID = 1978]
2. [Option ID = 1977]
3. [Option ID = 1980]
4. [Option ID = 1979]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1980]
FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
1)
2)
3)
4)
DU LLM
Topic:- DU_J18_LLM_Topic01
Which of the following statement is true regarding the social contract theory on origin of State?
1. State is a creation of agreement between people
2. Thomas Hobbes? social contract theory supported limited constitutional monarchy
3. According to Rousseau, the ruler was bound by the general will of the people
4. According to Locke, the sovereign was absolute and his word was the law.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 485]
1. All are correct. [Option ID = 1940]
2. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1938]
3. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
4. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1937]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
[Question ID = 500]
1. A stipulation in a contract of sale may be a condition or warranty. [Option ID = 1997]
2. A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
3. A breach of condition results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1998]
4. All these [Option ID = 2000]
Correct Answer :-
A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
Which of the following exceptions to strict liability were recognised by Justice Blackburn in Rylands v. Fletcher?
1. Vis major
2. Statutory authority
3. Plaintiff?s own default
4. Act of third party
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 463]
1. 3 and 4 [Option ID = 1849]
2. 1, 2 and 3 [Option ID = 1851]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1852]
4. 1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Which of the following Acts was amended by the Criminal Law Amendment Act, 2013?
[Question ID = 467]
1. None of these [Option ID = 1868]
2. The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 [Option ID = 1867]
3. The Information Technology Act, 2000 [Option ID = 1865]
4. The Immoral Trafficking (Prevention) Act, 1956 [Option ID = 1866]
Correct Answer :-
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 [Option ID = 1867]
Which of the following observations on fundamental rights was made by the Supreme Court in K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India?
1. There is no overlap between rights enumerated under Article 19 and Article 21 of the Constitution of India.
2. The constitutional values embodied under every Article of Part III of the Constitution of India animates the interpretation of the other.
3. Only Article 21 contains residue of fundamental rights that are not expressly stipulated under Article 19 of the Constitution of India.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 501]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 2004]
2. Only 3 is correct. [Option ID = 2001]
3. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2002]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 2003]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2002]
Which of the following is sensitive personal information according to rule 3 of the Information Technology (Reasonable Security
Practices and Procedures and Sensitive Data or Information) Rules, 2011?
1. Credit card details
2. Medical records
3. Mobile number
4. Sexual orientation
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 436]
1. 1, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1742]
2. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1743]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1741]
4. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1744]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1743]
Which of the following is/are mechanism/mechanisms of pacific settlement of disputes under the UN Charter?
[Question ID = 419]
1. Enquiry [Option ID = 1673]
2. Judicial Settlement [Option ID = 1675]
3. Arbitration [Option ID = 1674]
4. All these [Option ID = 1676]
Correct Answer :-
All these [Option ID = 1676]
Which of the following actions of host is allowed under the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations of 1961:
[Question ID = 425]
1. The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata. [Option ID
= 1697]
2. The host state can any time search the premises of the diplomatic staff. [Option ID = 1699]
3. The host state can at any time withdraw the immunities granted to diplomats. [Option ID = 1700]
4. The host state can at any time confiscate the diplomatic bag. [Option ID = 1698]
Correct Answer :-
The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata.
[Option ID = 1697]
Which of the following provisions of the UN Charter is correctly matched:
10)
11)
12)
13)
14)
[Question ID = 428]
1. Article 2 (5) Principle of Settlement of Disputes by Peaceful Means [Option ID = 1712]
2. Article 2 (6) Principle of Non-Intervention [Option ID = 1710]
3. Article 2 (4) Prohibition on Use of Force [Option ID = 1709]
4. Article 2 (2) Principle of Sovereign Equality of the UN Members [Option ID = 1711]
Correct Answer :-
Article 2 (4) Prohibition on Use of Force [Option ID = 1709]
Which of the following are ?Inventions Not Patentable? under the Patent Act, 1970?
[Question ID = 431]
1. Invention relating to atomic Energy [Option ID = 1723]
2. A method of agriculture or horticulture [Option ID = 1721]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1724]
4. Topography of integrated circuits [Option ID = 1722]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1724]
Which of the following are conditions of a valid Hindu marriage in accordance with section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
1. Prior consent of the parties.
2. Neither Party must have a spouse living at the time of the marriage.
3. The bridegroom must have completed the age of 21 years and the bride, the age of 18 years at the time of the marriage.
4. The parties are not sagotras of each other.
5. The parties are not sapindas of each other.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 452]
1. Only 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1808]
2. Only 1, 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1805]
3. Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1807]
4. Only 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1806]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1806]
Which of the following is an example of obligatio erga omnes of states under International Law?
[Question ID = 422]
1. Protection from Wars [Option ID = 1687]
2. Protection from slavery [Option ID = 1685]
3. Protection from Political Crimes [Option ID = 1686]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1688]
Correct Answer :-
Protection from slavery [Option ID = 1685]
Which of the following is an implied condition in case of a contract for sale by sample?
[Question ID = 499]
1. Goods shall not be free from any defect, rendering them unmerchantable, which would not be apparent on reasonable examination of the sample. [Option
ID = 1995]
2. Bulk not corresponding with the sample in quality. [Option ID = 1993]
3. Buyer shall not have a reasonable opportunity of comparing the bulk with the sample. [Option ID = 1994]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1996]
Correct Answer :-
None of these [Option ID = 1996]
Read the following statements about the offence of dacoity under the Indian Penal Code, 1860:
15)
16)
17)
18)
19)
1. Attempt to commit dacoity is punishable.
2. Assembling for the purpose of dacoity is punishable.
3. Preparation for dacoity is punishable.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 477]
1. Only 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1907]
2. Only 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1908]
3. Only 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1906]
4. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1905]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1905]
Which among the following is generally referred to as the subtle species of fraud? [Question ID = 498]
1. Undue Influence [Option ID = 1990]
2. Deliberate Mistake [Option ID = 1992]
3. Misrepresentation [Option ID = 1989]
4. Coercion [Option ID = 1991]
Correct Answer :-
Undue Influence [Option ID = 1990]
A member of the UN may be suspended from its membership [Question ID = 417]
1. by the Security Council [Option ID = 1666]
2. by the International Court of Justice upon the request made by the UN General Assembly [Option ID = 1665]
3. by the General Assembly upon the recommendations of the Security Council [Option ID = 1667]
4. by the UN Secretary General [Option ID = 1668]
Correct Answer :-
by the General Assembly upon the recommendations of the Security Council [Option ID = 1667]
According to the Information Technology Act, 2000, an electronic record is deemed to be received at a place where addressee
[Question ID = 439]
1. All these [Option ID = 1756]
2. has his server. [Option ID = 1753]
3. has his place of business. [Option ID = 1754]
4. retrieves the record. [Option ID = 1755]
Correct Answer :-
has his place of business. [Option ID = 1754]
According to Fuller, in order to evade failure, law must have the following characteristics:
1. Law must be publicly accessible
2. Law must be clear and unambiguous
3. Law must not command what cannot be done
4. Law must introduce frequent changes
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 481]
1. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1923]
2. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1921]
3. All are correct. [Option ID = 1924]
4. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1922]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1921]
Who among the following remarked that international law is positive morality? [Question ID = 486]
1. Lon Fuller [Option ID = 1941]
2. Jeremy Bentham [Option ID = 1942]
3. H.L.A. Hart [Option ID = 1943]
20)
21)
22)
23)
24)
25)
4. John Austin [Option ID = 1944]
Correct Answer :-
John Austin [Option ID = 1944]
Trade mark includes
[Question ID = 435]
1. Certification mark [Option ID = 1737]
2. Collective mark [Option ID = 1738]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1740]
4. Well known trade mark [Option ID = 1739]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1740]
Lakshmi and Ram married under the Special Marriage Act, 1954. Ram died in 2010 leaving behind Lakshmi, his mother, a son and a
daughter. The intestate and testamentary succession to his property would be governed by [Question ID = 454]
1. Intestate succession according to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and testamentary succession according to the Indian Succession Act, 1925. [Option ID
= 1816]
2. His ancestral property would devolve on his son and mother and separate property to his wife, son and daughter. [Option ID = 1815]
3. The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 [Option ID = 1813]
4. The Indian Succession Act, 1925 [Option ID = 1814]
Correct Answer :-
Intestate succession according to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and testamentary succession according to the Indian Succession Act, 1925. [Option
ID = 1816]
Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 is applicable in cases of cruelty by husband or relatives of the husband within
[Question ID = 476]
1. 2 years of marriage [Option ID = 1903]
2. 3 years of marriage [Option ID = 1902]
3. No time limit [Option ID = 1904]
4. 7 years of marriage [Option ID = 1901]
Correct Answer :-
No time limit [Option ID = 1904]
John Rawls? idea of basing justice on a contract has been challenged by [Question ID = 487]
1. Jeremy Bentham [Option ID = 1945]
2. Tom Bingham [Option ID = 1947]
3. Amartya Sen [Option ID = 1946]
4. Upendra Baxi [Option ID = 1948]
Correct Answer :-
Amartya Sen [Option ID = 1946]
Dinesh finds a gold ring on the road, not knowing to whom the ring belongs. Dinesh picks up the ring. Dinesh is guilty of which
offence under the Indian Penal Code, 1860? [Question ID = 471]
1. No offence [Option ID = 1884]
2. Theft [Option ID = 1882]
3. Criminal breach of trust [Option ID = 1883]
4. Dishonest Misappropriation [Option ID = 1881]
Correct Answer :-
No offence [Option ID = 1884]
First Geneva Convention of 1949 deals with
[Question ID = 424]
1. Amelioration of the Condition of the Wounded and Sick in Armed Forces in the Field. [Option ID = 1695]
2. Amelioration of the Condition of Wounded, Sick and Shipwrecked Members of Armed Forces at Sea. [Option ID = 1694]
26)
27)
28)
29)
30)
31)
3. Treatment of Prisoners of War. [Option ID = 1693]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1696]
Correct Answer :-
Amelioration of the Condition of the Wounded and Sick in Armed Forces in the Field. [Option ID = 1695]
Shamim Ara claimed her dower after the death of her husband from her husband?s property. She is a/an [Question ID = 453]
1. preferential creditor to all other creditors subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1809]
2. ordinary unsecured creditor, having no priority over other unsecured creditors, subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1812]
3. ordinary unsecured creditor but having priority over other unsecured creditors [Option ID = 1811]
4. secured creditor subject to her right of retention. [Option ID = 1810]
Correct Answer :-
ordinary unsecured creditor, having no priority over other unsecured creditors, subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1812]
To cede a part of the Indian Territory in favour of any foreign country, which one of the following procedural requirement must be
complied with? [Question ID = 503]
1. A law made by Parliament to the effect would be relevant and sufficient. [Option ID = 2012]
2. A law must be passed in compliance with Article 3 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2009]
3. A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed in compliance with Article 368 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2010]
4. A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed to amend the Constitution as per Article 368 and followed up by a law passed relatable to Article 3 of the
Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2011]
Correct Answer :-
A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed in compliance with Article 368 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2010]
Who defined defamation as ?publication of a statement which tends to lower a person in the estimation of right thinking members of
society generally, or which tends to make them shun or avoid that person?. [Question ID = 461]
1. Winfield [Option ID = 1841]
2. Glanville Williams [Option ID = 1844]
3. Salmond [Option ID = 1842]
4. Pollock [Option ID = 1843]
Correct Answer :-
Winfield [Option ID = 1841]
Who among the following can file a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986?
[Question ID = 457]
1. Any recognised consumer association [Option ID = 1826]
2. The Central Government or any State Government [Option ID = 1827]
3. A consumer [Option ID = 1825]
4. All of these [Option ID = 1828]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1828]
In which of the following cases has the Supreme Court made it mandatory for candidates contesting elections to the legislatures and
their spouses to declare their source of income at the time of filing nominations?
[Question ID = 478]
1. People?s Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India [Option ID = 1912]
2. Jan Chaukidar v. Union of India [Option ID = 1910]
3. Association for Democratic Reforms v. Union of India [Option ID = 1911]
4. Lok Prahari v. Union of India [Option ID = 1909]
Correct Answer :-
Lok Prahari v. Union of India [Option ID = 1909]
In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that the public authority providing services or goods as per the definition
under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 must be held liable to pay adequate compensation to the consumer for harassment or mental
agony or oppression caused to him for capricious exercise of power and the money could then be recovered from the erring public
officials?
32)
33)
34)
35)
36)
[Question ID = 465]
1. State of Gujarat v. Memom Mahomed [Option ID = 1860]
2. Shyam Sunder v. State of Rajasthan [Option ID = 1858]
3. Indian Medical Association v. V.P. Shantha [Option ID = 1857]
4. Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta [Option ID = 1859]
Correct Answer :-
Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta [Option ID = 1859]
In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that ?An intermediary shall be liable for a third party information hosted by
him if upon receiving actual knowledge from the court order or on being notified by the appropriate government, he fails to expeditiously
remove that material??
[Question ID = 438]
1. My Space Inc. v. Super Cassettes [Option ID = 1750]
2. Google India Pvt. Ltd. v. M/s Visaka Industries [Option ID = 1751]
3. Shreya Singhal v. Union of India [Option ID = 1749]
4. Avinash Bajaj v. State [Option ID = 1752]
Correct Answer :-
Shreya Singhal v. Union of India [Option ID = 1749]
In which of the following case, Lord Wilberforce opined that ?It is necessary to consider three elements inherent in any claim for
nervous shock: the class of persons whose claim should be recognized, the proximity of such persons to the incident and the means
adopted by which shock is caused??
[Question ID = 464]
1. Page v. Smith [Option ID = 1855]
2. Hinz v. Berry [Option ID = 1854]
3. Bourhill v. Young [Option ID = 1856]
4. McLoughlin v. O?Brian [Option ID = 1853]
Correct Answer :-
McLoughlin v. O?Brian [Option ID = 1853]
In which of the following offences minimum five offenders are required?
1. Affray
2. Robbery
3. Dacoity
4. Rioting
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 475]
1. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1897]
2. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1898]
3. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1900]
4. 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1899]
Correct Answer :-
3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1899]
A foreign company intends to merge with an Indian Company. As per the relevant provision in the Companies (Compromises,
Arrangements and Amalgamation) Rules, 2016, it needs to obtain prior approval of [Question ID = 442]
1. Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs. [Option ID = 1766]
2. Securities and Exchange Board of India. [Option ID = 1765]
3. Reserve Bank of India. [Option ID = 1767]
4. Department of Economic Affairs. [Option ID = 1768]
Correct Answer :-
Reserve Bank of India. [Option ID = 1767]
Who coined the term ?Compensatory Discrimination?? [Question ID = 512]
1. Prof. P.N. Singh [Option ID = 2047]
2. Prof. Marc Galanter [Option ID = 2046]
3. Prof. Upendra Baxi [Option ID = 2048]
37)
38)
39)
40)
41)
42)
4. Justice Krishna Iyer [Option ID = 2045]
Correct Answer :-
Prof. Marc Galanter [Option ID = 2046]
What is the limitation period for filing a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986? [Question ID = 459]
1. One year from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1834]
2. 2 years from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1833]
3. 6 months from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1835]
4. 90 days from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1836]
Correct Answer :-
2 years from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1833]
What is the role of section 135, Trade Marks Act, 1999? [Question ID = 434]
1. relief for recovery of property [Option ID = 1734]
2. relief for specific performance [Option ID = 1735]
3. relief for infringement [Option ID = 1733]
4. declaration of the title [Option ID = 1736]
Correct Answer :-
relief for infringement [Option ID = 1733]
What is the principle of complementarity in the context of the International Criminal Court (ICC)? [Question ID = 427]
1. It means the ICC will assist the domestic criminal court in trial and prosecution of the individual accused of committing crimes enlisted in the Rome
Statute, 1998. [Option ID = 1707]
2. It means the ICC will seek for demand production of accused to its jurisdiction. [Option ID = 1708]
3. It means the ICC will prosecute an individual only when that individual submits to its jurisdiction. [Option ID = 1706]
4. It means the ICC will only prosecute an individual if states are unwilling or unable to prosecute. [Option ID = 1705]
Correct Answer :-
It means the ICC will only prosecute an individual if states are unwilling or unable to prosecute. [Option ID = 1705]
The question regarding disqualification of the Speaker of Lok Sabha under the X Schedule of the Constitution of India is referred for
the decision to [Question ID = 479]
1. A member elected for this purpose by the Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1916]
2. Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1914]
3. Deputy Chairperson of Rajya Sabha [Option ID = 1913]
4. President of India [Option ID = 1915]
Correct Answer :-
A member elected for this purpose by the Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1916]
Dissolution of a firm can be carried by
[Question ID = 447]
1. expiry of the term for which it was constituted. [Option ID = 1786]
2. adjudication of a partner as an insolvent. [Option ID = 1787]
3. death of a partner. [Option ID = 1785]
4. All of these [Option ID = 1788]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1788]
?A?, ?B? and ?C? are partners in a partnership firm named AB&C. ?A? retires from the firm without giving any public notice. Thereafter, an
existing creditor lends Rs. ten lakh to the firm on the basis of his knowledge that ?A?, ?B? and ?C? are the three partners in the firm. This
amount remains unpaid by the firm. The creditor wants to recover the unpaid loan amount from the firm. [Question ID = 445]
1. No one will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1780]
2. ?A?, ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1778]
3. Only ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1779]
4. Only ?A? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1777]
Correct Answer :-
43)
44)
45)
46)
?A?, ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1778]
Assertion (A): Distributive justice is based on the principle that there has to be equal distribution amongst the equals.
Reason (R): Reasonable classification is the essence of equality as justice cannot be achieved by promulgating uniform law for everyone.
1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct reason for A.
2. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct reason for A.
3. Both A and R are incorrect.
4. A is incorrect but R is correct.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 488]
1. 2 [Option ID = 1950]
2. 1 [Option ID = 1949]
3. 3 [Option ID = 1951]
4. 4 [Option ID = 1952]
Correct Answer :-
1 [Option ID = 1949]
Consider the following statement about the Military Staff Committee:
1. It shall advise and assist the Security Council on all questions relating to military requirements for maintenance of international peace
and security.
2. It shall consist of Chiefs of Staff of the permanent members and two non- members nominated by the General Assembly.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 420]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1679]
2. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1680]
3. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1677]
4. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1678]
Correct Answer :-
Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1677]
Consider the following statements:
1. Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons is the first legally binding international agreement to comprehensively prohibit nuclear
weapons.
2. It was passed on July 7, 2017 by the Security Council.
3. It has not come into force.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 426]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1701]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1702]
3. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1704]
4. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1703]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1703]
Consider the following statements:
1. Moses v. Macferlan is a prominent example of theory of unjust enrichment as propounded by Lord Mansfield.
2. According to this theory, the demands of justice and equity is to prevent the unjust enrichment of one person at the cost of another.
3. Sinclair v. Brougham has propounded the theory of ?Implied-in-fact? contract to elaborate the nature of Quasi Contracts.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 491]
1. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1961]
2. Only 1 and 3 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1964]
3. Only 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1962]
47)
48)
49)
50)
51)
4. Only 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1963]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1961]
Consider the following statements:
1. A contract with a minor is void, however, a minor can after attaining majority ratify an agreement made by him during his minority.
2. Minor is not liable for the wrongful act when the cause of action in substance is ex contractu.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 496]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1983]
2. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1984]
3. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1981]
4. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1982]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1982]
Consider the following statements:
1. The Bolitho test relates to medical negligence.
2. The Bolitho test was referred to in Malay Kumar Ganguly v. Sukumar Mukherjee.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 458]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1830]
2. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1829]
3. 1 is correct but 2 is incorrect. [Option ID = 1831]
4. 1 is incorrect but 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1832]
Correct Answer :-
Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1830]
Savithri, a married Hindu woman died intestate leaving behind her husband and mother. Properties mentioned in Schedule ?A? was
inherited by her from her father and Schedule ?B? property was her self-acquired property. Pick out the correct legal proposition from
below: [Question ID = 456]
1. Her husband and mother will share equally in both the properties. [Option ID = 1821]
2. Her husband alone will succeed to both properties. [Option ID = 1822]
3. Her husband will inherit Schedule ?B? property and mother will inherit Schedule ?A? property. [Option ID = 1824]
4. Her mother will alone succeed to both properties. [Option ID = 1823]
Correct Answer :-
Her husband will inherit Schedule ?B? property and mother will inherit Schedule ?A? property. [Option ID = 1824]
Article 290-A of the Constitution of India refers to [Question ID = 505]
1. Annual payment to certain Devaswom Funds [Option ID = 2020]
2. Privy purse sums of Rulers [Option ID = 2017]
3. Exemption of property and income of a State from Union taxation [Option ID = 2018]
4. Exemption from taxation by States in respect of water or electricity in certain cases [Option ID = 2019]
Correct Answer :-
Annual payment to certain Devaswom Funds [Option ID = 2020]
Match the cases mentioned in List I with legal issues mentioned in List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
52)
Codes:
[Question ID = 449]
1. [Option ID = 1793]
2. [Option ID = 1794]
3. [Option ID = 1796]
4. [Option ID = 1795]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1795]
53)
[Question ID = 53444]
1. [Option ID = 93763]
2. [Option ID = 93764]
3. [Option ID = 93761]
4. [Option ID = 93762]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 93761]
54)
[Question ID = 495]
1. [Option ID = 1978]
2. [Option ID = 1977]
3. [Option ID = 1980]
4. [Option ID = 1979]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1980]
55)
[Question ID = 462]
1. [Option ID = 1848]
2. [Option ID = 1845]
3. [Option ID = 1846]
4. [Option ID = 1847]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1847]
[Question ID = 492]
FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
1)
2)
3)
4)
DU LLM
Topic:- DU_J18_LLM_Topic01
Which of the following statement is true regarding the social contract theory on origin of State?
1. State is a creation of agreement between people
2. Thomas Hobbes? social contract theory supported limited constitutional monarchy
3. According to Rousseau, the ruler was bound by the general will of the people
4. According to Locke, the sovereign was absolute and his word was the law.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 485]
1. All are correct. [Option ID = 1940]
2. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1938]
3. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
4. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1937]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
[Question ID = 500]
1. A stipulation in a contract of sale may be a condition or warranty. [Option ID = 1997]
2. A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
3. A breach of condition results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1998]
4. All these [Option ID = 2000]
Correct Answer :-
A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
Which of the following exceptions to strict liability were recognised by Justice Blackburn in Rylands v. Fletcher?
1. Vis major
2. Statutory authority
3. Plaintiff?s own default
4. Act of third party
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 463]
1. 3 and 4 [Option ID = 1849]
2. 1, 2 and 3 [Option ID = 1851]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1852]
4. 1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Which of the following Acts was amended by the Criminal Law Amendment Act, 2013?
[Question ID = 467]
1. None of these [Option ID = 1868]
2. The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 [Option ID = 1867]
3. The Information Technology Act, 2000 [Option ID = 1865]
4. The Immoral Trafficking (Prevention) Act, 1956 [Option ID = 1866]
Correct Answer :-
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 [Option ID = 1867]
Which of the following observations on fundamental rights was made by the Supreme Court in K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India?
1. There is no overlap between rights enumerated under Article 19 and Article 21 of the Constitution of India.
2. The constitutional values embodied under every Article of Part III of the Constitution of India animates the interpretation of the other.
3. Only Article 21 contains residue of fundamental rights that are not expressly stipulated under Article 19 of the Constitution of India.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 501]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 2004]
2. Only 3 is correct. [Option ID = 2001]
3. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2002]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 2003]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2002]
Which of the following is sensitive personal information according to rule 3 of the Information Technology (Reasonable Security
Practices and Procedures and Sensitive Data or Information) Rules, 2011?
1. Credit card details
2. Medical records
3. Mobile number
4. Sexual orientation
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 436]
1. 1, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1742]
2. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1743]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1741]
4. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1744]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1743]
Which of the following is/are mechanism/mechanisms of pacific settlement of disputes under the UN Charter?
[Question ID = 419]
1. Enquiry [Option ID = 1673]
2. Judicial Settlement [Option ID = 1675]
3. Arbitration [Option ID = 1674]
4. All these [Option ID = 1676]
Correct Answer :-
All these [Option ID = 1676]
Which of the following actions of host is allowed under the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations of 1961:
[Question ID = 425]
1. The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata. [Option ID
= 1697]
2. The host state can any time search the premises of the diplomatic staff. [Option ID = 1699]
3. The host state can at any time withdraw the immunities granted to diplomats. [Option ID = 1700]
4. The host state can at any time confiscate the diplomatic bag. [Option ID = 1698]
Correct Answer :-
The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata.
[Option ID = 1697]
Which of the following provisions of the UN Charter is correctly matched:
10)
11)
12)
13)
14)
[Question ID = 428]
1. Article 2 (5) Principle of Settlement of Disputes by Peaceful Means [Option ID = 1712]
2. Article 2 (6) Principle of Non-Intervention [Option ID = 1710]
3. Article 2 (4) Prohibition on Use of Force [Option ID = 1709]
4. Article 2 (2) Principle of Sovereign Equality of the UN Members [Option ID = 1711]
Correct Answer :-
Article 2 (4) Prohibition on Use of Force [Option ID = 1709]
Which of the following are ?Inventions Not Patentable? under the Patent Act, 1970?
[Question ID = 431]
1. Invention relating to atomic Energy [Option ID = 1723]
2. A method of agriculture or horticulture [Option ID = 1721]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1724]
4. Topography of integrated circuits [Option ID = 1722]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1724]
Which of the following are conditions of a valid Hindu marriage in accordance with section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
1. Prior consent of the parties.
2. Neither Party must have a spouse living at the time of the marriage.
3. The bridegroom must have completed the age of 21 years and the bride, the age of 18 years at the time of the marriage.
4. The parties are not sagotras of each other.
5. The parties are not sapindas of each other.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 452]
1. Only 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1808]
2. Only 1, 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1805]
3. Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1807]
4. Only 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1806]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1806]
Which of the following is an example of obligatio erga omnes of states under International Law?
[Question ID = 422]
1. Protection from Wars [Option ID = 1687]
2. Protection from slavery [Option ID = 1685]
3. Protection from Political Crimes [Option ID = 1686]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1688]
Correct Answer :-
Protection from slavery [Option ID = 1685]
Which of the following is an implied condition in case of a contract for sale by sample?
[Question ID = 499]
1. Goods shall not be free from any defect, rendering them unmerchantable, which would not be apparent on reasonable examination of the sample. [Option
ID = 1995]
2. Bulk not corresponding with the sample in quality. [Option ID = 1993]
3. Buyer shall not have a reasonable opportunity of comparing the bulk with the sample. [Option ID = 1994]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1996]
Correct Answer :-
None of these [Option ID = 1996]
Read the following statements about the offence of dacoity under the Indian Penal Code, 1860:
15)
16)
17)
18)
19)
1. Attempt to commit dacoity is punishable.
2. Assembling for the purpose of dacoity is punishable.
3. Preparation for dacoity is punishable.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 477]
1. Only 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1907]
2. Only 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1908]
3. Only 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1906]
4. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1905]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1905]
Which among the following is generally referred to as the subtle species of fraud? [Question ID = 498]
1. Undue Influence [Option ID = 1990]
2. Deliberate Mistake [Option ID = 1992]
3. Misrepresentation [Option ID = 1989]
4. Coercion [Option ID = 1991]
Correct Answer :-
Undue Influence [Option ID = 1990]
A member of the UN may be suspended from its membership [Question ID = 417]
1. by the Security Council [Option ID = 1666]
2. by the International Court of Justice upon the request made by the UN General Assembly [Option ID = 1665]
3. by the General Assembly upon the recommendations of the Security Council [Option ID = 1667]
4. by the UN Secretary General [Option ID = 1668]
Correct Answer :-
by the General Assembly upon the recommendations of the Security Council [Option ID = 1667]
According to the Information Technology Act, 2000, an electronic record is deemed to be received at a place where addressee
[Question ID = 439]
1. All these [Option ID = 1756]
2. has his server. [Option ID = 1753]
3. has his place of business. [Option ID = 1754]
4. retrieves the record. [Option ID = 1755]
Correct Answer :-
has his place of business. [Option ID = 1754]
According to Fuller, in order to evade failure, law must have the following characteristics:
1. Law must be publicly accessible
2. Law must be clear and unambiguous
3. Law must not command what cannot be done
4. Law must introduce frequent changes
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 481]
1. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1923]
2. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1921]
3. All are correct. [Option ID = 1924]
4. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1922]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1921]
Who among the following remarked that international law is positive morality? [Question ID = 486]
1. Lon Fuller [Option ID = 1941]
2. Jeremy Bentham [Option ID = 1942]
3. H.L.A. Hart [Option ID = 1943]
20)
21)
22)
23)
24)
25)
4. John Austin [Option ID = 1944]
Correct Answer :-
John Austin [Option ID = 1944]
Trade mark includes
[Question ID = 435]
1. Certification mark [Option ID = 1737]
2. Collective mark [Option ID = 1738]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1740]
4. Well known trade mark [Option ID = 1739]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1740]
Lakshmi and Ram married under the Special Marriage Act, 1954. Ram died in 2010 leaving behind Lakshmi, his mother, a son and a
daughter. The intestate and testamentary succession to his property would be governed by [Question ID = 454]
1. Intestate succession according to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and testamentary succession according to the Indian Succession Act, 1925. [Option ID
= 1816]
2. His ancestral property would devolve on his son and mother and separate property to his wife, son and daughter. [Option ID = 1815]
3. The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 [Option ID = 1813]
4. The Indian Succession Act, 1925 [Option ID = 1814]
Correct Answer :-
Intestate succession according to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and testamentary succession according to the Indian Succession Act, 1925. [Option
ID = 1816]
Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 is applicable in cases of cruelty by husband or relatives of the husband within
[Question ID = 476]
1. 2 years of marriage [Option ID = 1903]
2. 3 years of marriage [Option ID = 1902]
3. No time limit [Option ID = 1904]
4. 7 years of marriage [Option ID = 1901]
Correct Answer :-
No time limit [Option ID = 1904]
John Rawls? idea of basing justice on a contract has been challenged by [Question ID = 487]
1. Jeremy Bentham [Option ID = 1945]
2. Tom Bingham [Option ID = 1947]
3. Amartya Sen [Option ID = 1946]
4. Upendra Baxi [Option ID = 1948]
Correct Answer :-
Amartya Sen [Option ID = 1946]
Dinesh finds a gold ring on the road, not knowing to whom the ring belongs. Dinesh picks up the ring. Dinesh is guilty of which
offence under the Indian Penal Code, 1860? [Question ID = 471]
1. No offence [Option ID = 1884]
2. Theft [Option ID = 1882]
3. Criminal breach of trust [Option ID = 1883]
4. Dishonest Misappropriation [Option ID = 1881]
Correct Answer :-
No offence [Option ID = 1884]
First Geneva Convention of 1949 deals with
[Question ID = 424]
1. Amelioration of the Condition of the Wounded and Sick in Armed Forces in the Field. [Option ID = 1695]
2. Amelioration of the Condition of Wounded, Sick and Shipwrecked Members of Armed Forces at Sea. [Option ID = 1694]
26)
27)
28)
29)
30)
31)
3. Treatment of Prisoners of War. [Option ID = 1693]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1696]
Correct Answer :-
Amelioration of the Condition of the Wounded and Sick in Armed Forces in the Field. [Option ID = 1695]
Shamim Ara claimed her dower after the death of her husband from her husband?s property. She is a/an [Question ID = 453]
1. preferential creditor to all other creditors subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1809]
2. ordinary unsecured creditor, having no priority over other unsecured creditors, subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1812]
3. ordinary unsecured creditor but having priority over other unsecured creditors [Option ID = 1811]
4. secured creditor subject to her right of retention. [Option ID = 1810]
Correct Answer :-
ordinary unsecured creditor, having no priority over other unsecured creditors, subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1812]
To cede a part of the Indian Territory in favour of any foreign country, which one of the following procedural requirement must be
complied with? [Question ID = 503]
1. A law made by Parliament to the effect would be relevant and sufficient. [Option ID = 2012]
2. A law must be passed in compliance with Article 3 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2009]
3. A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed in compliance with Article 368 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2010]
4. A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed to amend the Constitution as per Article 368 and followed up by a law passed relatable to Article 3 of the
Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2011]
Correct Answer :-
A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed in compliance with Article 368 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2010]
Who defined defamation as ?publication of a statement which tends to lower a person in the estimation of right thinking members of
society generally, or which tends to make them shun or avoid that person?. [Question ID = 461]
1. Winfield [Option ID = 1841]
2. Glanville Williams [Option ID = 1844]
3. Salmond [Option ID = 1842]
4. Pollock [Option ID = 1843]
Correct Answer :-
Winfield [Option ID = 1841]
Who among the following can file a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986?
[Question ID = 457]
1. Any recognised consumer association [Option ID = 1826]
2. The Central Government or any State Government [Option ID = 1827]
3. A consumer [Option ID = 1825]
4. All of these [Option ID = 1828]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1828]
In which of the following cases has the Supreme Court made it mandatory for candidates contesting elections to the legislatures and
their spouses to declare their source of income at the time of filing nominations?
[Question ID = 478]
1. People?s Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India [Option ID = 1912]
2. Jan Chaukidar v. Union of India [Option ID = 1910]
3. Association for Democratic Reforms v. Union of India [Option ID = 1911]
4. Lok Prahari v. Union of India [Option ID = 1909]
Correct Answer :-
Lok Prahari v. Union of India [Option ID = 1909]
In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that the public authority providing services or goods as per the definition
under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 must be held liable to pay adequate compensation to the consumer for harassment or mental
agony or oppression caused to him for capricious exercise of power and the money could then be recovered from the erring public
officials?
32)
33)
34)
35)
36)
[Question ID = 465]
1. State of Gujarat v. Memom Mahomed [Option ID = 1860]
2. Shyam Sunder v. State of Rajasthan [Option ID = 1858]
3. Indian Medical Association v. V.P. Shantha [Option ID = 1857]
4. Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta [Option ID = 1859]
Correct Answer :-
Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta [Option ID = 1859]
In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that ?An intermediary shall be liable for a third party information hosted by
him if upon receiving actual knowledge from the court order or on being notified by the appropriate government, he fails to expeditiously
remove that material??
[Question ID = 438]
1. My Space Inc. v. Super Cassettes [Option ID = 1750]
2. Google India Pvt. Ltd. v. M/s Visaka Industries [Option ID = 1751]
3. Shreya Singhal v. Union of India [Option ID = 1749]
4. Avinash Bajaj v. State [Option ID = 1752]
Correct Answer :-
Shreya Singhal v. Union of India [Option ID = 1749]
In which of the following case, Lord Wilberforce opined that ?It is necessary to consider three elements inherent in any claim for
nervous shock: the class of persons whose claim should be recognized, the proximity of such persons to the incident and the means
adopted by which shock is caused??
[Question ID = 464]
1. Page v. Smith [Option ID = 1855]
2. Hinz v. Berry [Option ID = 1854]
3. Bourhill v. Young [Option ID = 1856]
4. McLoughlin v. O?Brian [Option ID = 1853]
Correct Answer :-
McLoughlin v. O?Brian [Option ID = 1853]
In which of the following offences minimum five offenders are required?
1. Affray
2. Robbery
3. Dacoity
4. Rioting
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 475]
1. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1897]
2. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1898]
3. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1900]
4. 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1899]
Correct Answer :-
3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1899]
A foreign company intends to merge with an Indian Company. As per the relevant provision in the Companies (Compromises,
Arrangements and Amalgamation) Rules, 2016, it needs to obtain prior approval of [Question ID = 442]
1. Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs. [Option ID = 1766]
2. Securities and Exchange Board of India. [Option ID = 1765]
3. Reserve Bank of India. [Option ID = 1767]
4. Department of Economic Affairs. [Option ID = 1768]
Correct Answer :-
Reserve Bank of India. [Option ID = 1767]
Who coined the term ?Compensatory Discrimination?? [Question ID = 512]
1. Prof. P.N. Singh [Option ID = 2047]
2. Prof. Marc Galanter [Option ID = 2046]
3. Prof. Upendra Baxi [Option ID = 2048]
37)
38)
39)
40)
41)
42)
4. Justice Krishna Iyer [Option ID = 2045]
Correct Answer :-
Prof. Marc Galanter [Option ID = 2046]
What is the limitation period for filing a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986? [Question ID = 459]
1. One year from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1834]
2. 2 years from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1833]
3. 6 months from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1835]
4. 90 days from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1836]
Correct Answer :-
2 years from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1833]
What is the role of section 135, Trade Marks Act, 1999? [Question ID = 434]
1. relief for recovery of property [Option ID = 1734]
2. relief for specific performance [Option ID = 1735]
3. relief for infringement [Option ID = 1733]
4. declaration of the title [Option ID = 1736]
Correct Answer :-
relief for infringement [Option ID = 1733]
What is the principle of complementarity in the context of the International Criminal Court (ICC)? [Question ID = 427]
1. It means the ICC will assist the domestic criminal court in trial and prosecution of the individual accused of committing crimes enlisted in the Rome
Statute, 1998. [Option ID = 1707]
2. It means the ICC will seek for demand production of accused to its jurisdiction. [Option ID = 1708]
3. It means the ICC will prosecute an individual only when that individual submits to its jurisdiction. [Option ID = 1706]
4. It means the ICC will only prosecute an individual if states are unwilling or unable to prosecute. [Option ID = 1705]
Correct Answer :-
It means the ICC will only prosecute an individual if states are unwilling or unable to prosecute. [Option ID = 1705]
The question regarding disqualification of the Speaker of Lok Sabha under the X Schedule of the Constitution of India is referred for
the decision to [Question ID = 479]
1. A member elected for this purpose by the Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1916]
2. Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1914]
3. Deputy Chairperson of Rajya Sabha [Option ID = 1913]
4. President of India [Option ID = 1915]
Correct Answer :-
A member elected for this purpose by the Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1916]
Dissolution of a firm can be carried by
[Question ID = 447]
1. expiry of the term for which it was constituted. [Option ID = 1786]
2. adjudication of a partner as an insolvent. [Option ID = 1787]
3. death of a partner. [Option ID = 1785]
4. All of these [Option ID = 1788]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1788]
?A?, ?B? and ?C? are partners in a partnership firm named AB&C. ?A? retires from the firm without giving any public notice. Thereafter, an
existing creditor lends Rs. ten lakh to the firm on the basis of his knowledge that ?A?, ?B? and ?C? are the three partners in the firm. This
amount remains unpaid by the firm. The creditor wants to recover the unpaid loan amount from the firm. [Question ID = 445]
1. No one will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1780]
2. ?A?, ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1778]
3. Only ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1779]
4. Only ?A? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1777]
Correct Answer :-
43)
44)
45)
46)
?A?, ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1778]
Assertion (A): Distributive justice is based on the principle that there has to be equal distribution amongst the equals.
Reason (R): Reasonable classification is the essence of equality as justice cannot be achieved by promulgating uniform law for everyone.
1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct reason for A.
2. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct reason for A.
3. Both A and R are incorrect.
4. A is incorrect but R is correct.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 488]
1. 2 [Option ID = 1950]
2. 1 [Option ID = 1949]
3. 3 [Option ID = 1951]
4. 4 [Option ID = 1952]
Correct Answer :-
1 [Option ID = 1949]
Consider the following statement about the Military Staff Committee:
1. It shall advise and assist the Security Council on all questions relating to military requirements for maintenance of international peace
and security.
2. It shall consist of Chiefs of Staff of the permanent members and two non- members nominated by the General Assembly.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 420]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1679]
2. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1680]
3. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1677]
4. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1678]
Correct Answer :-
Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1677]
Consider the following statements:
1. Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons is the first legally binding international agreement to comprehensively prohibit nuclear
weapons.
2. It was passed on July 7, 2017 by the Security Council.
3. It has not come into force.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 426]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1701]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1702]
3. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1704]
4. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1703]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1703]
Consider the following statements:
1. Moses v. Macferlan is a prominent example of theory of unjust enrichment as propounded by Lord Mansfield.
2. According to this theory, the demands of justice and equity is to prevent the unjust enrichment of one person at the cost of another.
3. Sinclair v. Brougham has propounded the theory of ?Implied-in-fact? contract to elaborate the nature of Quasi Contracts.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 491]
1. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1961]
2. Only 1 and 3 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1964]
3. Only 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1962]
47)
48)
49)
50)
51)
4. Only 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1963]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1961]
Consider the following statements:
1. A contract with a minor is void, however, a minor can after attaining majority ratify an agreement made by him during his minority.
2. Minor is not liable for the wrongful act when the cause of action in substance is ex contractu.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 496]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1983]
2. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1984]
3. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1981]
4. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1982]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1982]
Consider the following statements:
1. The Bolitho test relates to medical negligence.
2. The Bolitho test was referred to in Malay Kumar Ganguly v. Sukumar Mukherjee.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 458]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1830]
2. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1829]
3. 1 is correct but 2 is incorrect. [Option ID = 1831]
4. 1 is incorrect but 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1832]
Correct Answer :-
Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1830]
Savithri, a married Hindu woman died intestate leaving behind her husband and mother. Properties mentioned in Schedule ?A? was
inherited by her from her father and Schedule ?B? property was her self-acquired property. Pick out the correct legal proposition from
below: [Question ID = 456]
1. Her husband and mother will share equally in both the properties. [Option ID = 1821]
2. Her husband alone will succeed to both properties. [Option ID = 1822]
3. Her husband will inherit Schedule ?B? property and mother will inherit Schedule ?A? property. [Option ID = 1824]
4. Her mother will alone succeed to both properties. [Option ID = 1823]
Correct Answer :-
Her husband will inherit Schedule ?B? property and mother will inherit Schedule ?A? property. [Option ID = 1824]
Article 290-A of the Constitution of India refers to [Question ID = 505]
1. Annual payment to certain Devaswom Funds [Option ID = 2020]
2. Privy purse sums of Rulers [Option ID = 2017]
3. Exemption of property and income of a State from Union taxation [Option ID = 2018]
4. Exemption from taxation by States in respect of water or electricity in certain cases [Option ID = 2019]
Correct Answer :-
Annual payment to certain Devaswom Funds [Option ID = 2020]
Match the cases mentioned in List I with legal issues mentioned in List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
52)
Codes:
[Question ID = 449]
1. [Option ID = 1793]
2. [Option ID = 1794]
3. [Option ID = 1796]
4. [Option ID = 1795]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1795]
53)
[Question ID = 53444]
1. [Option ID = 93763]
2. [Option ID = 93764]
3. [Option ID = 93761]
4. [Option ID = 93762]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 93761]
54)
[Question ID = 495]
1. [Option ID = 1978]
2. [Option ID = 1977]
3. [Option ID = 1980]
4. [Option ID = 1979]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1980]
55)
[Question ID = 462]
1. [Option ID = 1848]
2. [Option ID = 1845]
3. [Option ID = 1846]
4. [Option ID = 1847]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1847]
[Question ID = 492]
56)
1. [Option ID = 1966]
2. [Option ID = 1968]
3. [Option ID = 1965]
4. [Option ID = 1967]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1968]
[Question ID = 472]
1. [Option ID = 1888]
2. [Option ID = 1887]
3. [Option ID = 1885]
FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
1)
2)
3)
4)
DU LLM
Topic:- DU_J18_LLM_Topic01
Which of the following statement is true regarding the social contract theory on origin of State?
1. State is a creation of agreement between people
2. Thomas Hobbes? social contract theory supported limited constitutional monarchy
3. According to Rousseau, the ruler was bound by the general will of the people
4. According to Locke, the sovereign was absolute and his word was the law.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 485]
1. All are correct. [Option ID = 1940]
2. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1938]
3. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
4. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1937]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
[Question ID = 500]
1. A stipulation in a contract of sale may be a condition or warranty. [Option ID = 1997]
2. A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
3. A breach of condition results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1998]
4. All these [Option ID = 2000]
Correct Answer :-
A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
Which of the following exceptions to strict liability were recognised by Justice Blackburn in Rylands v. Fletcher?
1. Vis major
2. Statutory authority
3. Plaintiff?s own default
4. Act of third party
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 463]
1. 3 and 4 [Option ID = 1849]
2. 1, 2 and 3 [Option ID = 1851]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1852]
4. 1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Which of the following Acts was amended by the Criminal Law Amendment Act, 2013?
[Question ID = 467]
1. None of these [Option ID = 1868]
2. The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 [Option ID = 1867]
3. The Information Technology Act, 2000 [Option ID = 1865]
4. The Immoral Trafficking (Prevention) Act, 1956 [Option ID = 1866]
Correct Answer :-
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 [Option ID = 1867]
Which of the following observations on fundamental rights was made by the Supreme Court in K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India?
1. There is no overlap between rights enumerated under Article 19 and Article 21 of the Constitution of India.
2. The constitutional values embodied under every Article of Part III of the Constitution of India animates the interpretation of the other.
3. Only Article 21 contains residue of fundamental rights that are not expressly stipulated under Article 19 of the Constitution of India.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 501]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 2004]
2. Only 3 is correct. [Option ID = 2001]
3. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2002]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 2003]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2002]
Which of the following is sensitive personal information according to rule 3 of the Information Technology (Reasonable Security
Practices and Procedures and Sensitive Data or Information) Rules, 2011?
1. Credit card details
2. Medical records
3. Mobile number
4. Sexual orientation
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 436]
1. 1, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1742]
2. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1743]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1741]
4. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1744]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1743]
Which of the following is/are mechanism/mechanisms of pacific settlement of disputes under the UN Charter?
[Question ID = 419]
1. Enquiry [Option ID = 1673]
2. Judicial Settlement [Option ID = 1675]
3. Arbitration [Option ID = 1674]
4. All these [Option ID = 1676]
Correct Answer :-
All these [Option ID = 1676]
Which of the following actions of host is allowed under the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations of 1961:
[Question ID = 425]
1. The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata. [Option ID
= 1697]
2. The host state can any time search the premises of the diplomatic staff. [Option ID = 1699]
3. The host state can at any time withdraw the immunities granted to diplomats. [Option ID = 1700]
4. The host state can at any time confiscate the diplomatic bag. [Option ID = 1698]
Correct Answer :-
The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata.
[Option ID = 1697]
Which of the following provisions of the UN Charter is correctly matched:
10)
11)
12)
13)
14)
[Question ID = 428]
1. Article 2 (5) Principle of Settlement of Disputes by Peaceful Means [Option ID = 1712]
2. Article 2 (6) Principle of Non-Intervention [Option ID = 1710]
3. Article 2 (4) Prohibition on Use of Force [Option ID = 1709]
4. Article 2 (2) Principle of Sovereign Equality of the UN Members [Option ID = 1711]
Correct Answer :-
Article 2 (4) Prohibition on Use of Force [Option ID = 1709]
Which of the following are ?Inventions Not Patentable? under the Patent Act, 1970?
[Question ID = 431]
1. Invention relating to atomic Energy [Option ID = 1723]
2. A method of agriculture or horticulture [Option ID = 1721]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1724]
4. Topography of integrated circuits [Option ID = 1722]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1724]
Which of the following are conditions of a valid Hindu marriage in accordance with section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
1. Prior consent of the parties.
2. Neither Party must have a spouse living at the time of the marriage.
3. The bridegroom must have completed the age of 21 years and the bride, the age of 18 years at the time of the marriage.
4. The parties are not sagotras of each other.
5. The parties are not sapindas of each other.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 452]
1. Only 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1808]
2. Only 1, 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1805]
3. Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1807]
4. Only 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1806]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1806]
Which of the following is an example of obligatio erga omnes of states under International Law?
[Question ID = 422]
1. Protection from Wars [Option ID = 1687]
2. Protection from slavery [Option ID = 1685]
3. Protection from Political Crimes [Option ID = 1686]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1688]
Correct Answer :-
Protection from slavery [Option ID = 1685]
Which of the following is an implied condition in case of a contract for sale by sample?
[Question ID = 499]
1. Goods shall not be free from any defect, rendering them unmerchantable, which would not be apparent on reasonable examination of the sample. [Option
ID = 1995]
2. Bulk not corresponding with the sample in quality. [Option ID = 1993]
3. Buyer shall not have a reasonable opportunity of comparing the bulk with the sample. [Option ID = 1994]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1996]
Correct Answer :-
None of these [Option ID = 1996]
Read the following statements about the offence of dacoity under the Indian Penal Code, 1860:
15)
16)
17)
18)
19)
1. Attempt to commit dacoity is punishable.
2. Assembling for the purpose of dacoity is punishable.
3. Preparation for dacoity is punishable.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 477]
1. Only 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1907]
2. Only 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1908]
3. Only 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1906]
4. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1905]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1905]
Which among the following is generally referred to as the subtle species of fraud? [Question ID = 498]
1. Undue Influence [Option ID = 1990]
2. Deliberate Mistake [Option ID = 1992]
3. Misrepresentation [Option ID = 1989]
4. Coercion [Option ID = 1991]
Correct Answer :-
Undue Influence [Option ID = 1990]
A member of the UN may be suspended from its membership [Question ID = 417]
1. by the Security Council [Option ID = 1666]
2. by the International Court of Justice upon the request made by the UN General Assembly [Option ID = 1665]
3. by the General Assembly upon the recommendations of the Security Council [Option ID = 1667]
4. by the UN Secretary General [Option ID = 1668]
Correct Answer :-
by the General Assembly upon the recommendations of the Security Council [Option ID = 1667]
According to the Information Technology Act, 2000, an electronic record is deemed to be received at a place where addressee
[Question ID = 439]
1. All these [Option ID = 1756]
2. has his server. [Option ID = 1753]
3. has his place of business. [Option ID = 1754]
4. retrieves the record. [Option ID = 1755]
Correct Answer :-
has his place of business. [Option ID = 1754]
According to Fuller, in order to evade failure, law must have the following characteristics:
1. Law must be publicly accessible
2. Law must be clear and unambiguous
3. Law must not command what cannot be done
4. Law must introduce frequent changes
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 481]
1. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1923]
2. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1921]
3. All are correct. [Option ID = 1924]
4. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1922]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1921]
Who among the following remarked that international law is positive morality? [Question ID = 486]
1. Lon Fuller [Option ID = 1941]
2. Jeremy Bentham [Option ID = 1942]
3. H.L.A. Hart [Option ID = 1943]
20)
21)
22)
23)
24)
25)
4. John Austin [Option ID = 1944]
Correct Answer :-
John Austin [Option ID = 1944]
Trade mark includes
[Question ID = 435]
1. Certification mark [Option ID = 1737]
2. Collective mark [Option ID = 1738]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1740]
4. Well known trade mark [Option ID = 1739]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1740]
Lakshmi and Ram married under the Special Marriage Act, 1954. Ram died in 2010 leaving behind Lakshmi, his mother, a son and a
daughter. The intestate and testamentary succession to his property would be governed by [Question ID = 454]
1. Intestate succession according to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and testamentary succession according to the Indian Succession Act, 1925. [Option ID
= 1816]
2. His ancestral property would devolve on his son and mother and separate property to his wife, son and daughter. [Option ID = 1815]
3. The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 [Option ID = 1813]
4. The Indian Succession Act, 1925 [Option ID = 1814]
Correct Answer :-
Intestate succession according to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and testamentary succession according to the Indian Succession Act, 1925. [Option
ID = 1816]
Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 is applicable in cases of cruelty by husband or relatives of the husband within
[Question ID = 476]
1. 2 years of marriage [Option ID = 1903]
2. 3 years of marriage [Option ID = 1902]
3. No time limit [Option ID = 1904]
4. 7 years of marriage [Option ID = 1901]
Correct Answer :-
No time limit [Option ID = 1904]
John Rawls? idea of basing justice on a contract has been challenged by [Question ID = 487]
1. Jeremy Bentham [Option ID = 1945]
2. Tom Bingham [Option ID = 1947]
3. Amartya Sen [Option ID = 1946]
4. Upendra Baxi [Option ID = 1948]
Correct Answer :-
Amartya Sen [Option ID = 1946]
Dinesh finds a gold ring on the road, not knowing to whom the ring belongs. Dinesh picks up the ring. Dinesh is guilty of which
offence under the Indian Penal Code, 1860? [Question ID = 471]
1. No offence [Option ID = 1884]
2. Theft [Option ID = 1882]
3. Criminal breach of trust [Option ID = 1883]
4. Dishonest Misappropriation [Option ID = 1881]
Correct Answer :-
No offence [Option ID = 1884]
First Geneva Convention of 1949 deals with
[Question ID = 424]
1. Amelioration of the Condition of the Wounded and Sick in Armed Forces in the Field. [Option ID = 1695]
2. Amelioration of the Condition of Wounded, Sick and Shipwrecked Members of Armed Forces at Sea. [Option ID = 1694]
26)
27)
28)
29)
30)
31)
3. Treatment of Prisoners of War. [Option ID = 1693]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1696]
Correct Answer :-
Amelioration of the Condition of the Wounded and Sick in Armed Forces in the Field. [Option ID = 1695]
Shamim Ara claimed her dower after the death of her husband from her husband?s property. She is a/an [Question ID = 453]
1. preferential creditor to all other creditors subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1809]
2. ordinary unsecured creditor, having no priority over other unsecured creditors, subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1812]
3. ordinary unsecured creditor but having priority over other unsecured creditors [Option ID = 1811]
4. secured creditor subject to her right of retention. [Option ID = 1810]
Correct Answer :-
ordinary unsecured creditor, having no priority over other unsecured creditors, subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1812]
To cede a part of the Indian Territory in favour of any foreign country, which one of the following procedural requirement must be
complied with? [Question ID = 503]
1. A law made by Parliament to the effect would be relevant and sufficient. [Option ID = 2012]
2. A law must be passed in compliance with Article 3 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2009]
3. A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed in compliance with Article 368 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2010]
4. A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed to amend the Constitution as per Article 368 and followed up by a law passed relatable to Article 3 of the
Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2011]
Correct Answer :-
A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed in compliance with Article 368 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2010]
Who defined defamation as ?publication of a statement which tends to lower a person in the estimation of right thinking members of
society generally, or which tends to make them shun or avoid that person?. [Question ID = 461]
1. Winfield [Option ID = 1841]
2. Glanville Williams [Option ID = 1844]
3. Salmond [Option ID = 1842]
4. Pollock [Option ID = 1843]
Correct Answer :-
Winfield [Option ID = 1841]
Who among the following can file a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986?
[Question ID = 457]
1. Any recognised consumer association [Option ID = 1826]
2. The Central Government or any State Government [Option ID = 1827]
3. A consumer [Option ID = 1825]
4. All of these [Option ID = 1828]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1828]
In which of the following cases has the Supreme Court made it mandatory for candidates contesting elections to the legislatures and
their spouses to declare their source of income at the time of filing nominations?
[Question ID = 478]
1. People?s Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India [Option ID = 1912]
2. Jan Chaukidar v. Union of India [Option ID = 1910]
3. Association for Democratic Reforms v. Union of India [Option ID = 1911]
4. Lok Prahari v. Union of India [Option ID = 1909]
Correct Answer :-
Lok Prahari v. Union of India [Option ID = 1909]
In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that the public authority providing services or goods as per the definition
under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 must be held liable to pay adequate compensation to the consumer for harassment or mental
agony or oppression caused to him for capricious exercise of power and the money could then be recovered from the erring public
officials?
32)
33)
34)
35)
36)
[Question ID = 465]
1. State of Gujarat v. Memom Mahomed [Option ID = 1860]
2. Shyam Sunder v. State of Rajasthan [Option ID = 1858]
3. Indian Medical Association v. V.P. Shantha [Option ID = 1857]
4. Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta [Option ID = 1859]
Correct Answer :-
Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta [Option ID = 1859]
In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that ?An intermediary shall be liable for a third party information hosted by
him if upon receiving actual knowledge from the court order or on being notified by the appropriate government, he fails to expeditiously
remove that material??
[Question ID = 438]
1. My Space Inc. v. Super Cassettes [Option ID = 1750]
2. Google India Pvt. Ltd. v. M/s Visaka Industries [Option ID = 1751]
3. Shreya Singhal v. Union of India [Option ID = 1749]
4. Avinash Bajaj v. State [Option ID = 1752]
Correct Answer :-
Shreya Singhal v. Union of India [Option ID = 1749]
In which of the following case, Lord Wilberforce opined that ?It is necessary to consider three elements inherent in any claim for
nervous shock: the class of persons whose claim should be recognized, the proximity of such persons to the incident and the means
adopted by which shock is caused??
[Question ID = 464]
1. Page v. Smith [Option ID = 1855]
2. Hinz v. Berry [Option ID = 1854]
3. Bourhill v. Young [Option ID = 1856]
4. McLoughlin v. O?Brian [Option ID = 1853]
Correct Answer :-
McLoughlin v. O?Brian [Option ID = 1853]
In which of the following offences minimum five offenders are required?
1. Affray
2. Robbery
3. Dacoity
4. Rioting
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 475]
1. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1897]
2. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1898]
3. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1900]
4. 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1899]
Correct Answer :-
3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1899]
A foreign company intends to merge with an Indian Company. As per the relevant provision in the Companies (Compromises,
Arrangements and Amalgamation) Rules, 2016, it needs to obtain prior approval of [Question ID = 442]
1. Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs. [Option ID = 1766]
2. Securities and Exchange Board of India. [Option ID = 1765]
3. Reserve Bank of India. [Option ID = 1767]
4. Department of Economic Affairs. [Option ID = 1768]
Correct Answer :-
Reserve Bank of India. [Option ID = 1767]
Who coined the term ?Compensatory Discrimination?? [Question ID = 512]
1. Prof. P.N. Singh [Option ID = 2047]
2. Prof. Marc Galanter [Option ID = 2046]
3. Prof. Upendra Baxi [Option ID = 2048]
37)
38)
39)
40)
41)
42)
4. Justice Krishna Iyer [Option ID = 2045]
Correct Answer :-
Prof. Marc Galanter [Option ID = 2046]
What is the limitation period for filing a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986? [Question ID = 459]
1. One year from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1834]
2. 2 years from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1833]
3. 6 months from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1835]
4. 90 days from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1836]
Correct Answer :-
2 years from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1833]
What is the role of section 135, Trade Marks Act, 1999? [Question ID = 434]
1. relief for recovery of property [Option ID = 1734]
2. relief for specific performance [Option ID = 1735]
3. relief for infringement [Option ID = 1733]
4. declaration of the title [Option ID = 1736]
Correct Answer :-
relief for infringement [Option ID = 1733]
What is the principle of complementarity in the context of the International Criminal Court (ICC)? [Question ID = 427]
1. It means the ICC will assist the domestic criminal court in trial and prosecution of the individual accused of committing crimes enlisted in the Rome
Statute, 1998. [Option ID = 1707]
2. It means the ICC will seek for demand production of accused to its jurisdiction. [Option ID = 1708]
3. It means the ICC will prosecute an individual only when that individual submits to its jurisdiction. [Option ID = 1706]
4. It means the ICC will only prosecute an individual if states are unwilling or unable to prosecute. [Option ID = 1705]
Correct Answer :-
It means the ICC will only prosecute an individual if states are unwilling or unable to prosecute. [Option ID = 1705]
The question regarding disqualification of the Speaker of Lok Sabha under the X Schedule of the Constitution of India is referred for
the decision to [Question ID = 479]
1. A member elected for this purpose by the Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1916]
2. Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1914]
3. Deputy Chairperson of Rajya Sabha [Option ID = 1913]
4. President of India [Option ID = 1915]
Correct Answer :-
A member elected for this purpose by the Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1916]
Dissolution of a firm can be carried by
[Question ID = 447]
1. expiry of the term for which it was constituted. [Option ID = 1786]
2. adjudication of a partner as an insolvent. [Option ID = 1787]
3. death of a partner. [Option ID = 1785]
4. All of these [Option ID = 1788]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1788]
?A?, ?B? and ?C? are partners in a partnership firm named AB&C. ?A? retires from the firm without giving any public notice. Thereafter, an
existing creditor lends Rs. ten lakh to the firm on the basis of his knowledge that ?A?, ?B? and ?C? are the three partners in the firm. This
amount remains unpaid by the firm. The creditor wants to recover the unpaid loan amount from the firm. [Question ID = 445]
1. No one will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1780]
2. ?A?, ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1778]
3. Only ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1779]
4. Only ?A? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1777]
Correct Answer :-
43)
44)
45)
46)
?A?, ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1778]
Assertion (A): Distributive justice is based on the principle that there has to be equal distribution amongst the equals.
Reason (R): Reasonable classification is the essence of equality as justice cannot be achieved by promulgating uniform law for everyone.
1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct reason for A.
2. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct reason for A.
3. Both A and R are incorrect.
4. A is incorrect but R is correct.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 488]
1. 2 [Option ID = 1950]
2. 1 [Option ID = 1949]
3. 3 [Option ID = 1951]
4. 4 [Option ID = 1952]
Correct Answer :-
1 [Option ID = 1949]
Consider the following statement about the Military Staff Committee:
1. It shall advise and assist the Security Council on all questions relating to military requirements for maintenance of international peace
and security.
2. It shall consist of Chiefs of Staff of the permanent members and two non- members nominated by the General Assembly.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 420]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1679]
2. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1680]
3. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1677]
4. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1678]
Correct Answer :-
Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1677]
Consider the following statements:
1. Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons is the first legally binding international agreement to comprehensively prohibit nuclear
weapons.
2. It was passed on July 7, 2017 by the Security Council.
3. It has not come into force.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 426]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1701]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1702]
3. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1704]
4. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1703]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1703]
Consider the following statements:
1. Moses v. Macferlan is a prominent example of theory of unjust enrichment as propounded by Lord Mansfield.
2. According to this theory, the demands of justice and equity is to prevent the unjust enrichment of one person at the cost of another.
3. Sinclair v. Brougham has propounded the theory of ?Implied-in-fact? contract to elaborate the nature of Quasi Contracts.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 491]
1. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1961]
2. Only 1 and 3 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1964]
3. Only 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1962]
47)
48)
49)
50)
51)
4. Only 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1963]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1961]
Consider the following statements:
1. A contract with a minor is void, however, a minor can after attaining majority ratify an agreement made by him during his minority.
2. Minor is not liable for the wrongful act when the cause of action in substance is ex contractu.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 496]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1983]
2. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1984]
3. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1981]
4. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1982]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1982]
Consider the following statements:
1. The Bolitho test relates to medical negligence.
2. The Bolitho test was referred to in Malay Kumar Ganguly v. Sukumar Mukherjee.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 458]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1830]
2. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1829]
3. 1 is correct but 2 is incorrect. [Option ID = 1831]
4. 1 is incorrect but 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1832]
Correct Answer :-
Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1830]
Savithri, a married Hindu woman died intestate leaving behind her husband and mother. Properties mentioned in Schedule ?A? was
inherited by her from her father and Schedule ?B? property was her self-acquired property. Pick out the correct legal proposition from
below: [Question ID = 456]
1. Her husband and mother will share equally in both the properties. [Option ID = 1821]
2. Her husband alone will succeed to both properties. [Option ID = 1822]
3. Her husband will inherit Schedule ?B? property and mother will inherit Schedule ?A? property. [Option ID = 1824]
4. Her mother will alone succeed to both properties. [Option ID = 1823]
Correct Answer :-
Her husband will inherit Schedule ?B? property and mother will inherit Schedule ?A? property. [Option ID = 1824]
Article 290-A of the Constitution of India refers to [Question ID = 505]
1. Annual payment to certain Devaswom Funds [Option ID = 2020]
2. Privy purse sums of Rulers [Option ID = 2017]
3. Exemption of property and income of a State from Union taxation [Option ID = 2018]
4. Exemption from taxation by States in respect of water or electricity in certain cases [Option ID = 2019]
Correct Answer :-
Annual payment to certain Devaswom Funds [Option ID = 2020]
Match the cases mentioned in List I with legal issues mentioned in List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
52)
Codes:
[Question ID = 449]
1. [Option ID = 1793]
2. [Option ID = 1794]
3. [Option ID = 1796]
4. [Option ID = 1795]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1795]
53)
[Question ID = 53444]
1. [Option ID = 93763]
2. [Option ID = 93764]
3. [Option ID = 93761]
4. [Option ID = 93762]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 93761]
54)
[Question ID = 495]
1. [Option ID = 1978]
2. [Option ID = 1977]
3. [Option ID = 1980]
4. [Option ID = 1979]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1980]
55)
[Question ID = 462]
1. [Option ID = 1848]
2. [Option ID = 1845]
3. [Option ID = 1846]
4. [Option ID = 1847]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1847]
[Question ID = 492]
56)
1. [Option ID = 1966]
2. [Option ID = 1968]
3. [Option ID = 1965]
4. [Option ID = 1967]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1968]
[Question ID = 472]
1. [Option ID = 1888]
2. [Option ID = 1887]
3. [Option ID = 1885]
57)
58)
4. [Option ID = 1886]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1888]
[Question ID = 490]
1. [Option ID = 1957]
2. [Option ID = 1958]
3. [Option ID = 1959]
4. [Option ID = 1960]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1958]
FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
1)
2)
3)
4)
DU LLM
Topic:- DU_J18_LLM_Topic01
Which of the following statement is true regarding the social contract theory on origin of State?
1. State is a creation of agreement between people
2. Thomas Hobbes? social contract theory supported limited constitutional monarchy
3. According to Rousseau, the ruler was bound by the general will of the people
4. According to Locke, the sovereign was absolute and his word was the law.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 485]
1. All are correct. [Option ID = 1940]
2. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1938]
3. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
4. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1937]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
[Question ID = 500]
1. A stipulation in a contract of sale may be a condition or warranty. [Option ID = 1997]
2. A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
3. A breach of condition results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1998]
4. All these [Option ID = 2000]
Correct Answer :-
A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
Which of the following exceptions to strict liability were recognised by Justice Blackburn in Rylands v. Fletcher?
1. Vis major
2. Statutory authority
3. Plaintiff?s own default
4. Act of third party
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 463]
1. 3 and 4 [Option ID = 1849]
2. 1, 2 and 3 [Option ID = 1851]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1852]
4. 1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Which of the following Acts was amended by the Criminal Law Amendment Act, 2013?
[Question ID = 467]
1. None of these [Option ID = 1868]
2. The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 [Option ID = 1867]
3. The Information Technology Act, 2000 [Option ID = 1865]
4. The Immoral Trafficking (Prevention) Act, 1956 [Option ID = 1866]
Correct Answer :-
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 [Option ID = 1867]
Which of the following observations on fundamental rights was made by the Supreme Court in K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India?
1. There is no overlap between rights enumerated under Article 19 and Article 21 of the Constitution of India.
2. The constitutional values embodied under every Article of Part III of the Constitution of India animates the interpretation of the other.
3. Only Article 21 contains residue of fundamental rights that are not expressly stipulated under Article 19 of the Constitution of India.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 501]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 2004]
2. Only 3 is correct. [Option ID = 2001]
3. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2002]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 2003]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2002]
Which of the following is sensitive personal information according to rule 3 of the Information Technology (Reasonable Security
Practices and Procedures and Sensitive Data or Information) Rules, 2011?
1. Credit card details
2. Medical records
3. Mobile number
4. Sexual orientation
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 436]
1. 1, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1742]
2. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1743]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1741]
4. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1744]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1743]
Which of the following is/are mechanism/mechanisms of pacific settlement of disputes under the UN Charter?
[Question ID = 419]
1. Enquiry [Option ID = 1673]
2. Judicial Settlement [Option ID = 1675]
3. Arbitration [Option ID = 1674]
4. All these [Option ID = 1676]
Correct Answer :-
All these [Option ID = 1676]
Which of the following actions of host is allowed under the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations of 1961:
[Question ID = 425]
1. The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata. [Option ID
= 1697]
2. The host state can any time search the premises of the diplomatic staff. [Option ID = 1699]
3. The host state can at any time withdraw the immunities granted to diplomats. [Option ID = 1700]
4. The host state can at any time confiscate the diplomatic bag. [Option ID = 1698]
Correct Answer :-
The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata.
[Option ID = 1697]
Which of the following provisions of the UN Charter is correctly matched:
10)
11)
12)
13)
14)
[Question ID = 428]
1. Article 2 (5) Principle of Settlement of Disputes by Peaceful Means [Option ID = 1712]
2. Article 2 (6) Principle of Non-Intervention [Option ID = 1710]
3. Article 2 (4) Prohibition on Use of Force [Option ID = 1709]
4. Article 2 (2) Principle of Sovereign Equality of the UN Members [Option ID = 1711]
Correct Answer :-
Article 2 (4) Prohibition on Use of Force [Option ID = 1709]
Which of the following are ?Inventions Not Patentable? under the Patent Act, 1970?
[Question ID = 431]
1. Invention relating to atomic Energy [Option ID = 1723]
2. A method of agriculture or horticulture [Option ID = 1721]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1724]
4. Topography of integrated circuits [Option ID = 1722]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1724]
Which of the following are conditions of a valid Hindu marriage in accordance with section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
1. Prior consent of the parties.
2. Neither Party must have a spouse living at the time of the marriage.
3. The bridegroom must have completed the age of 21 years and the bride, the age of 18 years at the time of the marriage.
4. The parties are not sagotras of each other.
5. The parties are not sapindas of each other.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 452]
1. Only 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1808]
2. Only 1, 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1805]
3. Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1807]
4. Only 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1806]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1806]
Which of the following is an example of obligatio erga omnes of states under International Law?
[Question ID = 422]
1. Protection from Wars [Option ID = 1687]
2. Protection from slavery [Option ID = 1685]
3. Protection from Political Crimes [Option ID = 1686]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1688]
Correct Answer :-
Protection from slavery [Option ID = 1685]
Which of the following is an implied condition in case of a contract for sale by sample?
[Question ID = 499]
1. Goods shall not be free from any defect, rendering them unmerchantable, which would not be apparent on reasonable examination of the sample. [Option
ID = 1995]
2. Bulk not corresponding with the sample in quality. [Option ID = 1993]
3. Buyer shall not have a reasonable opportunity of comparing the bulk with the sample. [Option ID = 1994]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1996]
Correct Answer :-
None of these [Option ID = 1996]
Read the following statements about the offence of dacoity under the Indian Penal Code, 1860:
15)
16)
17)
18)
19)
1. Attempt to commit dacoity is punishable.
2. Assembling for the purpose of dacoity is punishable.
3. Preparation for dacoity is punishable.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 477]
1. Only 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1907]
2. Only 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1908]
3. Only 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1906]
4. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1905]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1905]
Which among the following is generally referred to as the subtle species of fraud? [Question ID = 498]
1. Undue Influence [Option ID = 1990]
2. Deliberate Mistake [Option ID = 1992]
3. Misrepresentation [Option ID = 1989]
4. Coercion [Option ID = 1991]
Correct Answer :-
Undue Influence [Option ID = 1990]
A member of the UN may be suspended from its membership [Question ID = 417]
1. by the Security Council [Option ID = 1666]
2. by the International Court of Justice upon the request made by the UN General Assembly [Option ID = 1665]
3. by the General Assembly upon the recommendations of the Security Council [Option ID = 1667]
4. by the UN Secretary General [Option ID = 1668]
Correct Answer :-
by the General Assembly upon the recommendations of the Security Council [Option ID = 1667]
According to the Information Technology Act, 2000, an electronic record is deemed to be received at a place where addressee
[Question ID = 439]
1. All these [Option ID = 1756]
2. has his server. [Option ID = 1753]
3. has his place of business. [Option ID = 1754]
4. retrieves the record. [Option ID = 1755]
Correct Answer :-
has his place of business. [Option ID = 1754]
According to Fuller, in order to evade failure, law must have the following characteristics:
1. Law must be publicly accessible
2. Law must be clear and unambiguous
3. Law must not command what cannot be done
4. Law must introduce frequent changes
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 481]
1. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1923]
2. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1921]
3. All are correct. [Option ID = 1924]
4. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1922]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1921]
Who among the following remarked that international law is positive morality? [Question ID = 486]
1. Lon Fuller [Option ID = 1941]
2. Jeremy Bentham [Option ID = 1942]
3. H.L.A. Hart [Option ID = 1943]
20)
21)
22)
23)
24)
25)
4. John Austin [Option ID = 1944]
Correct Answer :-
John Austin [Option ID = 1944]
Trade mark includes
[Question ID = 435]
1. Certification mark [Option ID = 1737]
2. Collective mark [Option ID = 1738]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1740]
4. Well known trade mark [Option ID = 1739]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1740]
Lakshmi and Ram married under the Special Marriage Act, 1954. Ram died in 2010 leaving behind Lakshmi, his mother, a son and a
daughter. The intestate and testamentary succession to his property would be governed by [Question ID = 454]
1. Intestate succession according to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and testamentary succession according to the Indian Succession Act, 1925. [Option ID
= 1816]
2. His ancestral property would devolve on his son and mother and separate property to his wife, son and daughter. [Option ID = 1815]
3. The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 [Option ID = 1813]
4. The Indian Succession Act, 1925 [Option ID = 1814]
Correct Answer :-
Intestate succession according to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and testamentary succession according to the Indian Succession Act, 1925. [Option
ID = 1816]
Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 is applicable in cases of cruelty by husband or relatives of the husband within
[Question ID = 476]
1. 2 years of marriage [Option ID = 1903]
2. 3 years of marriage [Option ID = 1902]
3. No time limit [Option ID = 1904]
4. 7 years of marriage [Option ID = 1901]
Correct Answer :-
No time limit [Option ID = 1904]
John Rawls? idea of basing justice on a contract has been challenged by [Question ID = 487]
1. Jeremy Bentham [Option ID = 1945]
2. Tom Bingham [Option ID = 1947]
3. Amartya Sen [Option ID = 1946]
4. Upendra Baxi [Option ID = 1948]
Correct Answer :-
Amartya Sen [Option ID = 1946]
Dinesh finds a gold ring on the road, not knowing to whom the ring belongs. Dinesh picks up the ring. Dinesh is guilty of which
offence under the Indian Penal Code, 1860? [Question ID = 471]
1. No offence [Option ID = 1884]
2. Theft [Option ID = 1882]
3. Criminal breach of trust [Option ID = 1883]
4. Dishonest Misappropriation [Option ID = 1881]
Correct Answer :-
No offence [Option ID = 1884]
First Geneva Convention of 1949 deals with
[Question ID = 424]
1. Amelioration of the Condition of the Wounded and Sick in Armed Forces in the Field. [Option ID = 1695]
2. Amelioration of the Condition of Wounded, Sick and Shipwrecked Members of Armed Forces at Sea. [Option ID = 1694]
26)
27)
28)
29)
30)
31)
3. Treatment of Prisoners of War. [Option ID = 1693]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1696]
Correct Answer :-
Amelioration of the Condition of the Wounded and Sick in Armed Forces in the Field. [Option ID = 1695]
Shamim Ara claimed her dower after the death of her husband from her husband?s property. She is a/an [Question ID = 453]
1. preferential creditor to all other creditors subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1809]
2. ordinary unsecured creditor, having no priority over other unsecured creditors, subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1812]
3. ordinary unsecured creditor but having priority over other unsecured creditors [Option ID = 1811]
4. secured creditor subject to her right of retention. [Option ID = 1810]
Correct Answer :-
ordinary unsecured creditor, having no priority over other unsecured creditors, subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1812]
To cede a part of the Indian Territory in favour of any foreign country, which one of the following procedural requirement must be
complied with? [Question ID = 503]
1. A law made by Parliament to the effect would be relevant and sufficient. [Option ID = 2012]
2. A law must be passed in compliance with Article 3 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2009]
3. A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed in compliance with Article 368 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2010]
4. A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed to amend the Constitution as per Article 368 and followed up by a law passed relatable to Article 3 of the
Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2011]
Correct Answer :-
A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed in compliance with Article 368 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2010]
Who defined defamation as ?publication of a statement which tends to lower a person in the estimation of right thinking members of
society generally, or which tends to make them shun or avoid that person?. [Question ID = 461]
1. Winfield [Option ID = 1841]
2. Glanville Williams [Option ID = 1844]
3. Salmond [Option ID = 1842]
4. Pollock [Option ID = 1843]
Correct Answer :-
Winfield [Option ID = 1841]
Who among the following can file a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986?
[Question ID = 457]
1. Any recognised consumer association [Option ID = 1826]
2. The Central Government or any State Government [Option ID = 1827]
3. A consumer [Option ID = 1825]
4. All of these [Option ID = 1828]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1828]
In which of the following cases has the Supreme Court made it mandatory for candidates contesting elections to the legislatures and
their spouses to declare their source of income at the time of filing nominations?
[Question ID = 478]
1. People?s Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India [Option ID = 1912]
2. Jan Chaukidar v. Union of India [Option ID = 1910]
3. Association for Democratic Reforms v. Union of India [Option ID = 1911]
4. Lok Prahari v. Union of India [Option ID = 1909]
Correct Answer :-
Lok Prahari v. Union of India [Option ID = 1909]
In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that the public authority providing services or goods as per the definition
under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 must be held liable to pay adequate compensation to the consumer for harassment or mental
agony or oppression caused to him for capricious exercise of power and the money could then be recovered from the erring public
officials?
32)
33)
34)
35)
36)
[Question ID = 465]
1. State of Gujarat v. Memom Mahomed [Option ID = 1860]
2. Shyam Sunder v. State of Rajasthan [Option ID = 1858]
3. Indian Medical Association v. V.P. Shantha [Option ID = 1857]
4. Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta [Option ID = 1859]
Correct Answer :-
Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta [Option ID = 1859]
In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that ?An intermediary shall be liable for a third party information hosted by
him if upon receiving actual knowledge from the court order or on being notified by the appropriate government, he fails to expeditiously
remove that material??
[Question ID = 438]
1. My Space Inc. v. Super Cassettes [Option ID = 1750]
2. Google India Pvt. Ltd. v. M/s Visaka Industries [Option ID = 1751]
3. Shreya Singhal v. Union of India [Option ID = 1749]
4. Avinash Bajaj v. State [Option ID = 1752]
Correct Answer :-
Shreya Singhal v. Union of India [Option ID = 1749]
In which of the following case, Lord Wilberforce opined that ?It is necessary to consider three elements inherent in any claim for
nervous shock: the class of persons whose claim should be recognized, the proximity of such persons to the incident and the means
adopted by which shock is caused??
[Question ID = 464]
1. Page v. Smith [Option ID = 1855]
2. Hinz v. Berry [Option ID = 1854]
3. Bourhill v. Young [Option ID = 1856]
4. McLoughlin v. O?Brian [Option ID = 1853]
Correct Answer :-
McLoughlin v. O?Brian [Option ID = 1853]
In which of the following offences minimum five offenders are required?
1. Affray
2. Robbery
3. Dacoity
4. Rioting
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 475]
1. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1897]
2. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1898]
3. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1900]
4. 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1899]
Correct Answer :-
3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1899]
A foreign company intends to merge with an Indian Company. As per the relevant provision in the Companies (Compromises,
Arrangements and Amalgamation) Rules, 2016, it needs to obtain prior approval of [Question ID = 442]
1. Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs. [Option ID = 1766]
2. Securities and Exchange Board of India. [Option ID = 1765]
3. Reserve Bank of India. [Option ID = 1767]
4. Department of Economic Affairs. [Option ID = 1768]
Correct Answer :-
Reserve Bank of India. [Option ID = 1767]
Who coined the term ?Compensatory Discrimination?? [Question ID = 512]
1. Prof. P.N. Singh [Option ID = 2047]
2. Prof. Marc Galanter [Option ID = 2046]
3. Prof. Upendra Baxi [Option ID = 2048]
37)
38)
39)
40)
41)
42)
4. Justice Krishna Iyer [Option ID = 2045]
Correct Answer :-
Prof. Marc Galanter [Option ID = 2046]
What is the limitation period for filing a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986? [Question ID = 459]
1. One year from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1834]
2. 2 years from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1833]
3. 6 months from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1835]
4. 90 days from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1836]
Correct Answer :-
2 years from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1833]
What is the role of section 135, Trade Marks Act, 1999? [Question ID = 434]
1. relief for recovery of property [Option ID = 1734]
2. relief for specific performance [Option ID = 1735]
3. relief for infringement [Option ID = 1733]
4. declaration of the title [Option ID = 1736]
Correct Answer :-
relief for infringement [Option ID = 1733]
What is the principle of complementarity in the context of the International Criminal Court (ICC)? [Question ID = 427]
1. It means the ICC will assist the domestic criminal court in trial and prosecution of the individual accused of committing crimes enlisted in the Rome
Statute, 1998. [Option ID = 1707]
2. It means the ICC will seek for demand production of accused to its jurisdiction. [Option ID = 1708]
3. It means the ICC will prosecute an individual only when that individual submits to its jurisdiction. [Option ID = 1706]
4. It means the ICC will only prosecute an individual if states are unwilling or unable to prosecute. [Option ID = 1705]
Correct Answer :-
It means the ICC will only prosecute an individual if states are unwilling or unable to prosecute. [Option ID = 1705]
The question regarding disqualification of the Speaker of Lok Sabha under the X Schedule of the Constitution of India is referred for
the decision to [Question ID = 479]
1. A member elected for this purpose by the Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1916]
2. Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1914]
3. Deputy Chairperson of Rajya Sabha [Option ID = 1913]
4. President of India [Option ID = 1915]
Correct Answer :-
A member elected for this purpose by the Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1916]
Dissolution of a firm can be carried by
[Question ID = 447]
1. expiry of the term for which it was constituted. [Option ID = 1786]
2. adjudication of a partner as an insolvent. [Option ID = 1787]
3. death of a partner. [Option ID = 1785]
4. All of these [Option ID = 1788]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1788]
?A?, ?B? and ?C? are partners in a partnership firm named AB&C. ?A? retires from the firm without giving any public notice. Thereafter, an
existing creditor lends Rs. ten lakh to the firm on the basis of his knowledge that ?A?, ?B? and ?C? are the three partners in the firm. This
amount remains unpaid by the firm. The creditor wants to recover the unpaid loan amount from the firm. [Question ID = 445]
1. No one will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1780]
2. ?A?, ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1778]
3. Only ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1779]
4. Only ?A? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1777]
Correct Answer :-
43)
44)
45)
46)
?A?, ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1778]
Assertion (A): Distributive justice is based on the principle that there has to be equal distribution amongst the equals.
Reason (R): Reasonable classification is the essence of equality as justice cannot be achieved by promulgating uniform law for everyone.
1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct reason for A.
2. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct reason for A.
3. Both A and R are incorrect.
4. A is incorrect but R is correct.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 488]
1. 2 [Option ID = 1950]
2. 1 [Option ID = 1949]
3. 3 [Option ID = 1951]
4. 4 [Option ID = 1952]
Correct Answer :-
1 [Option ID = 1949]
Consider the following statement about the Military Staff Committee:
1. It shall advise and assist the Security Council on all questions relating to military requirements for maintenance of international peace
and security.
2. It shall consist of Chiefs of Staff of the permanent members and two non- members nominated by the General Assembly.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 420]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1679]
2. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1680]
3. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1677]
4. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1678]
Correct Answer :-
Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1677]
Consider the following statements:
1. Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons is the first legally binding international agreement to comprehensively prohibit nuclear
weapons.
2. It was passed on July 7, 2017 by the Security Council.
3. It has not come into force.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 426]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1701]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1702]
3. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1704]
4. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1703]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1703]
Consider the following statements:
1. Moses v. Macferlan is a prominent example of theory of unjust enrichment as propounded by Lord Mansfield.
2. According to this theory, the demands of justice and equity is to prevent the unjust enrichment of one person at the cost of another.
3. Sinclair v. Brougham has propounded the theory of ?Implied-in-fact? contract to elaborate the nature of Quasi Contracts.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 491]
1. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1961]
2. Only 1 and 3 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1964]
3. Only 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1962]
47)
48)
49)
50)
51)
4. Only 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1963]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1961]
Consider the following statements:
1. A contract with a minor is void, however, a minor can after attaining majority ratify an agreement made by him during his minority.
2. Minor is not liable for the wrongful act when the cause of action in substance is ex contractu.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 496]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1983]
2. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1984]
3. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1981]
4. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1982]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1982]
Consider the following statements:
1. The Bolitho test relates to medical negligence.
2. The Bolitho test was referred to in Malay Kumar Ganguly v. Sukumar Mukherjee.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 458]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1830]
2. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1829]
3. 1 is correct but 2 is incorrect. [Option ID = 1831]
4. 1 is incorrect but 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1832]
Correct Answer :-
Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1830]
Savithri, a married Hindu woman died intestate leaving behind her husband and mother. Properties mentioned in Schedule ?A? was
inherited by her from her father and Schedule ?B? property was her self-acquired property. Pick out the correct legal proposition from
below: [Question ID = 456]
1. Her husband and mother will share equally in both the properties. [Option ID = 1821]
2. Her husband alone will succeed to both properties. [Option ID = 1822]
3. Her husband will inherit Schedule ?B? property and mother will inherit Schedule ?A? property. [Option ID = 1824]
4. Her mother will alone succeed to both properties. [Option ID = 1823]
Correct Answer :-
Her husband will inherit Schedule ?B? property and mother will inherit Schedule ?A? property. [Option ID = 1824]
Article 290-A of the Constitution of India refers to [Question ID = 505]
1. Annual payment to certain Devaswom Funds [Option ID = 2020]
2. Privy purse sums of Rulers [Option ID = 2017]
3. Exemption of property and income of a State from Union taxation [Option ID = 2018]
4. Exemption from taxation by States in respect of water or electricity in certain cases [Option ID = 2019]
Correct Answer :-
Annual payment to certain Devaswom Funds [Option ID = 2020]
Match the cases mentioned in List I with legal issues mentioned in List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
52)
Codes:
[Question ID = 449]
1. [Option ID = 1793]
2. [Option ID = 1794]
3. [Option ID = 1796]
4. [Option ID = 1795]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1795]
53)
[Question ID = 53444]
1. [Option ID = 93763]
2. [Option ID = 93764]
3. [Option ID = 93761]
4. [Option ID = 93762]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 93761]
54)
[Question ID = 495]
1. [Option ID = 1978]
2. [Option ID = 1977]
3. [Option ID = 1980]
4. [Option ID = 1979]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1980]
55)
[Question ID = 462]
1. [Option ID = 1848]
2. [Option ID = 1845]
3. [Option ID = 1846]
4. [Option ID = 1847]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1847]
[Question ID = 492]
56)
1. [Option ID = 1966]
2. [Option ID = 1968]
3. [Option ID = 1965]
4. [Option ID = 1967]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1968]
[Question ID = 472]
1. [Option ID = 1888]
2. [Option ID = 1887]
3. [Option ID = 1885]
57)
58)
4. [Option ID = 1886]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1888]
[Question ID = 490]
1. [Option ID = 1957]
2. [Option ID = 1958]
3. [Option ID = 1959]
4. [Option ID = 1960]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1958]
59)
Codes: [Question ID = 489]
1. [Option ID = 1956]
2. [Option ID = 1953]
3. [Option ID = 1955]
4. [Option ID = 1954]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1953]
FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
1)
2)
3)
4)
DU LLM
Topic:- DU_J18_LLM_Topic01
Which of the following statement is true regarding the social contract theory on origin of State?
1. State is a creation of agreement between people
2. Thomas Hobbes? social contract theory supported limited constitutional monarchy
3. According to Rousseau, the ruler was bound by the general will of the people
4. According to Locke, the sovereign was absolute and his word was the law.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 485]
1. All are correct. [Option ID = 1940]
2. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1938]
3. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
4. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1937]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
[Question ID = 500]
1. A stipulation in a contract of sale may be a condition or warranty. [Option ID = 1997]
2. A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
3. A breach of condition results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1998]
4. All these [Option ID = 2000]
Correct Answer :-
A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
Which of the following exceptions to strict liability were recognised by Justice Blackburn in Rylands v. Fletcher?
1. Vis major
2. Statutory authority
3. Plaintiff?s own default
4. Act of third party
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 463]
1. 3 and 4 [Option ID = 1849]
2. 1, 2 and 3 [Option ID = 1851]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1852]
4. 1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Which of the following Acts was amended by the Criminal Law Amendment Act, 2013?
[Question ID = 467]
1. None of these [Option ID = 1868]
2. The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 [Option ID = 1867]
3. The Information Technology Act, 2000 [Option ID = 1865]
4. The Immoral Trafficking (Prevention) Act, 1956 [Option ID = 1866]
Correct Answer :-
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 [Option ID = 1867]
Which of the following observations on fundamental rights was made by the Supreme Court in K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India?
1. There is no overlap between rights enumerated under Article 19 and Article 21 of the Constitution of India.
2. The constitutional values embodied under every Article of Part III of the Constitution of India animates the interpretation of the other.
3. Only Article 21 contains residue of fundamental rights that are not expressly stipulated under Article 19 of the Constitution of India.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 501]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 2004]
2. Only 3 is correct. [Option ID = 2001]
3. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2002]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 2003]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2002]
Which of the following is sensitive personal information according to rule 3 of the Information Technology (Reasonable Security
Practices and Procedures and Sensitive Data or Information) Rules, 2011?
1. Credit card details
2. Medical records
3. Mobile number
4. Sexual orientation
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 436]
1. 1, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1742]
2. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1743]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1741]
4. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1744]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1743]
Which of the following is/are mechanism/mechanisms of pacific settlement of disputes under the UN Charter?
[Question ID = 419]
1. Enquiry [Option ID = 1673]
2. Judicial Settlement [Option ID = 1675]
3. Arbitration [Option ID = 1674]
4. All these [Option ID = 1676]
Correct Answer :-
All these [Option ID = 1676]
Which of the following actions of host is allowed under the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations of 1961:
[Question ID = 425]
1. The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata. [Option ID
= 1697]
2. The host state can any time search the premises of the diplomatic staff. [Option ID = 1699]
3. The host state can at any time withdraw the immunities granted to diplomats. [Option ID = 1700]
4. The host state can at any time confiscate the diplomatic bag. [Option ID = 1698]
Correct Answer :-
The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata.
[Option ID = 1697]
Which of the following provisions of the UN Charter is correctly matched:
10)
11)
12)
13)
14)
[Question ID = 428]
1. Article 2 (5) Principle of Settlement of Disputes by Peaceful Means [Option ID = 1712]
2. Article 2 (6) Principle of Non-Intervention [Option ID = 1710]
3. Article 2 (4) Prohibition on Use of Force [Option ID = 1709]
4. Article 2 (2) Principle of Sovereign Equality of the UN Members [Option ID = 1711]
Correct Answer :-
Article 2 (4) Prohibition on Use of Force [Option ID = 1709]
Which of the following are ?Inventions Not Patentable? under the Patent Act, 1970?
[Question ID = 431]
1. Invention relating to atomic Energy [Option ID = 1723]
2. A method of agriculture or horticulture [Option ID = 1721]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1724]
4. Topography of integrated circuits [Option ID = 1722]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1724]
Which of the following are conditions of a valid Hindu marriage in accordance with section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
1. Prior consent of the parties.
2. Neither Party must have a spouse living at the time of the marriage.
3. The bridegroom must have completed the age of 21 years and the bride, the age of 18 years at the time of the marriage.
4. The parties are not sagotras of each other.
5. The parties are not sapindas of each other.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 452]
1. Only 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1808]
2. Only 1, 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1805]
3. Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1807]
4. Only 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1806]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1806]
Which of the following is an example of obligatio erga omnes of states under International Law?
[Question ID = 422]
1. Protection from Wars [Option ID = 1687]
2. Protection from slavery [Option ID = 1685]
3. Protection from Political Crimes [Option ID = 1686]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1688]
Correct Answer :-
Protection from slavery [Option ID = 1685]
Which of the following is an implied condition in case of a contract for sale by sample?
[Question ID = 499]
1. Goods shall not be free from any defect, rendering them unmerchantable, which would not be apparent on reasonable examination of the sample. [Option
ID = 1995]
2. Bulk not corresponding with the sample in quality. [Option ID = 1993]
3. Buyer shall not have a reasonable opportunity of comparing the bulk with the sample. [Option ID = 1994]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1996]
Correct Answer :-
None of these [Option ID = 1996]
Read the following statements about the offence of dacoity under the Indian Penal Code, 1860:
15)
16)
17)
18)
19)
1. Attempt to commit dacoity is punishable.
2. Assembling for the purpose of dacoity is punishable.
3. Preparation for dacoity is punishable.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 477]
1. Only 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1907]
2. Only 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1908]
3. Only 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1906]
4. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1905]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1905]
Which among the following is generally referred to as the subtle species of fraud? [Question ID = 498]
1. Undue Influence [Option ID = 1990]
2. Deliberate Mistake [Option ID = 1992]
3. Misrepresentation [Option ID = 1989]
4. Coercion [Option ID = 1991]
Correct Answer :-
Undue Influence [Option ID = 1990]
A member of the UN may be suspended from its membership [Question ID = 417]
1. by the Security Council [Option ID = 1666]
2. by the International Court of Justice upon the request made by the UN General Assembly [Option ID = 1665]
3. by the General Assembly upon the recommendations of the Security Council [Option ID = 1667]
4. by the UN Secretary General [Option ID = 1668]
Correct Answer :-
by the General Assembly upon the recommendations of the Security Council [Option ID = 1667]
According to the Information Technology Act, 2000, an electronic record is deemed to be received at a place where addressee
[Question ID = 439]
1. All these [Option ID = 1756]
2. has his server. [Option ID = 1753]
3. has his place of business. [Option ID = 1754]
4. retrieves the record. [Option ID = 1755]
Correct Answer :-
has his place of business. [Option ID = 1754]
According to Fuller, in order to evade failure, law must have the following characteristics:
1. Law must be publicly accessible
2. Law must be clear and unambiguous
3. Law must not command what cannot be done
4. Law must introduce frequent changes
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 481]
1. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1923]
2. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1921]
3. All are correct. [Option ID = 1924]
4. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1922]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1921]
Who among the following remarked that international law is positive morality? [Question ID = 486]
1. Lon Fuller [Option ID = 1941]
2. Jeremy Bentham [Option ID = 1942]
3. H.L.A. Hart [Option ID = 1943]
20)
21)
22)
23)
24)
25)
4. John Austin [Option ID = 1944]
Correct Answer :-
John Austin [Option ID = 1944]
Trade mark includes
[Question ID = 435]
1. Certification mark [Option ID = 1737]
2. Collective mark [Option ID = 1738]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1740]
4. Well known trade mark [Option ID = 1739]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1740]
Lakshmi and Ram married under the Special Marriage Act, 1954. Ram died in 2010 leaving behind Lakshmi, his mother, a son and a
daughter. The intestate and testamentary succession to his property would be governed by [Question ID = 454]
1. Intestate succession according to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and testamentary succession according to the Indian Succession Act, 1925. [Option ID
= 1816]
2. His ancestral property would devolve on his son and mother and separate property to his wife, son and daughter. [Option ID = 1815]
3. The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 [Option ID = 1813]
4. The Indian Succession Act, 1925 [Option ID = 1814]
Correct Answer :-
Intestate succession according to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and testamentary succession according to the Indian Succession Act, 1925. [Option
ID = 1816]
Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 is applicable in cases of cruelty by husband or relatives of the husband within
[Question ID = 476]
1. 2 years of marriage [Option ID = 1903]
2. 3 years of marriage [Option ID = 1902]
3. No time limit [Option ID = 1904]
4. 7 years of marriage [Option ID = 1901]
Correct Answer :-
No time limit [Option ID = 1904]
John Rawls? idea of basing justice on a contract has been challenged by [Question ID = 487]
1. Jeremy Bentham [Option ID = 1945]
2. Tom Bingham [Option ID = 1947]
3. Amartya Sen [Option ID = 1946]
4. Upendra Baxi [Option ID = 1948]
Correct Answer :-
Amartya Sen [Option ID = 1946]
Dinesh finds a gold ring on the road, not knowing to whom the ring belongs. Dinesh picks up the ring. Dinesh is guilty of which
offence under the Indian Penal Code, 1860? [Question ID = 471]
1. No offence [Option ID = 1884]
2. Theft [Option ID = 1882]
3. Criminal breach of trust [Option ID = 1883]
4. Dishonest Misappropriation [Option ID = 1881]
Correct Answer :-
No offence [Option ID = 1884]
First Geneva Convention of 1949 deals with
[Question ID = 424]
1. Amelioration of the Condition of the Wounded and Sick in Armed Forces in the Field. [Option ID = 1695]
2. Amelioration of the Condition of Wounded, Sick and Shipwrecked Members of Armed Forces at Sea. [Option ID = 1694]
26)
27)
28)
29)
30)
31)
3. Treatment of Prisoners of War. [Option ID = 1693]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1696]
Correct Answer :-
Amelioration of the Condition of the Wounded and Sick in Armed Forces in the Field. [Option ID = 1695]
Shamim Ara claimed her dower after the death of her husband from her husband?s property. She is a/an [Question ID = 453]
1. preferential creditor to all other creditors subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1809]
2. ordinary unsecured creditor, having no priority over other unsecured creditors, subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1812]
3. ordinary unsecured creditor but having priority over other unsecured creditors [Option ID = 1811]
4. secured creditor subject to her right of retention. [Option ID = 1810]
Correct Answer :-
ordinary unsecured creditor, having no priority over other unsecured creditors, subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1812]
To cede a part of the Indian Territory in favour of any foreign country, which one of the following procedural requirement must be
complied with? [Question ID = 503]
1. A law made by Parliament to the effect would be relevant and sufficient. [Option ID = 2012]
2. A law must be passed in compliance with Article 3 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2009]
3. A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed in compliance with Article 368 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2010]
4. A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed to amend the Constitution as per Article 368 and followed up by a law passed relatable to Article 3 of the
Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2011]
Correct Answer :-
A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed in compliance with Article 368 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2010]
Who defined defamation as ?publication of a statement which tends to lower a person in the estimation of right thinking members of
society generally, or which tends to make them shun or avoid that person?. [Question ID = 461]
1. Winfield [Option ID = 1841]
2. Glanville Williams [Option ID = 1844]
3. Salmond [Option ID = 1842]
4. Pollock [Option ID = 1843]
Correct Answer :-
Winfield [Option ID = 1841]
Who among the following can file a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986?
[Question ID = 457]
1. Any recognised consumer association [Option ID = 1826]
2. The Central Government or any State Government [Option ID = 1827]
3. A consumer [Option ID = 1825]
4. All of these [Option ID = 1828]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1828]
In which of the following cases has the Supreme Court made it mandatory for candidates contesting elections to the legislatures and
their spouses to declare their source of income at the time of filing nominations?
[Question ID = 478]
1. People?s Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India [Option ID = 1912]
2. Jan Chaukidar v. Union of India [Option ID = 1910]
3. Association for Democratic Reforms v. Union of India [Option ID = 1911]
4. Lok Prahari v. Union of India [Option ID = 1909]
Correct Answer :-
Lok Prahari v. Union of India [Option ID = 1909]
In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that the public authority providing services or goods as per the definition
under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 must be held liable to pay adequate compensation to the consumer for harassment or mental
agony or oppression caused to him for capricious exercise of power and the money could then be recovered from the erring public
officials?
32)
33)
34)
35)
36)
[Question ID = 465]
1. State of Gujarat v. Memom Mahomed [Option ID = 1860]
2. Shyam Sunder v. State of Rajasthan [Option ID = 1858]
3. Indian Medical Association v. V.P. Shantha [Option ID = 1857]
4. Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta [Option ID = 1859]
Correct Answer :-
Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta [Option ID = 1859]
In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that ?An intermediary shall be liable for a third party information hosted by
him if upon receiving actual knowledge from the court order or on being notified by the appropriate government, he fails to expeditiously
remove that material??
[Question ID = 438]
1. My Space Inc. v. Super Cassettes [Option ID = 1750]
2. Google India Pvt. Ltd. v. M/s Visaka Industries [Option ID = 1751]
3. Shreya Singhal v. Union of India [Option ID = 1749]
4. Avinash Bajaj v. State [Option ID = 1752]
Correct Answer :-
Shreya Singhal v. Union of India [Option ID = 1749]
In which of the following case, Lord Wilberforce opined that ?It is necessary to consider three elements inherent in any claim for
nervous shock: the class of persons whose claim should be recognized, the proximity of such persons to the incident and the means
adopted by which shock is caused??
[Question ID = 464]
1. Page v. Smith [Option ID = 1855]
2. Hinz v. Berry [Option ID = 1854]
3. Bourhill v. Young [Option ID = 1856]
4. McLoughlin v. O?Brian [Option ID = 1853]
Correct Answer :-
McLoughlin v. O?Brian [Option ID = 1853]
In which of the following offences minimum five offenders are required?
1. Affray
2. Robbery
3. Dacoity
4. Rioting
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 475]
1. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1897]
2. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1898]
3. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1900]
4. 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1899]
Correct Answer :-
3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1899]
A foreign company intends to merge with an Indian Company. As per the relevant provision in the Companies (Compromises,
Arrangements and Amalgamation) Rules, 2016, it needs to obtain prior approval of [Question ID = 442]
1. Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs. [Option ID = 1766]
2. Securities and Exchange Board of India. [Option ID = 1765]
3. Reserve Bank of India. [Option ID = 1767]
4. Department of Economic Affairs. [Option ID = 1768]
Correct Answer :-
Reserve Bank of India. [Option ID = 1767]
Who coined the term ?Compensatory Discrimination?? [Question ID = 512]
1. Prof. P.N. Singh [Option ID = 2047]
2. Prof. Marc Galanter [Option ID = 2046]
3. Prof. Upendra Baxi [Option ID = 2048]
37)
38)
39)
40)
41)
42)
4. Justice Krishna Iyer [Option ID = 2045]
Correct Answer :-
Prof. Marc Galanter [Option ID = 2046]
What is the limitation period for filing a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986? [Question ID = 459]
1. One year from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1834]
2. 2 years from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1833]
3. 6 months from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1835]
4. 90 days from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1836]
Correct Answer :-
2 years from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1833]
What is the role of section 135, Trade Marks Act, 1999? [Question ID = 434]
1. relief for recovery of property [Option ID = 1734]
2. relief for specific performance [Option ID = 1735]
3. relief for infringement [Option ID = 1733]
4. declaration of the title [Option ID = 1736]
Correct Answer :-
relief for infringement [Option ID = 1733]
What is the principle of complementarity in the context of the International Criminal Court (ICC)? [Question ID = 427]
1. It means the ICC will assist the domestic criminal court in trial and prosecution of the individual accused of committing crimes enlisted in the Rome
Statute, 1998. [Option ID = 1707]
2. It means the ICC will seek for demand production of accused to its jurisdiction. [Option ID = 1708]
3. It means the ICC will prosecute an individual only when that individual submits to its jurisdiction. [Option ID = 1706]
4. It means the ICC will only prosecute an individual if states are unwilling or unable to prosecute. [Option ID = 1705]
Correct Answer :-
It means the ICC will only prosecute an individual if states are unwilling or unable to prosecute. [Option ID = 1705]
The question regarding disqualification of the Speaker of Lok Sabha under the X Schedule of the Constitution of India is referred for
the decision to [Question ID = 479]
1. A member elected for this purpose by the Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1916]
2. Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1914]
3. Deputy Chairperson of Rajya Sabha [Option ID = 1913]
4. President of India [Option ID = 1915]
Correct Answer :-
A member elected for this purpose by the Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1916]
Dissolution of a firm can be carried by
[Question ID = 447]
1. expiry of the term for which it was constituted. [Option ID = 1786]
2. adjudication of a partner as an insolvent. [Option ID = 1787]
3. death of a partner. [Option ID = 1785]
4. All of these [Option ID = 1788]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1788]
?A?, ?B? and ?C? are partners in a partnership firm named AB&C. ?A? retires from the firm without giving any public notice. Thereafter, an
existing creditor lends Rs. ten lakh to the firm on the basis of his knowledge that ?A?, ?B? and ?C? are the three partners in the firm. This
amount remains unpaid by the firm. The creditor wants to recover the unpaid loan amount from the firm. [Question ID = 445]
1. No one will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1780]
2. ?A?, ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1778]
3. Only ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1779]
4. Only ?A? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1777]
Correct Answer :-
43)
44)
45)
46)
?A?, ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1778]
Assertion (A): Distributive justice is based on the principle that there has to be equal distribution amongst the equals.
Reason (R): Reasonable classification is the essence of equality as justice cannot be achieved by promulgating uniform law for everyone.
1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct reason for A.
2. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct reason for A.
3. Both A and R are incorrect.
4. A is incorrect but R is correct.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 488]
1. 2 [Option ID = 1950]
2. 1 [Option ID = 1949]
3. 3 [Option ID = 1951]
4. 4 [Option ID = 1952]
Correct Answer :-
1 [Option ID = 1949]
Consider the following statement about the Military Staff Committee:
1. It shall advise and assist the Security Council on all questions relating to military requirements for maintenance of international peace
and security.
2. It shall consist of Chiefs of Staff of the permanent members and two non- members nominated by the General Assembly.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 420]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1679]
2. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1680]
3. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1677]
4. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1678]
Correct Answer :-
Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1677]
Consider the following statements:
1. Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons is the first legally binding international agreement to comprehensively prohibit nuclear
weapons.
2. It was passed on July 7, 2017 by the Security Council.
3. It has not come into force.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 426]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1701]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1702]
3. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1704]
4. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1703]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1703]
Consider the following statements:
1. Moses v. Macferlan is a prominent example of theory of unjust enrichment as propounded by Lord Mansfield.
2. According to this theory, the demands of justice and equity is to prevent the unjust enrichment of one person at the cost of another.
3. Sinclair v. Brougham has propounded the theory of ?Implied-in-fact? contract to elaborate the nature of Quasi Contracts.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 491]
1. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1961]
2. Only 1 and 3 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1964]
3. Only 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1962]
47)
48)
49)
50)
51)
4. Only 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1963]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1961]
Consider the following statements:
1. A contract with a minor is void, however, a minor can after attaining majority ratify an agreement made by him during his minority.
2. Minor is not liable for the wrongful act when the cause of action in substance is ex contractu.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 496]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1983]
2. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1984]
3. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1981]
4. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1982]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1982]
Consider the following statements:
1. The Bolitho test relates to medical negligence.
2. The Bolitho test was referred to in Malay Kumar Ganguly v. Sukumar Mukherjee.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 458]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1830]
2. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1829]
3. 1 is correct but 2 is incorrect. [Option ID = 1831]
4. 1 is incorrect but 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1832]
Correct Answer :-
Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1830]
Savithri, a married Hindu woman died intestate leaving behind her husband and mother. Properties mentioned in Schedule ?A? was
inherited by her from her father and Schedule ?B? property was her self-acquired property. Pick out the correct legal proposition from
below: [Question ID = 456]
1. Her husband and mother will share equally in both the properties. [Option ID = 1821]
2. Her husband alone will succeed to both properties. [Option ID = 1822]
3. Her husband will inherit Schedule ?B? property and mother will inherit Schedule ?A? property. [Option ID = 1824]
4. Her mother will alone succeed to both properties. [Option ID = 1823]
Correct Answer :-
Her husband will inherit Schedule ?B? property and mother will inherit Schedule ?A? property. [Option ID = 1824]
Article 290-A of the Constitution of India refers to [Question ID = 505]
1. Annual payment to certain Devaswom Funds [Option ID = 2020]
2. Privy purse sums of Rulers [Option ID = 2017]
3. Exemption of property and income of a State from Union taxation [Option ID = 2018]
4. Exemption from taxation by States in respect of water or electricity in certain cases [Option ID = 2019]
Correct Answer :-
Annual payment to certain Devaswom Funds [Option ID = 2020]
Match the cases mentioned in List I with legal issues mentioned in List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
52)
Codes:
[Question ID = 449]
1. [Option ID = 1793]
2. [Option ID = 1794]
3. [Option ID = 1796]
4. [Option ID = 1795]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1795]
53)
[Question ID = 53444]
1. [Option ID = 93763]
2. [Option ID = 93764]
3. [Option ID = 93761]
4. [Option ID = 93762]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 93761]
54)
[Question ID = 495]
1. [Option ID = 1978]
2. [Option ID = 1977]
3. [Option ID = 1980]
4. [Option ID = 1979]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1980]
55)
[Question ID = 462]
1. [Option ID = 1848]
2. [Option ID = 1845]
3. [Option ID = 1846]
4. [Option ID = 1847]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1847]
[Question ID = 492]
56)
1. [Option ID = 1966]
2. [Option ID = 1968]
3. [Option ID = 1965]
4. [Option ID = 1967]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1968]
[Question ID = 472]
1. [Option ID = 1888]
2. [Option ID = 1887]
3. [Option ID = 1885]
57)
58)
4. [Option ID = 1886]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1888]
[Question ID = 490]
1. [Option ID = 1957]
2. [Option ID = 1958]
3. [Option ID = 1959]
4. [Option ID = 1960]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1958]
59)
Codes: [Question ID = 489]
1. [Option ID = 1956]
2. [Option ID = 1953]
3. [Option ID = 1955]
4. [Option ID = 1954]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1953]
60)
61)
62)
[Question ID = 448]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1791]
2. 1, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1792]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1789]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1790]
Correct Answer :-
2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1791]
Who among the following can remove the name of company from the register of companies on suo-motu basis in terms of section
248(1) of the Companies Act, 2013? [Question ID = 443]
1. Registrar of Companies [Option ID = 1770]
2. Securities and Exchange Board of India [Option ID = 1771]
3. National Company Law Tribunal [Option ID = 1769]
4. Ministry of Corporate Affairs [Option ID = 1772]
Correct Answer :-
Registrar of Companies [Option ID = 1770]
Who amongst the following accepts that ?Rights are important because they can be enforced?? [Question ID = 483]
1. Lloyd [Option ID = 1930]
2. John Rawls [Option ID = 1929]
3. Allen Buchanan [Option ID = 1932]
4. Thomas Hobbes [Option ID = 1931]
Correct Answer :-
Allen Buchanan [Option ID = 1932]
Kelson?s theory of law suggests that
1. Legal order is a hierarchy of norms.
2. The basic content of the law is determined by Grundnorm (the basic norm).
3. Law is a command.
4. Pure theory of law deals with law as it ought to be.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 484]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1935]
2. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1934]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1933]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1936]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1936]
FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
1)
2)
3)
4)
DU LLM
Topic:- DU_J18_LLM_Topic01
Which of the following statement is true regarding the social contract theory on origin of State?
1. State is a creation of agreement between people
2. Thomas Hobbes? social contract theory supported limited constitutional monarchy
3. According to Rousseau, the ruler was bound by the general will of the people
4. According to Locke, the sovereign was absolute and his word was the law.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 485]
1. All are correct. [Option ID = 1940]
2. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1938]
3. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
4. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1937]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
[Question ID = 500]
1. A stipulation in a contract of sale may be a condition or warranty. [Option ID = 1997]
2. A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
3. A breach of condition results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1998]
4. All these [Option ID = 2000]
Correct Answer :-
A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
Which of the following exceptions to strict liability were recognised by Justice Blackburn in Rylands v. Fletcher?
1. Vis major
2. Statutory authority
3. Plaintiff?s own default
4. Act of third party
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 463]
1. 3 and 4 [Option ID = 1849]
2. 1, 2 and 3 [Option ID = 1851]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1852]
4. 1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Which of the following Acts was amended by the Criminal Law Amendment Act, 2013?
[Question ID = 467]
1. None of these [Option ID = 1868]
2. The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 [Option ID = 1867]
3. The Information Technology Act, 2000 [Option ID = 1865]
4. The Immoral Trafficking (Prevention) Act, 1956 [Option ID = 1866]
Correct Answer :-
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 [Option ID = 1867]
Which of the following observations on fundamental rights was made by the Supreme Court in K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India?
1. There is no overlap between rights enumerated under Article 19 and Article 21 of the Constitution of India.
2. The constitutional values embodied under every Article of Part III of the Constitution of India animates the interpretation of the other.
3. Only Article 21 contains residue of fundamental rights that are not expressly stipulated under Article 19 of the Constitution of India.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 501]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 2004]
2. Only 3 is correct. [Option ID = 2001]
3. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2002]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 2003]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2002]
Which of the following is sensitive personal information according to rule 3 of the Information Technology (Reasonable Security
Practices and Procedures and Sensitive Data or Information) Rules, 2011?
1. Credit card details
2. Medical records
3. Mobile number
4. Sexual orientation
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 436]
1. 1, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1742]
2. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1743]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1741]
4. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1744]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1743]
Which of the following is/are mechanism/mechanisms of pacific settlement of disputes under the UN Charter?
[Question ID = 419]
1. Enquiry [Option ID = 1673]
2. Judicial Settlement [Option ID = 1675]
3. Arbitration [Option ID = 1674]
4. All these [Option ID = 1676]
Correct Answer :-
All these [Option ID = 1676]
Which of the following actions of host is allowed under the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations of 1961:
[Question ID = 425]
1. The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata. [Option ID
= 1697]
2. The host state can any time search the premises of the diplomatic staff. [Option ID = 1699]
3. The host state can at any time withdraw the immunities granted to diplomats. [Option ID = 1700]
4. The host state can at any time confiscate the diplomatic bag. [Option ID = 1698]
Correct Answer :-
The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata.
[Option ID = 1697]
Which of the following provisions of the UN Charter is correctly matched:
10)
11)
12)
13)
14)
[Question ID = 428]
1. Article 2 (5) Principle of Settlement of Disputes by Peaceful Means [Option ID = 1712]
2. Article 2 (6) Principle of Non-Intervention [Option ID = 1710]
3. Article 2 (4) Prohibition on Use of Force [Option ID = 1709]
4. Article 2 (2) Principle of Sovereign Equality of the UN Members [Option ID = 1711]
Correct Answer :-
Article 2 (4) Prohibition on Use of Force [Option ID = 1709]
Which of the following are ?Inventions Not Patentable? under the Patent Act, 1970?
[Question ID = 431]
1. Invention relating to atomic Energy [Option ID = 1723]
2. A method of agriculture or horticulture [Option ID = 1721]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1724]
4. Topography of integrated circuits [Option ID = 1722]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1724]
Which of the following are conditions of a valid Hindu marriage in accordance with section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
1. Prior consent of the parties.
2. Neither Party must have a spouse living at the time of the marriage.
3. The bridegroom must have completed the age of 21 years and the bride, the age of 18 years at the time of the marriage.
4. The parties are not sagotras of each other.
5. The parties are not sapindas of each other.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 452]
1. Only 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1808]
2. Only 1, 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1805]
3. Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1807]
4. Only 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1806]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1806]
Which of the following is an example of obligatio erga omnes of states under International Law?
[Question ID = 422]
1. Protection from Wars [Option ID = 1687]
2. Protection from slavery [Option ID = 1685]
3. Protection from Political Crimes [Option ID = 1686]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1688]
Correct Answer :-
Protection from slavery [Option ID = 1685]
Which of the following is an implied condition in case of a contract for sale by sample?
[Question ID = 499]
1. Goods shall not be free from any defect, rendering them unmerchantable, which would not be apparent on reasonable examination of the sample. [Option
ID = 1995]
2. Bulk not corresponding with the sample in quality. [Option ID = 1993]
3. Buyer shall not have a reasonable opportunity of comparing the bulk with the sample. [Option ID = 1994]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1996]
Correct Answer :-
None of these [Option ID = 1996]
Read the following statements about the offence of dacoity under the Indian Penal Code, 1860:
15)
16)
17)
18)
19)
1. Attempt to commit dacoity is punishable.
2. Assembling for the purpose of dacoity is punishable.
3. Preparation for dacoity is punishable.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 477]
1. Only 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1907]
2. Only 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1908]
3. Only 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1906]
4. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1905]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1905]
Which among the following is generally referred to as the subtle species of fraud? [Question ID = 498]
1. Undue Influence [Option ID = 1990]
2. Deliberate Mistake [Option ID = 1992]
3. Misrepresentation [Option ID = 1989]
4. Coercion [Option ID = 1991]
Correct Answer :-
Undue Influence [Option ID = 1990]
A member of the UN may be suspended from its membership [Question ID = 417]
1. by the Security Council [Option ID = 1666]
2. by the International Court of Justice upon the request made by the UN General Assembly [Option ID = 1665]
3. by the General Assembly upon the recommendations of the Security Council [Option ID = 1667]
4. by the UN Secretary General [Option ID = 1668]
Correct Answer :-
by the General Assembly upon the recommendations of the Security Council [Option ID = 1667]
According to the Information Technology Act, 2000, an electronic record is deemed to be received at a place where addressee
[Question ID = 439]
1. All these [Option ID = 1756]
2. has his server. [Option ID = 1753]
3. has his place of business. [Option ID = 1754]
4. retrieves the record. [Option ID = 1755]
Correct Answer :-
has his place of business. [Option ID = 1754]
According to Fuller, in order to evade failure, law must have the following characteristics:
1. Law must be publicly accessible
2. Law must be clear and unambiguous
3. Law must not command what cannot be done
4. Law must introduce frequent changes
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 481]
1. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1923]
2. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1921]
3. All are correct. [Option ID = 1924]
4. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1922]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1921]
Who among the following remarked that international law is positive morality? [Question ID = 486]
1. Lon Fuller [Option ID = 1941]
2. Jeremy Bentham [Option ID = 1942]
3. H.L.A. Hart [Option ID = 1943]
20)
21)
22)
23)
24)
25)
4. John Austin [Option ID = 1944]
Correct Answer :-
John Austin [Option ID = 1944]
Trade mark includes
[Question ID = 435]
1. Certification mark [Option ID = 1737]
2. Collective mark [Option ID = 1738]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1740]
4. Well known trade mark [Option ID = 1739]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1740]
Lakshmi and Ram married under the Special Marriage Act, 1954. Ram died in 2010 leaving behind Lakshmi, his mother, a son and a
daughter. The intestate and testamentary succession to his property would be governed by [Question ID = 454]
1. Intestate succession according to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and testamentary succession according to the Indian Succession Act, 1925. [Option ID
= 1816]
2. His ancestral property would devolve on his son and mother and separate property to his wife, son and daughter. [Option ID = 1815]
3. The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 [Option ID = 1813]
4. The Indian Succession Act, 1925 [Option ID = 1814]
Correct Answer :-
Intestate succession according to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and testamentary succession according to the Indian Succession Act, 1925. [Option
ID = 1816]
Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 is applicable in cases of cruelty by husband or relatives of the husband within
[Question ID = 476]
1. 2 years of marriage [Option ID = 1903]
2. 3 years of marriage [Option ID = 1902]
3. No time limit [Option ID = 1904]
4. 7 years of marriage [Option ID = 1901]
Correct Answer :-
No time limit [Option ID = 1904]
John Rawls? idea of basing justice on a contract has been challenged by [Question ID = 487]
1. Jeremy Bentham [Option ID = 1945]
2. Tom Bingham [Option ID = 1947]
3. Amartya Sen [Option ID = 1946]
4. Upendra Baxi [Option ID = 1948]
Correct Answer :-
Amartya Sen [Option ID = 1946]
Dinesh finds a gold ring on the road, not knowing to whom the ring belongs. Dinesh picks up the ring. Dinesh is guilty of which
offence under the Indian Penal Code, 1860? [Question ID = 471]
1. No offence [Option ID = 1884]
2. Theft [Option ID = 1882]
3. Criminal breach of trust [Option ID = 1883]
4. Dishonest Misappropriation [Option ID = 1881]
Correct Answer :-
No offence [Option ID = 1884]
First Geneva Convention of 1949 deals with
[Question ID = 424]
1. Amelioration of the Condition of the Wounded and Sick in Armed Forces in the Field. [Option ID = 1695]
2. Amelioration of the Condition of Wounded, Sick and Shipwrecked Members of Armed Forces at Sea. [Option ID = 1694]
26)
27)
28)
29)
30)
31)
3. Treatment of Prisoners of War. [Option ID = 1693]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1696]
Correct Answer :-
Amelioration of the Condition of the Wounded and Sick in Armed Forces in the Field. [Option ID = 1695]
Shamim Ara claimed her dower after the death of her husband from her husband?s property. She is a/an [Question ID = 453]
1. preferential creditor to all other creditors subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1809]
2. ordinary unsecured creditor, having no priority over other unsecured creditors, subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1812]
3. ordinary unsecured creditor but having priority over other unsecured creditors [Option ID = 1811]
4. secured creditor subject to her right of retention. [Option ID = 1810]
Correct Answer :-
ordinary unsecured creditor, having no priority over other unsecured creditors, subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1812]
To cede a part of the Indian Territory in favour of any foreign country, which one of the following procedural requirement must be
complied with? [Question ID = 503]
1. A law made by Parliament to the effect would be relevant and sufficient. [Option ID = 2012]
2. A law must be passed in compliance with Article 3 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2009]
3. A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed in compliance with Article 368 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2010]
4. A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed to amend the Constitution as per Article 368 and followed up by a law passed relatable to Article 3 of the
Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2011]
Correct Answer :-
A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed in compliance with Article 368 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2010]
Who defined defamation as ?publication of a statement which tends to lower a person in the estimation of right thinking members of
society generally, or which tends to make them shun or avoid that person?. [Question ID = 461]
1. Winfield [Option ID = 1841]
2. Glanville Williams [Option ID = 1844]
3. Salmond [Option ID = 1842]
4. Pollock [Option ID = 1843]
Correct Answer :-
Winfield [Option ID = 1841]
Who among the following can file a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986?
[Question ID = 457]
1. Any recognised consumer association [Option ID = 1826]
2. The Central Government or any State Government [Option ID = 1827]
3. A consumer [Option ID = 1825]
4. All of these [Option ID = 1828]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1828]
In which of the following cases has the Supreme Court made it mandatory for candidates contesting elections to the legislatures and
their spouses to declare their source of income at the time of filing nominations?
[Question ID = 478]
1. People?s Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India [Option ID = 1912]
2. Jan Chaukidar v. Union of India [Option ID = 1910]
3. Association for Democratic Reforms v. Union of India [Option ID = 1911]
4. Lok Prahari v. Union of India [Option ID = 1909]
Correct Answer :-
Lok Prahari v. Union of India [Option ID = 1909]
In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that the public authority providing services or goods as per the definition
under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 must be held liable to pay adequate compensation to the consumer for harassment or mental
agony or oppression caused to him for capricious exercise of power and the money could then be recovered from the erring public
officials?
32)
33)
34)
35)
36)
[Question ID = 465]
1. State of Gujarat v. Memom Mahomed [Option ID = 1860]
2. Shyam Sunder v. State of Rajasthan [Option ID = 1858]
3. Indian Medical Association v. V.P. Shantha [Option ID = 1857]
4. Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta [Option ID = 1859]
Correct Answer :-
Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta [Option ID = 1859]
In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that ?An intermediary shall be liable for a third party information hosted by
him if upon receiving actual knowledge from the court order or on being notified by the appropriate government, he fails to expeditiously
remove that material??
[Question ID = 438]
1. My Space Inc. v. Super Cassettes [Option ID = 1750]
2. Google India Pvt. Ltd. v. M/s Visaka Industries [Option ID = 1751]
3. Shreya Singhal v. Union of India [Option ID = 1749]
4. Avinash Bajaj v. State [Option ID = 1752]
Correct Answer :-
Shreya Singhal v. Union of India [Option ID = 1749]
In which of the following case, Lord Wilberforce opined that ?It is necessary to consider three elements inherent in any claim for
nervous shock: the class of persons whose claim should be recognized, the proximity of such persons to the incident and the means
adopted by which shock is caused??
[Question ID = 464]
1. Page v. Smith [Option ID = 1855]
2. Hinz v. Berry [Option ID = 1854]
3. Bourhill v. Young [Option ID = 1856]
4. McLoughlin v. O?Brian [Option ID = 1853]
Correct Answer :-
McLoughlin v. O?Brian [Option ID = 1853]
In which of the following offences minimum five offenders are required?
1. Affray
2. Robbery
3. Dacoity
4. Rioting
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 475]
1. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1897]
2. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1898]
3. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1900]
4. 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1899]
Correct Answer :-
3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1899]
A foreign company intends to merge with an Indian Company. As per the relevant provision in the Companies (Compromises,
Arrangements and Amalgamation) Rules, 2016, it needs to obtain prior approval of [Question ID = 442]
1. Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs. [Option ID = 1766]
2. Securities and Exchange Board of India. [Option ID = 1765]
3. Reserve Bank of India. [Option ID = 1767]
4. Department of Economic Affairs. [Option ID = 1768]
Correct Answer :-
Reserve Bank of India. [Option ID = 1767]
Who coined the term ?Compensatory Discrimination?? [Question ID = 512]
1. Prof. P.N. Singh [Option ID = 2047]
2. Prof. Marc Galanter [Option ID = 2046]
3. Prof. Upendra Baxi [Option ID = 2048]
37)
38)
39)
40)
41)
42)
4. Justice Krishna Iyer [Option ID = 2045]
Correct Answer :-
Prof. Marc Galanter [Option ID = 2046]
What is the limitation period for filing a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986? [Question ID = 459]
1. One year from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1834]
2. 2 years from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1833]
3. 6 months from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1835]
4. 90 days from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1836]
Correct Answer :-
2 years from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1833]
What is the role of section 135, Trade Marks Act, 1999? [Question ID = 434]
1. relief for recovery of property [Option ID = 1734]
2. relief for specific performance [Option ID = 1735]
3. relief for infringement [Option ID = 1733]
4. declaration of the title [Option ID = 1736]
Correct Answer :-
relief for infringement [Option ID = 1733]
What is the principle of complementarity in the context of the International Criminal Court (ICC)? [Question ID = 427]
1. It means the ICC will assist the domestic criminal court in trial and prosecution of the individual accused of committing crimes enlisted in the Rome
Statute, 1998. [Option ID = 1707]
2. It means the ICC will seek for demand production of accused to its jurisdiction. [Option ID = 1708]
3. It means the ICC will prosecute an individual only when that individual submits to its jurisdiction. [Option ID = 1706]
4. It means the ICC will only prosecute an individual if states are unwilling or unable to prosecute. [Option ID = 1705]
Correct Answer :-
It means the ICC will only prosecute an individual if states are unwilling or unable to prosecute. [Option ID = 1705]
The question regarding disqualification of the Speaker of Lok Sabha under the X Schedule of the Constitution of India is referred for
the decision to [Question ID = 479]
1. A member elected for this purpose by the Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1916]
2. Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1914]
3. Deputy Chairperson of Rajya Sabha [Option ID = 1913]
4. President of India [Option ID = 1915]
Correct Answer :-
A member elected for this purpose by the Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1916]
Dissolution of a firm can be carried by
[Question ID = 447]
1. expiry of the term for which it was constituted. [Option ID = 1786]
2. adjudication of a partner as an insolvent. [Option ID = 1787]
3. death of a partner. [Option ID = 1785]
4. All of these [Option ID = 1788]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1788]
?A?, ?B? and ?C? are partners in a partnership firm named AB&C. ?A? retires from the firm without giving any public notice. Thereafter, an
existing creditor lends Rs. ten lakh to the firm on the basis of his knowledge that ?A?, ?B? and ?C? are the three partners in the firm. This
amount remains unpaid by the firm. The creditor wants to recover the unpaid loan amount from the firm. [Question ID = 445]
1. No one will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1780]
2. ?A?, ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1778]
3. Only ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1779]
4. Only ?A? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1777]
Correct Answer :-
43)
44)
45)
46)
?A?, ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1778]
Assertion (A): Distributive justice is based on the principle that there has to be equal distribution amongst the equals.
Reason (R): Reasonable classification is the essence of equality as justice cannot be achieved by promulgating uniform law for everyone.
1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct reason for A.
2. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct reason for A.
3. Both A and R are incorrect.
4. A is incorrect but R is correct.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 488]
1. 2 [Option ID = 1950]
2. 1 [Option ID = 1949]
3. 3 [Option ID = 1951]
4. 4 [Option ID = 1952]
Correct Answer :-
1 [Option ID = 1949]
Consider the following statement about the Military Staff Committee:
1. It shall advise and assist the Security Council on all questions relating to military requirements for maintenance of international peace
and security.
2. It shall consist of Chiefs of Staff of the permanent members and two non- members nominated by the General Assembly.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 420]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1679]
2. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1680]
3. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1677]
4. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1678]
Correct Answer :-
Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1677]
Consider the following statements:
1. Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons is the first legally binding international agreement to comprehensively prohibit nuclear
weapons.
2. It was passed on July 7, 2017 by the Security Council.
3. It has not come into force.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 426]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1701]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1702]
3. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1704]
4. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1703]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1703]
Consider the following statements:
1. Moses v. Macferlan is a prominent example of theory of unjust enrichment as propounded by Lord Mansfield.
2. According to this theory, the demands of justice and equity is to prevent the unjust enrichment of one person at the cost of another.
3. Sinclair v. Brougham has propounded the theory of ?Implied-in-fact? contract to elaborate the nature of Quasi Contracts.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 491]
1. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1961]
2. Only 1 and 3 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1964]
3. Only 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1962]
47)
48)
49)
50)
51)
4. Only 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1963]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1961]
Consider the following statements:
1. A contract with a minor is void, however, a minor can after attaining majority ratify an agreement made by him during his minority.
2. Minor is not liable for the wrongful act when the cause of action in substance is ex contractu.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 496]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1983]
2. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1984]
3. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1981]
4. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1982]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1982]
Consider the following statements:
1. The Bolitho test relates to medical negligence.
2. The Bolitho test was referred to in Malay Kumar Ganguly v. Sukumar Mukherjee.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 458]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1830]
2. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1829]
3. 1 is correct but 2 is incorrect. [Option ID = 1831]
4. 1 is incorrect but 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1832]
Correct Answer :-
Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1830]
Savithri, a married Hindu woman died intestate leaving behind her husband and mother. Properties mentioned in Schedule ?A? was
inherited by her from her father and Schedule ?B? property was her self-acquired property. Pick out the correct legal proposition from
below: [Question ID = 456]
1. Her husband and mother will share equally in both the properties. [Option ID = 1821]
2. Her husband alone will succeed to both properties. [Option ID = 1822]
3. Her husband will inherit Schedule ?B? property and mother will inherit Schedule ?A? property. [Option ID = 1824]
4. Her mother will alone succeed to both properties. [Option ID = 1823]
Correct Answer :-
Her husband will inherit Schedule ?B? property and mother will inherit Schedule ?A? property. [Option ID = 1824]
Article 290-A of the Constitution of India refers to [Question ID = 505]
1. Annual payment to certain Devaswom Funds [Option ID = 2020]
2. Privy purse sums of Rulers [Option ID = 2017]
3. Exemption of property and income of a State from Union taxation [Option ID = 2018]
4. Exemption from taxation by States in respect of water or electricity in certain cases [Option ID = 2019]
Correct Answer :-
Annual payment to certain Devaswom Funds [Option ID = 2020]
Match the cases mentioned in List I with legal issues mentioned in List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
52)
Codes:
[Question ID = 449]
1. [Option ID = 1793]
2. [Option ID = 1794]
3. [Option ID = 1796]
4. [Option ID = 1795]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1795]
53)
[Question ID = 53444]
1. [Option ID = 93763]
2. [Option ID = 93764]
3. [Option ID = 93761]
4. [Option ID = 93762]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 93761]
54)
[Question ID = 495]
1. [Option ID = 1978]
2. [Option ID = 1977]
3. [Option ID = 1980]
4. [Option ID = 1979]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1980]
55)
[Question ID = 462]
1. [Option ID = 1848]
2. [Option ID = 1845]
3. [Option ID = 1846]
4. [Option ID = 1847]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1847]
[Question ID = 492]
56)
1. [Option ID = 1966]
2. [Option ID = 1968]
3. [Option ID = 1965]
4. [Option ID = 1967]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1968]
[Question ID = 472]
1. [Option ID = 1888]
2. [Option ID = 1887]
3. [Option ID = 1885]
57)
58)
4. [Option ID = 1886]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1888]
[Question ID = 490]
1. [Option ID = 1957]
2. [Option ID = 1958]
3. [Option ID = 1959]
4. [Option ID = 1960]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1958]
59)
Codes: [Question ID = 489]
1. [Option ID = 1956]
2. [Option ID = 1953]
3. [Option ID = 1955]
4. [Option ID = 1954]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1953]
60)
61)
62)
[Question ID = 448]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1791]
2. 1, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1792]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1789]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1790]
Correct Answer :-
2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1791]
Who among the following can remove the name of company from the register of companies on suo-motu basis in terms of section
248(1) of the Companies Act, 2013? [Question ID = 443]
1. Registrar of Companies [Option ID = 1770]
2. Securities and Exchange Board of India [Option ID = 1771]
3. National Company Law Tribunal [Option ID = 1769]
4. Ministry of Corporate Affairs [Option ID = 1772]
Correct Answer :-
Registrar of Companies [Option ID = 1770]
Who amongst the following accepts that ?Rights are important because they can be enforced?? [Question ID = 483]
1. Lloyd [Option ID = 1930]
2. John Rawls [Option ID = 1929]
3. Allen Buchanan [Option ID = 1932]
4. Thomas Hobbes [Option ID = 1931]
Correct Answer :-
Allen Buchanan [Option ID = 1932]
Kelson?s theory of law suggests that
1. Legal order is a hierarchy of norms.
2. The basic content of the law is determined by Grundnorm (the basic norm).
3. Law is a command.
4. Pure theory of law deals with law as it ought to be.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 484]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1935]
2. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1934]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1933]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1936]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1936]
63)
64)
65)
66)
67)
Consider the following propositions:
1. A Muslim woman, on her husband?s death, need not follow Iddat if her marriage is valid but not consummated.
2. A Muslim woman, on divorce, need not follow Iddat if her marriage is valid but not consummated.
3. A Muslim woman, on divorce, has to observe Iddat if her marriage is irregular but consummated.
4. A Muslim woman, whose marriage is void but consummated, has to observe Iddat till delivery if she is carrying the child in her womb in
case of her husband?s death.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 450]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1797]
2. Only 4 is correct. [Option ID = 1800]
3. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1799]
4. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1798]
Correct Answer :-
2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1797]
Consider the following statements about the International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea (ITLOS):
1. The Tribunal is composed of 21 independent judges.
2. It is based in Hamburg, Germany.
3. Dr. Neeru Chadha from India has been appointed as one of the Judges of the Tribunal in 2017.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 423]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1689]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1690]
3. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1692]
4. Only 3 is correct. [Option ID = 1691]
Correct Answer :-
All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1692]
Consider the following statements:
1. Under the UN Charter, the General Assembly may take up issues relating to maintenance of international peace and security, including
the principles governing disarmament and the regulation of armaments.
2. Under the UN Charter, the Security Council has the primary responsibility for the maintenance of international peace and security.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 418]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1669]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1670]
3. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1671]
4. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1672]
Correct Answer :-
Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1671]
Consider the following statements:
1. The motion for removal of a Supreme Court Judge submitted to the speaker of the Lok Sabha lapses with the dissolution of Lok Sabha.
2. The Inquiry Committee appointed under the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968 to ascertain the veracity of the motion for removal of the judge
can be treated as a tribunal under Article 136 of the Constitution.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 514]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 2055]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2056]
3. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 2053]
4. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2054]
Correct Answer :-
Neither 1 nor 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2054]
Consider the following statements:
1. The Statute of the International Court of Justice is an integral part of the UN Charter.
2. All members of the UN are ipso facto parties to the Statute of the International Court of Justice.
3. The Statute of the International Court of Justice is a separate treaty, and members of the UN have to separately ratify it in order to be
FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
1)
2)
3)
4)
DU LLM
Topic:- DU_J18_LLM_Topic01
Which of the following statement is true regarding the social contract theory on origin of State?
1. State is a creation of agreement between people
2. Thomas Hobbes? social contract theory supported limited constitutional monarchy
3. According to Rousseau, the ruler was bound by the general will of the people
4. According to Locke, the sovereign was absolute and his word was the law.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 485]
1. All are correct. [Option ID = 1940]
2. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1938]
3. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
4. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1937]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
[Question ID = 500]
1. A stipulation in a contract of sale may be a condition or warranty. [Option ID = 1997]
2. A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
3. A breach of condition results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1998]
4. All these [Option ID = 2000]
Correct Answer :-
A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
Which of the following exceptions to strict liability were recognised by Justice Blackburn in Rylands v. Fletcher?
1. Vis major
2. Statutory authority
3. Plaintiff?s own default
4. Act of third party
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 463]
1. 3 and 4 [Option ID = 1849]
2. 1, 2 and 3 [Option ID = 1851]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1852]
4. 1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Which of the following Acts was amended by the Criminal Law Amendment Act, 2013?
[Question ID = 467]
1. None of these [Option ID = 1868]
2. The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 [Option ID = 1867]
3. The Information Technology Act, 2000 [Option ID = 1865]
4. The Immoral Trafficking (Prevention) Act, 1956 [Option ID = 1866]
Correct Answer :-
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 [Option ID = 1867]
Which of the following observations on fundamental rights was made by the Supreme Court in K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India?
1. There is no overlap between rights enumerated under Article 19 and Article 21 of the Constitution of India.
2. The constitutional values embodied under every Article of Part III of the Constitution of India animates the interpretation of the other.
3. Only Article 21 contains residue of fundamental rights that are not expressly stipulated under Article 19 of the Constitution of India.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 501]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 2004]
2. Only 3 is correct. [Option ID = 2001]
3. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2002]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 2003]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2002]
Which of the following is sensitive personal information according to rule 3 of the Information Technology (Reasonable Security
Practices and Procedures and Sensitive Data or Information) Rules, 2011?
1. Credit card details
2. Medical records
3. Mobile number
4. Sexual orientation
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 436]
1. 1, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1742]
2. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1743]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1741]
4. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1744]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1743]
Which of the following is/are mechanism/mechanisms of pacific settlement of disputes under the UN Charter?
[Question ID = 419]
1. Enquiry [Option ID = 1673]
2. Judicial Settlement [Option ID = 1675]
3. Arbitration [Option ID = 1674]
4. All these [Option ID = 1676]
Correct Answer :-
All these [Option ID = 1676]
Which of the following actions of host is allowed under the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations of 1961:
[Question ID = 425]
1. The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata. [Option ID
= 1697]
2. The host state can any time search the premises of the diplomatic staff. [Option ID = 1699]
3. The host state can at any time withdraw the immunities granted to diplomats. [Option ID = 1700]
4. The host state can at any time confiscate the diplomatic bag. [Option ID = 1698]
Correct Answer :-
The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata.
[Option ID = 1697]
Which of the following provisions of the UN Charter is correctly matched:
10)
11)
12)
13)
14)
[Question ID = 428]
1. Article 2 (5) Principle of Settlement of Disputes by Peaceful Means [Option ID = 1712]
2. Article 2 (6) Principle of Non-Intervention [Option ID = 1710]
3. Article 2 (4) Prohibition on Use of Force [Option ID = 1709]
4. Article 2 (2) Principle of Sovereign Equality of the UN Members [Option ID = 1711]
Correct Answer :-
Article 2 (4) Prohibition on Use of Force [Option ID = 1709]
Which of the following are ?Inventions Not Patentable? under the Patent Act, 1970?
[Question ID = 431]
1. Invention relating to atomic Energy [Option ID = 1723]
2. A method of agriculture or horticulture [Option ID = 1721]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1724]
4. Topography of integrated circuits [Option ID = 1722]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1724]
Which of the following are conditions of a valid Hindu marriage in accordance with section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
1. Prior consent of the parties.
2. Neither Party must have a spouse living at the time of the marriage.
3. The bridegroom must have completed the age of 21 years and the bride, the age of 18 years at the time of the marriage.
4. The parties are not sagotras of each other.
5. The parties are not sapindas of each other.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 452]
1. Only 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1808]
2. Only 1, 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1805]
3. Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1807]
4. Only 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1806]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1806]
Which of the following is an example of obligatio erga omnes of states under International Law?
[Question ID = 422]
1. Protection from Wars [Option ID = 1687]
2. Protection from slavery [Option ID = 1685]
3. Protection from Political Crimes [Option ID = 1686]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1688]
Correct Answer :-
Protection from slavery [Option ID = 1685]
Which of the following is an implied condition in case of a contract for sale by sample?
[Question ID = 499]
1. Goods shall not be free from any defect, rendering them unmerchantable, which would not be apparent on reasonable examination of the sample. [Option
ID = 1995]
2. Bulk not corresponding with the sample in quality. [Option ID = 1993]
3. Buyer shall not have a reasonable opportunity of comparing the bulk with the sample. [Option ID = 1994]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1996]
Correct Answer :-
None of these [Option ID = 1996]
Read the following statements about the offence of dacoity under the Indian Penal Code, 1860:
15)
16)
17)
18)
19)
1. Attempt to commit dacoity is punishable.
2. Assembling for the purpose of dacoity is punishable.
3. Preparation for dacoity is punishable.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 477]
1. Only 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1907]
2. Only 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1908]
3. Only 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1906]
4. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1905]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1905]
Which among the following is generally referred to as the subtle species of fraud? [Question ID = 498]
1. Undue Influence [Option ID = 1990]
2. Deliberate Mistake [Option ID = 1992]
3. Misrepresentation [Option ID = 1989]
4. Coercion [Option ID = 1991]
Correct Answer :-
Undue Influence [Option ID = 1990]
A member of the UN may be suspended from its membership [Question ID = 417]
1. by the Security Council [Option ID = 1666]
2. by the International Court of Justice upon the request made by the UN General Assembly [Option ID = 1665]
3. by the General Assembly upon the recommendations of the Security Council [Option ID = 1667]
4. by the UN Secretary General [Option ID = 1668]
Correct Answer :-
by the General Assembly upon the recommendations of the Security Council [Option ID = 1667]
According to the Information Technology Act, 2000, an electronic record is deemed to be received at a place where addressee
[Question ID = 439]
1. All these [Option ID = 1756]
2. has his server. [Option ID = 1753]
3. has his place of business. [Option ID = 1754]
4. retrieves the record. [Option ID = 1755]
Correct Answer :-
has his place of business. [Option ID = 1754]
According to Fuller, in order to evade failure, law must have the following characteristics:
1. Law must be publicly accessible
2. Law must be clear and unambiguous
3. Law must not command what cannot be done
4. Law must introduce frequent changes
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 481]
1. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1923]
2. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1921]
3. All are correct. [Option ID = 1924]
4. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1922]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1921]
Who among the following remarked that international law is positive morality? [Question ID = 486]
1. Lon Fuller [Option ID = 1941]
2. Jeremy Bentham [Option ID = 1942]
3. H.L.A. Hart [Option ID = 1943]
20)
21)
22)
23)
24)
25)
4. John Austin [Option ID = 1944]
Correct Answer :-
John Austin [Option ID = 1944]
Trade mark includes
[Question ID = 435]
1. Certification mark [Option ID = 1737]
2. Collective mark [Option ID = 1738]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1740]
4. Well known trade mark [Option ID = 1739]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1740]
Lakshmi and Ram married under the Special Marriage Act, 1954. Ram died in 2010 leaving behind Lakshmi, his mother, a son and a
daughter. The intestate and testamentary succession to his property would be governed by [Question ID = 454]
1. Intestate succession according to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and testamentary succession according to the Indian Succession Act, 1925. [Option ID
= 1816]
2. His ancestral property would devolve on his son and mother and separate property to his wife, son and daughter. [Option ID = 1815]
3. The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 [Option ID = 1813]
4. The Indian Succession Act, 1925 [Option ID = 1814]
Correct Answer :-
Intestate succession according to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and testamentary succession according to the Indian Succession Act, 1925. [Option
ID = 1816]
Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 is applicable in cases of cruelty by husband or relatives of the husband within
[Question ID = 476]
1. 2 years of marriage [Option ID = 1903]
2. 3 years of marriage [Option ID = 1902]
3. No time limit [Option ID = 1904]
4. 7 years of marriage [Option ID = 1901]
Correct Answer :-
No time limit [Option ID = 1904]
John Rawls? idea of basing justice on a contract has been challenged by [Question ID = 487]
1. Jeremy Bentham [Option ID = 1945]
2. Tom Bingham [Option ID = 1947]
3. Amartya Sen [Option ID = 1946]
4. Upendra Baxi [Option ID = 1948]
Correct Answer :-
Amartya Sen [Option ID = 1946]
Dinesh finds a gold ring on the road, not knowing to whom the ring belongs. Dinesh picks up the ring. Dinesh is guilty of which
offence under the Indian Penal Code, 1860? [Question ID = 471]
1. No offence [Option ID = 1884]
2. Theft [Option ID = 1882]
3. Criminal breach of trust [Option ID = 1883]
4. Dishonest Misappropriation [Option ID = 1881]
Correct Answer :-
No offence [Option ID = 1884]
First Geneva Convention of 1949 deals with
[Question ID = 424]
1. Amelioration of the Condition of the Wounded and Sick in Armed Forces in the Field. [Option ID = 1695]
2. Amelioration of the Condition of Wounded, Sick and Shipwrecked Members of Armed Forces at Sea. [Option ID = 1694]
26)
27)
28)
29)
30)
31)
3. Treatment of Prisoners of War. [Option ID = 1693]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1696]
Correct Answer :-
Amelioration of the Condition of the Wounded and Sick in Armed Forces in the Field. [Option ID = 1695]
Shamim Ara claimed her dower after the death of her husband from her husband?s property. She is a/an [Question ID = 453]
1. preferential creditor to all other creditors subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1809]
2. ordinary unsecured creditor, having no priority over other unsecured creditors, subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1812]
3. ordinary unsecured creditor but having priority over other unsecured creditors [Option ID = 1811]
4. secured creditor subject to her right of retention. [Option ID = 1810]
Correct Answer :-
ordinary unsecured creditor, having no priority over other unsecured creditors, subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1812]
To cede a part of the Indian Territory in favour of any foreign country, which one of the following procedural requirement must be
complied with? [Question ID = 503]
1. A law made by Parliament to the effect would be relevant and sufficient. [Option ID = 2012]
2. A law must be passed in compliance with Article 3 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2009]
3. A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed in compliance with Article 368 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2010]
4. A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed to amend the Constitution as per Article 368 and followed up by a law passed relatable to Article 3 of the
Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2011]
Correct Answer :-
A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed in compliance with Article 368 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2010]
Who defined defamation as ?publication of a statement which tends to lower a person in the estimation of right thinking members of
society generally, or which tends to make them shun or avoid that person?. [Question ID = 461]
1. Winfield [Option ID = 1841]
2. Glanville Williams [Option ID = 1844]
3. Salmond [Option ID = 1842]
4. Pollock [Option ID = 1843]
Correct Answer :-
Winfield [Option ID = 1841]
Who among the following can file a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986?
[Question ID = 457]
1. Any recognised consumer association [Option ID = 1826]
2. The Central Government or any State Government [Option ID = 1827]
3. A consumer [Option ID = 1825]
4. All of these [Option ID = 1828]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1828]
In which of the following cases has the Supreme Court made it mandatory for candidates contesting elections to the legislatures and
their spouses to declare their source of income at the time of filing nominations?
[Question ID = 478]
1. People?s Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India [Option ID = 1912]
2. Jan Chaukidar v. Union of India [Option ID = 1910]
3. Association for Democratic Reforms v. Union of India [Option ID = 1911]
4. Lok Prahari v. Union of India [Option ID = 1909]
Correct Answer :-
Lok Prahari v. Union of India [Option ID = 1909]
In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that the public authority providing services or goods as per the definition
under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 must be held liable to pay adequate compensation to the consumer for harassment or mental
agony or oppression caused to him for capricious exercise of power and the money could then be recovered from the erring public
officials?
32)
33)
34)
35)
36)
[Question ID = 465]
1. State of Gujarat v. Memom Mahomed [Option ID = 1860]
2. Shyam Sunder v. State of Rajasthan [Option ID = 1858]
3. Indian Medical Association v. V.P. Shantha [Option ID = 1857]
4. Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta [Option ID = 1859]
Correct Answer :-
Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta [Option ID = 1859]
In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that ?An intermediary shall be liable for a third party information hosted by
him if upon receiving actual knowledge from the court order or on being notified by the appropriate government, he fails to expeditiously
remove that material??
[Question ID = 438]
1. My Space Inc. v. Super Cassettes [Option ID = 1750]
2. Google India Pvt. Ltd. v. M/s Visaka Industries [Option ID = 1751]
3. Shreya Singhal v. Union of India [Option ID = 1749]
4. Avinash Bajaj v. State [Option ID = 1752]
Correct Answer :-
Shreya Singhal v. Union of India [Option ID = 1749]
In which of the following case, Lord Wilberforce opined that ?It is necessary to consider three elements inherent in any claim for
nervous shock: the class of persons whose claim should be recognized, the proximity of such persons to the incident and the means
adopted by which shock is caused??
[Question ID = 464]
1. Page v. Smith [Option ID = 1855]
2. Hinz v. Berry [Option ID = 1854]
3. Bourhill v. Young [Option ID = 1856]
4. McLoughlin v. O?Brian [Option ID = 1853]
Correct Answer :-
McLoughlin v. O?Brian [Option ID = 1853]
In which of the following offences minimum five offenders are required?
1. Affray
2. Robbery
3. Dacoity
4. Rioting
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 475]
1. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1897]
2. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1898]
3. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1900]
4. 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1899]
Correct Answer :-
3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1899]
A foreign company intends to merge with an Indian Company. As per the relevant provision in the Companies (Compromises,
Arrangements and Amalgamation) Rules, 2016, it needs to obtain prior approval of [Question ID = 442]
1. Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs. [Option ID = 1766]
2. Securities and Exchange Board of India. [Option ID = 1765]
3. Reserve Bank of India. [Option ID = 1767]
4. Department of Economic Affairs. [Option ID = 1768]
Correct Answer :-
Reserve Bank of India. [Option ID = 1767]
Who coined the term ?Compensatory Discrimination?? [Question ID = 512]
1. Prof. P.N. Singh [Option ID = 2047]
2. Prof. Marc Galanter [Option ID = 2046]
3. Prof. Upendra Baxi [Option ID = 2048]
37)
38)
39)
40)
41)
42)
4. Justice Krishna Iyer [Option ID = 2045]
Correct Answer :-
Prof. Marc Galanter [Option ID = 2046]
What is the limitation period for filing a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986? [Question ID = 459]
1. One year from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1834]
2. 2 years from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1833]
3. 6 months from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1835]
4. 90 days from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1836]
Correct Answer :-
2 years from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1833]
What is the role of section 135, Trade Marks Act, 1999? [Question ID = 434]
1. relief for recovery of property [Option ID = 1734]
2. relief for specific performance [Option ID = 1735]
3. relief for infringement [Option ID = 1733]
4. declaration of the title [Option ID = 1736]
Correct Answer :-
relief for infringement [Option ID = 1733]
What is the principle of complementarity in the context of the International Criminal Court (ICC)? [Question ID = 427]
1. It means the ICC will assist the domestic criminal court in trial and prosecution of the individual accused of committing crimes enlisted in the Rome
Statute, 1998. [Option ID = 1707]
2. It means the ICC will seek for demand production of accused to its jurisdiction. [Option ID = 1708]
3. It means the ICC will prosecute an individual only when that individual submits to its jurisdiction. [Option ID = 1706]
4. It means the ICC will only prosecute an individual if states are unwilling or unable to prosecute. [Option ID = 1705]
Correct Answer :-
It means the ICC will only prosecute an individual if states are unwilling or unable to prosecute. [Option ID = 1705]
The question regarding disqualification of the Speaker of Lok Sabha under the X Schedule of the Constitution of India is referred for
the decision to [Question ID = 479]
1. A member elected for this purpose by the Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1916]
2. Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1914]
3. Deputy Chairperson of Rajya Sabha [Option ID = 1913]
4. President of India [Option ID = 1915]
Correct Answer :-
A member elected for this purpose by the Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1916]
Dissolution of a firm can be carried by
[Question ID = 447]
1. expiry of the term for which it was constituted. [Option ID = 1786]
2. adjudication of a partner as an insolvent. [Option ID = 1787]
3. death of a partner. [Option ID = 1785]
4. All of these [Option ID = 1788]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1788]
?A?, ?B? and ?C? are partners in a partnership firm named AB&C. ?A? retires from the firm without giving any public notice. Thereafter, an
existing creditor lends Rs. ten lakh to the firm on the basis of his knowledge that ?A?, ?B? and ?C? are the three partners in the firm. This
amount remains unpaid by the firm. The creditor wants to recover the unpaid loan amount from the firm. [Question ID = 445]
1. No one will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1780]
2. ?A?, ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1778]
3. Only ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1779]
4. Only ?A? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1777]
Correct Answer :-
43)
44)
45)
46)
?A?, ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1778]
Assertion (A): Distributive justice is based on the principle that there has to be equal distribution amongst the equals.
Reason (R): Reasonable classification is the essence of equality as justice cannot be achieved by promulgating uniform law for everyone.
1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct reason for A.
2. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct reason for A.
3. Both A and R are incorrect.
4. A is incorrect but R is correct.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 488]
1. 2 [Option ID = 1950]
2. 1 [Option ID = 1949]
3. 3 [Option ID = 1951]
4. 4 [Option ID = 1952]
Correct Answer :-
1 [Option ID = 1949]
Consider the following statement about the Military Staff Committee:
1. It shall advise and assist the Security Council on all questions relating to military requirements for maintenance of international peace
and security.
2. It shall consist of Chiefs of Staff of the permanent members and two non- members nominated by the General Assembly.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 420]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1679]
2. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1680]
3. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1677]
4. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1678]
Correct Answer :-
Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1677]
Consider the following statements:
1. Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons is the first legally binding international agreement to comprehensively prohibit nuclear
weapons.
2. It was passed on July 7, 2017 by the Security Council.
3. It has not come into force.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 426]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1701]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1702]
3. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1704]
4. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1703]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1703]
Consider the following statements:
1. Moses v. Macferlan is a prominent example of theory of unjust enrichment as propounded by Lord Mansfield.
2. According to this theory, the demands of justice and equity is to prevent the unjust enrichment of one person at the cost of another.
3. Sinclair v. Brougham has propounded the theory of ?Implied-in-fact? contract to elaborate the nature of Quasi Contracts.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 491]
1. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1961]
2. Only 1 and 3 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1964]
3. Only 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1962]
47)
48)
49)
50)
51)
4. Only 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1963]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1961]
Consider the following statements:
1. A contract with a minor is void, however, a minor can after attaining majority ratify an agreement made by him during his minority.
2. Minor is not liable for the wrongful act when the cause of action in substance is ex contractu.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 496]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1983]
2. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1984]
3. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1981]
4. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1982]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1982]
Consider the following statements:
1. The Bolitho test relates to medical negligence.
2. The Bolitho test was referred to in Malay Kumar Ganguly v. Sukumar Mukherjee.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 458]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1830]
2. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1829]
3. 1 is correct but 2 is incorrect. [Option ID = 1831]
4. 1 is incorrect but 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1832]
Correct Answer :-
Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1830]
Savithri, a married Hindu woman died intestate leaving behind her husband and mother. Properties mentioned in Schedule ?A? was
inherited by her from her father and Schedule ?B? property was her self-acquired property. Pick out the correct legal proposition from
below: [Question ID = 456]
1. Her husband and mother will share equally in both the properties. [Option ID = 1821]
2. Her husband alone will succeed to both properties. [Option ID = 1822]
3. Her husband will inherit Schedule ?B? property and mother will inherit Schedule ?A? property. [Option ID = 1824]
4. Her mother will alone succeed to both properties. [Option ID = 1823]
Correct Answer :-
Her husband will inherit Schedule ?B? property and mother will inherit Schedule ?A? property. [Option ID = 1824]
Article 290-A of the Constitution of India refers to [Question ID = 505]
1. Annual payment to certain Devaswom Funds [Option ID = 2020]
2. Privy purse sums of Rulers [Option ID = 2017]
3. Exemption of property and income of a State from Union taxation [Option ID = 2018]
4. Exemption from taxation by States in respect of water or electricity in certain cases [Option ID = 2019]
Correct Answer :-
Annual payment to certain Devaswom Funds [Option ID = 2020]
Match the cases mentioned in List I with legal issues mentioned in List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
52)
Codes:
[Question ID = 449]
1. [Option ID = 1793]
2. [Option ID = 1794]
3. [Option ID = 1796]
4. [Option ID = 1795]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1795]
53)
[Question ID = 53444]
1. [Option ID = 93763]
2. [Option ID = 93764]
3. [Option ID = 93761]
4. [Option ID = 93762]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 93761]
54)
[Question ID = 495]
1. [Option ID = 1978]
2. [Option ID = 1977]
3. [Option ID = 1980]
4. [Option ID = 1979]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1980]
55)
[Question ID = 462]
1. [Option ID = 1848]
2. [Option ID = 1845]
3. [Option ID = 1846]
4. [Option ID = 1847]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1847]
[Question ID = 492]
56)
1. [Option ID = 1966]
2. [Option ID = 1968]
3. [Option ID = 1965]
4. [Option ID = 1967]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1968]
[Question ID = 472]
1. [Option ID = 1888]
2. [Option ID = 1887]
3. [Option ID = 1885]
57)
58)
4. [Option ID = 1886]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1888]
[Question ID = 490]
1. [Option ID = 1957]
2. [Option ID = 1958]
3. [Option ID = 1959]
4. [Option ID = 1960]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1958]
59)
Codes: [Question ID = 489]
1. [Option ID = 1956]
2. [Option ID = 1953]
3. [Option ID = 1955]
4. [Option ID = 1954]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1953]
60)
61)
62)
[Question ID = 448]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1791]
2. 1, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1792]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1789]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1790]
Correct Answer :-
2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1791]
Who among the following can remove the name of company from the register of companies on suo-motu basis in terms of section
248(1) of the Companies Act, 2013? [Question ID = 443]
1. Registrar of Companies [Option ID = 1770]
2. Securities and Exchange Board of India [Option ID = 1771]
3. National Company Law Tribunal [Option ID = 1769]
4. Ministry of Corporate Affairs [Option ID = 1772]
Correct Answer :-
Registrar of Companies [Option ID = 1770]
Who amongst the following accepts that ?Rights are important because they can be enforced?? [Question ID = 483]
1. Lloyd [Option ID = 1930]
2. John Rawls [Option ID = 1929]
3. Allen Buchanan [Option ID = 1932]
4. Thomas Hobbes [Option ID = 1931]
Correct Answer :-
Allen Buchanan [Option ID = 1932]
Kelson?s theory of law suggests that
1. Legal order is a hierarchy of norms.
2. The basic content of the law is determined by Grundnorm (the basic norm).
3. Law is a command.
4. Pure theory of law deals with law as it ought to be.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 484]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1935]
2. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1934]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1933]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1936]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1936]
63)
64)
65)
66)
67)
Consider the following propositions:
1. A Muslim woman, on her husband?s death, need not follow Iddat if her marriage is valid but not consummated.
2. A Muslim woman, on divorce, need not follow Iddat if her marriage is valid but not consummated.
3. A Muslim woman, on divorce, has to observe Iddat if her marriage is irregular but consummated.
4. A Muslim woman, whose marriage is void but consummated, has to observe Iddat till delivery if she is carrying the child in her womb in
case of her husband?s death.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 450]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1797]
2. Only 4 is correct. [Option ID = 1800]
3. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1799]
4. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1798]
Correct Answer :-
2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1797]
Consider the following statements about the International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea (ITLOS):
1. The Tribunal is composed of 21 independent judges.
2. It is based in Hamburg, Germany.
3. Dr. Neeru Chadha from India has been appointed as one of the Judges of the Tribunal in 2017.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 423]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1689]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1690]
3. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1692]
4. Only 3 is correct. [Option ID = 1691]
Correct Answer :-
All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1692]
Consider the following statements:
1. Under the UN Charter, the General Assembly may take up issues relating to maintenance of international peace and security, including
the principles governing disarmament and the regulation of armaments.
2. Under the UN Charter, the Security Council has the primary responsibility for the maintenance of international peace and security.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 418]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1669]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1670]
3. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1671]
4. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1672]
Correct Answer :-
Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1671]
Consider the following statements:
1. The motion for removal of a Supreme Court Judge submitted to the speaker of the Lok Sabha lapses with the dissolution of Lok Sabha.
2. The Inquiry Committee appointed under the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968 to ascertain the veracity of the motion for removal of the judge
can be treated as a tribunal under Article 136 of the Constitution.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 514]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 2055]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2056]
3. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 2053]
4. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2054]
Correct Answer :-
Neither 1 nor 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2054]
Consider the following statements:
1. The Statute of the International Court of Justice is an integral part of the UN Charter.
2. All members of the UN are ipso facto parties to the Statute of the International Court of Justice.
3. The Statute of the International Court of Justice is a separate treaty, and members of the UN have to separately ratify it in order to be
68)
69)
70)
71)
bound by the same.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 421]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1681]
2. None of these is correct. [Option ID = 1684]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1683]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1682]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1682]
Consider the following statements:
1. All robberies are either theft or extortion.
2. If A holds Z down and fraudulently takes Z?s money without Z?s consent. This is an example of theft as robbery.
3. A obtains property from Z by saying that his child is in the hands of my gang and will be put to death unless a ransom of 50 lakh rupees
is paid. Z was however not put in fear of instant death of child. This is an example of extortion as robbery.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 474]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1896]
2. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1893]
3. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1894]
4. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1895]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1894]
Consider the following statements:
1. An agreement made without adequate consideration is void.
2. A written and registered agreement made on account of a natural love and affection between the close relatives is not valid without
adequate consideration.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 493]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1969]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1970]
3. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1971]
4. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1972]
Correct Answer :-
Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1972]
Consider the following statements:
1. There may be situations where only one party is bound to the terms of the contract.
2. In order to convert a proposal into a promise, the acceptance must be absolute and may be unqualified.
3. Death or insanity of the proposer is considered as good ground for revocation of proposal in all circumstances.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 494]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1973]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1976]
3. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1974]
4. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1975]
Correct Answer :-
Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1973]
Consider the following statements:
1. The minor is estopped from setting the defence of minority when by misrepresenting his age minor himself has induced the other party
to enter into agreement with him.
2. Section 11 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 declares that only minors and persons of unsound mind are incompetent to make contract.
Codes: [Question ID = 497]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1985]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1986]
FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
1)
2)
3)
4)
DU LLM
Topic:- DU_J18_LLM_Topic01
Which of the following statement is true regarding the social contract theory on origin of State?
1. State is a creation of agreement between people
2. Thomas Hobbes? social contract theory supported limited constitutional monarchy
3. According to Rousseau, the ruler was bound by the general will of the people
4. According to Locke, the sovereign was absolute and his word was the law.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 485]
1. All are correct. [Option ID = 1940]
2. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1938]
3. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
4. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1937]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
[Question ID = 500]
1. A stipulation in a contract of sale may be a condition or warranty. [Option ID = 1997]
2. A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
3. A breach of condition results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1998]
4. All these [Option ID = 2000]
Correct Answer :-
A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
Which of the following exceptions to strict liability were recognised by Justice Blackburn in Rylands v. Fletcher?
1. Vis major
2. Statutory authority
3. Plaintiff?s own default
4. Act of third party
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 463]
1. 3 and 4 [Option ID = 1849]
2. 1, 2 and 3 [Option ID = 1851]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1852]
4. 1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Which of the following Acts was amended by the Criminal Law Amendment Act, 2013?
[Question ID = 467]
1. None of these [Option ID = 1868]
2. The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 [Option ID = 1867]
3. The Information Technology Act, 2000 [Option ID = 1865]
4. The Immoral Trafficking (Prevention) Act, 1956 [Option ID = 1866]
Correct Answer :-
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 [Option ID = 1867]
Which of the following observations on fundamental rights was made by the Supreme Court in K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India?
1. There is no overlap between rights enumerated under Article 19 and Article 21 of the Constitution of India.
2. The constitutional values embodied under every Article of Part III of the Constitution of India animates the interpretation of the other.
3. Only Article 21 contains residue of fundamental rights that are not expressly stipulated under Article 19 of the Constitution of India.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 501]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 2004]
2. Only 3 is correct. [Option ID = 2001]
3. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2002]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 2003]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2002]
Which of the following is sensitive personal information according to rule 3 of the Information Technology (Reasonable Security
Practices and Procedures and Sensitive Data or Information) Rules, 2011?
1. Credit card details
2. Medical records
3. Mobile number
4. Sexual orientation
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 436]
1. 1, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1742]
2. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1743]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1741]
4. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1744]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1743]
Which of the following is/are mechanism/mechanisms of pacific settlement of disputes under the UN Charter?
[Question ID = 419]
1. Enquiry [Option ID = 1673]
2. Judicial Settlement [Option ID = 1675]
3. Arbitration [Option ID = 1674]
4. All these [Option ID = 1676]
Correct Answer :-
All these [Option ID = 1676]
Which of the following actions of host is allowed under the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations of 1961:
[Question ID = 425]
1. The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata. [Option ID
= 1697]
2. The host state can any time search the premises of the diplomatic staff. [Option ID = 1699]
3. The host state can at any time withdraw the immunities granted to diplomats. [Option ID = 1700]
4. The host state can at any time confiscate the diplomatic bag. [Option ID = 1698]
Correct Answer :-
The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata.
[Option ID = 1697]
Which of the following provisions of the UN Charter is correctly matched:
10)
11)
12)
13)
14)
[Question ID = 428]
1. Article 2 (5) Principle of Settlement of Disputes by Peaceful Means [Option ID = 1712]
2. Article 2 (6) Principle of Non-Intervention [Option ID = 1710]
3. Article 2 (4) Prohibition on Use of Force [Option ID = 1709]
4. Article 2 (2) Principle of Sovereign Equality of the UN Members [Option ID = 1711]
Correct Answer :-
Article 2 (4) Prohibition on Use of Force [Option ID = 1709]
Which of the following are ?Inventions Not Patentable? under the Patent Act, 1970?
[Question ID = 431]
1. Invention relating to atomic Energy [Option ID = 1723]
2. A method of agriculture or horticulture [Option ID = 1721]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1724]
4. Topography of integrated circuits [Option ID = 1722]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1724]
Which of the following are conditions of a valid Hindu marriage in accordance with section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
1. Prior consent of the parties.
2. Neither Party must have a spouse living at the time of the marriage.
3. The bridegroom must have completed the age of 21 years and the bride, the age of 18 years at the time of the marriage.
4. The parties are not sagotras of each other.
5. The parties are not sapindas of each other.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 452]
1. Only 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1808]
2. Only 1, 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1805]
3. Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1807]
4. Only 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1806]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1806]
Which of the following is an example of obligatio erga omnes of states under International Law?
[Question ID = 422]
1. Protection from Wars [Option ID = 1687]
2. Protection from slavery [Option ID = 1685]
3. Protection from Political Crimes [Option ID = 1686]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1688]
Correct Answer :-
Protection from slavery [Option ID = 1685]
Which of the following is an implied condition in case of a contract for sale by sample?
[Question ID = 499]
1. Goods shall not be free from any defect, rendering them unmerchantable, which would not be apparent on reasonable examination of the sample. [Option
ID = 1995]
2. Bulk not corresponding with the sample in quality. [Option ID = 1993]
3. Buyer shall not have a reasonable opportunity of comparing the bulk with the sample. [Option ID = 1994]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1996]
Correct Answer :-
None of these [Option ID = 1996]
Read the following statements about the offence of dacoity under the Indian Penal Code, 1860:
15)
16)
17)
18)
19)
1. Attempt to commit dacoity is punishable.
2. Assembling for the purpose of dacoity is punishable.
3. Preparation for dacoity is punishable.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 477]
1. Only 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1907]
2. Only 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1908]
3. Only 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1906]
4. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1905]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1905]
Which among the following is generally referred to as the subtle species of fraud? [Question ID = 498]
1. Undue Influence [Option ID = 1990]
2. Deliberate Mistake [Option ID = 1992]
3. Misrepresentation [Option ID = 1989]
4. Coercion [Option ID = 1991]
Correct Answer :-
Undue Influence [Option ID = 1990]
A member of the UN may be suspended from its membership [Question ID = 417]
1. by the Security Council [Option ID = 1666]
2. by the International Court of Justice upon the request made by the UN General Assembly [Option ID = 1665]
3. by the General Assembly upon the recommendations of the Security Council [Option ID = 1667]
4. by the UN Secretary General [Option ID = 1668]
Correct Answer :-
by the General Assembly upon the recommendations of the Security Council [Option ID = 1667]
According to the Information Technology Act, 2000, an electronic record is deemed to be received at a place where addressee
[Question ID = 439]
1. All these [Option ID = 1756]
2. has his server. [Option ID = 1753]
3. has his place of business. [Option ID = 1754]
4. retrieves the record. [Option ID = 1755]
Correct Answer :-
has his place of business. [Option ID = 1754]
According to Fuller, in order to evade failure, law must have the following characteristics:
1. Law must be publicly accessible
2. Law must be clear and unambiguous
3. Law must not command what cannot be done
4. Law must introduce frequent changes
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 481]
1. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1923]
2. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1921]
3. All are correct. [Option ID = 1924]
4. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1922]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1921]
Who among the following remarked that international law is positive morality? [Question ID = 486]
1. Lon Fuller [Option ID = 1941]
2. Jeremy Bentham [Option ID = 1942]
3. H.L.A. Hart [Option ID = 1943]
20)
21)
22)
23)
24)
25)
4. John Austin [Option ID = 1944]
Correct Answer :-
John Austin [Option ID = 1944]
Trade mark includes
[Question ID = 435]
1. Certification mark [Option ID = 1737]
2. Collective mark [Option ID = 1738]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1740]
4. Well known trade mark [Option ID = 1739]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1740]
Lakshmi and Ram married under the Special Marriage Act, 1954. Ram died in 2010 leaving behind Lakshmi, his mother, a son and a
daughter. The intestate and testamentary succession to his property would be governed by [Question ID = 454]
1. Intestate succession according to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and testamentary succession according to the Indian Succession Act, 1925. [Option ID
= 1816]
2. His ancestral property would devolve on his son and mother and separate property to his wife, son and daughter. [Option ID = 1815]
3. The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 [Option ID = 1813]
4. The Indian Succession Act, 1925 [Option ID = 1814]
Correct Answer :-
Intestate succession according to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and testamentary succession according to the Indian Succession Act, 1925. [Option
ID = 1816]
Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 is applicable in cases of cruelty by husband or relatives of the husband within
[Question ID = 476]
1. 2 years of marriage [Option ID = 1903]
2. 3 years of marriage [Option ID = 1902]
3. No time limit [Option ID = 1904]
4. 7 years of marriage [Option ID = 1901]
Correct Answer :-
No time limit [Option ID = 1904]
John Rawls? idea of basing justice on a contract has been challenged by [Question ID = 487]
1. Jeremy Bentham [Option ID = 1945]
2. Tom Bingham [Option ID = 1947]
3. Amartya Sen [Option ID = 1946]
4. Upendra Baxi [Option ID = 1948]
Correct Answer :-
Amartya Sen [Option ID = 1946]
Dinesh finds a gold ring on the road, not knowing to whom the ring belongs. Dinesh picks up the ring. Dinesh is guilty of which
offence under the Indian Penal Code, 1860? [Question ID = 471]
1. No offence [Option ID = 1884]
2. Theft [Option ID = 1882]
3. Criminal breach of trust [Option ID = 1883]
4. Dishonest Misappropriation [Option ID = 1881]
Correct Answer :-
No offence [Option ID = 1884]
First Geneva Convention of 1949 deals with
[Question ID = 424]
1. Amelioration of the Condition of the Wounded and Sick in Armed Forces in the Field. [Option ID = 1695]
2. Amelioration of the Condition of Wounded, Sick and Shipwrecked Members of Armed Forces at Sea. [Option ID = 1694]
26)
27)
28)
29)
30)
31)
3. Treatment of Prisoners of War. [Option ID = 1693]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1696]
Correct Answer :-
Amelioration of the Condition of the Wounded and Sick in Armed Forces in the Field. [Option ID = 1695]
Shamim Ara claimed her dower after the death of her husband from her husband?s property. She is a/an [Question ID = 453]
1. preferential creditor to all other creditors subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1809]
2. ordinary unsecured creditor, having no priority over other unsecured creditors, subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1812]
3. ordinary unsecured creditor but having priority over other unsecured creditors [Option ID = 1811]
4. secured creditor subject to her right of retention. [Option ID = 1810]
Correct Answer :-
ordinary unsecured creditor, having no priority over other unsecured creditors, subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1812]
To cede a part of the Indian Territory in favour of any foreign country, which one of the following procedural requirement must be
complied with? [Question ID = 503]
1. A law made by Parliament to the effect would be relevant and sufficient. [Option ID = 2012]
2. A law must be passed in compliance with Article 3 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2009]
3. A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed in compliance with Article 368 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2010]
4. A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed to amend the Constitution as per Article 368 and followed up by a law passed relatable to Article 3 of the
Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2011]
Correct Answer :-
A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed in compliance with Article 368 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2010]
Who defined defamation as ?publication of a statement which tends to lower a person in the estimation of right thinking members of
society generally, or which tends to make them shun or avoid that person?. [Question ID = 461]
1. Winfield [Option ID = 1841]
2. Glanville Williams [Option ID = 1844]
3. Salmond [Option ID = 1842]
4. Pollock [Option ID = 1843]
Correct Answer :-
Winfield [Option ID = 1841]
Who among the following can file a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986?
[Question ID = 457]
1. Any recognised consumer association [Option ID = 1826]
2. The Central Government or any State Government [Option ID = 1827]
3. A consumer [Option ID = 1825]
4. All of these [Option ID = 1828]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1828]
In which of the following cases has the Supreme Court made it mandatory for candidates contesting elections to the legislatures and
their spouses to declare their source of income at the time of filing nominations?
[Question ID = 478]
1. People?s Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India [Option ID = 1912]
2. Jan Chaukidar v. Union of India [Option ID = 1910]
3. Association for Democratic Reforms v. Union of India [Option ID = 1911]
4. Lok Prahari v. Union of India [Option ID = 1909]
Correct Answer :-
Lok Prahari v. Union of India [Option ID = 1909]
In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that the public authority providing services or goods as per the definition
under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 must be held liable to pay adequate compensation to the consumer for harassment or mental
agony or oppression caused to him for capricious exercise of power and the money could then be recovered from the erring public
officials?
32)
33)
34)
35)
36)
[Question ID = 465]
1. State of Gujarat v. Memom Mahomed [Option ID = 1860]
2. Shyam Sunder v. State of Rajasthan [Option ID = 1858]
3. Indian Medical Association v. V.P. Shantha [Option ID = 1857]
4. Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta [Option ID = 1859]
Correct Answer :-
Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta [Option ID = 1859]
In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that ?An intermediary shall be liable for a third party information hosted by
him if upon receiving actual knowledge from the court order or on being notified by the appropriate government, he fails to expeditiously
remove that material??
[Question ID = 438]
1. My Space Inc. v. Super Cassettes [Option ID = 1750]
2. Google India Pvt. Ltd. v. M/s Visaka Industries [Option ID = 1751]
3. Shreya Singhal v. Union of India [Option ID = 1749]
4. Avinash Bajaj v. State [Option ID = 1752]
Correct Answer :-
Shreya Singhal v. Union of India [Option ID = 1749]
In which of the following case, Lord Wilberforce opined that ?It is necessary to consider three elements inherent in any claim for
nervous shock: the class of persons whose claim should be recognized, the proximity of such persons to the incident and the means
adopted by which shock is caused??
[Question ID = 464]
1. Page v. Smith [Option ID = 1855]
2. Hinz v. Berry [Option ID = 1854]
3. Bourhill v. Young [Option ID = 1856]
4. McLoughlin v. O?Brian [Option ID = 1853]
Correct Answer :-
McLoughlin v. O?Brian [Option ID = 1853]
In which of the following offences minimum five offenders are required?
1. Affray
2. Robbery
3. Dacoity
4. Rioting
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 475]
1. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1897]
2. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1898]
3. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1900]
4. 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1899]
Correct Answer :-
3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1899]
A foreign company intends to merge with an Indian Company. As per the relevant provision in the Companies (Compromises,
Arrangements and Amalgamation) Rules, 2016, it needs to obtain prior approval of [Question ID = 442]
1. Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs. [Option ID = 1766]
2. Securities and Exchange Board of India. [Option ID = 1765]
3. Reserve Bank of India. [Option ID = 1767]
4. Department of Economic Affairs. [Option ID = 1768]
Correct Answer :-
Reserve Bank of India. [Option ID = 1767]
Who coined the term ?Compensatory Discrimination?? [Question ID = 512]
1. Prof. P.N. Singh [Option ID = 2047]
2. Prof. Marc Galanter [Option ID = 2046]
3. Prof. Upendra Baxi [Option ID = 2048]
37)
38)
39)
40)
41)
42)
4. Justice Krishna Iyer [Option ID = 2045]
Correct Answer :-
Prof. Marc Galanter [Option ID = 2046]
What is the limitation period for filing a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986? [Question ID = 459]
1. One year from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1834]
2. 2 years from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1833]
3. 6 months from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1835]
4. 90 days from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1836]
Correct Answer :-
2 years from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1833]
What is the role of section 135, Trade Marks Act, 1999? [Question ID = 434]
1. relief for recovery of property [Option ID = 1734]
2. relief for specific performance [Option ID = 1735]
3. relief for infringement [Option ID = 1733]
4. declaration of the title [Option ID = 1736]
Correct Answer :-
relief for infringement [Option ID = 1733]
What is the principle of complementarity in the context of the International Criminal Court (ICC)? [Question ID = 427]
1. It means the ICC will assist the domestic criminal court in trial and prosecution of the individual accused of committing crimes enlisted in the Rome
Statute, 1998. [Option ID = 1707]
2. It means the ICC will seek for demand production of accused to its jurisdiction. [Option ID = 1708]
3. It means the ICC will prosecute an individual only when that individual submits to its jurisdiction. [Option ID = 1706]
4. It means the ICC will only prosecute an individual if states are unwilling or unable to prosecute. [Option ID = 1705]
Correct Answer :-
It means the ICC will only prosecute an individual if states are unwilling or unable to prosecute. [Option ID = 1705]
The question regarding disqualification of the Speaker of Lok Sabha under the X Schedule of the Constitution of India is referred for
the decision to [Question ID = 479]
1. A member elected for this purpose by the Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1916]
2. Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1914]
3. Deputy Chairperson of Rajya Sabha [Option ID = 1913]
4. President of India [Option ID = 1915]
Correct Answer :-
A member elected for this purpose by the Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1916]
Dissolution of a firm can be carried by
[Question ID = 447]
1. expiry of the term for which it was constituted. [Option ID = 1786]
2. adjudication of a partner as an insolvent. [Option ID = 1787]
3. death of a partner. [Option ID = 1785]
4. All of these [Option ID = 1788]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1788]
?A?, ?B? and ?C? are partners in a partnership firm named AB&C. ?A? retires from the firm without giving any public notice. Thereafter, an
existing creditor lends Rs. ten lakh to the firm on the basis of his knowledge that ?A?, ?B? and ?C? are the three partners in the firm. This
amount remains unpaid by the firm. The creditor wants to recover the unpaid loan amount from the firm. [Question ID = 445]
1. No one will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1780]
2. ?A?, ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1778]
3. Only ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1779]
4. Only ?A? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1777]
Correct Answer :-
43)
44)
45)
46)
?A?, ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1778]
Assertion (A): Distributive justice is based on the principle that there has to be equal distribution amongst the equals.
Reason (R): Reasonable classification is the essence of equality as justice cannot be achieved by promulgating uniform law for everyone.
1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct reason for A.
2. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct reason for A.
3. Both A and R are incorrect.
4. A is incorrect but R is correct.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 488]
1. 2 [Option ID = 1950]
2. 1 [Option ID = 1949]
3. 3 [Option ID = 1951]
4. 4 [Option ID = 1952]
Correct Answer :-
1 [Option ID = 1949]
Consider the following statement about the Military Staff Committee:
1. It shall advise and assist the Security Council on all questions relating to military requirements for maintenance of international peace
and security.
2. It shall consist of Chiefs of Staff of the permanent members and two non- members nominated by the General Assembly.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 420]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1679]
2. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1680]
3. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1677]
4. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1678]
Correct Answer :-
Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1677]
Consider the following statements:
1. Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons is the first legally binding international agreement to comprehensively prohibit nuclear
weapons.
2. It was passed on July 7, 2017 by the Security Council.
3. It has not come into force.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 426]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1701]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1702]
3. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1704]
4. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1703]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1703]
Consider the following statements:
1. Moses v. Macferlan is a prominent example of theory of unjust enrichment as propounded by Lord Mansfield.
2. According to this theory, the demands of justice and equity is to prevent the unjust enrichment of one person at the cost of another.
3. Sinclair v. Brougham has propounded the theory of ?Implied-in-fact? contract to elaborate the nature of Quasi Contracts.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 491]
1. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1961]
2. Only 1 and 3 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1964]
3. Only 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1962]
47)
48)
49)
50)
51)
4. Only 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1963]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1961]
Consider the following statements:
1. A contract with a minor is void, however, a minor can after attaining majority ratify an agreement made by him during his minority.
2. Minor is not liable for the wrongful act when the cause of action in substance is ex contractu.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 496]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1983]
2. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1984]
3. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1981]
4. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1982]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1982]
Consider the following statements:
1. The Bolitho test relates to medical negligence.
2. The Bolitho test was referred to in Malay Kumar Ganguly v. Sukumar Mukherjee.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 458]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1830]
2. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1829]
3. 1 is correct but 2 is incorrect. [Option ID = 1831]
4. 1 is incorrect but 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1832]
Correct Answer :-
Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1830]
Savithri, a married Hindu woman died intestate leaving behind her husband and mother. Properties mentioned in Schedule ?A? was
inherited by her from her father and Schedule ?B? property was her self-acquired property. Pick out the correct legal proposition from
below: [Question ID = 456]
1. Her husband and mother will share equally in both the properties. [Option ID = 1821]
2. Her husband alone will succeed to both properties. [Option ID = 1822]
3. Her husband will inherit Schedule ?B? property and mother will inherit Schedule ?A? property. [Option ID = 1824]
4. Her mother will alone succeed to both properties. [Option ID = 1823]
Correct Answer :-
Her husband will inherit Schedule ?B? property and mother will inherit Schedule ?A? property. [Option ID = 1824]
Article 290-A of the Constitution of India refers to [Question ID = 505]
1. Annual payment to certain Devaswom Funds [Option ID = 2020]
2. Privy purse sums of Rulers [Option ID = 2017]
3. Exemption of property and income of a State from Union taxation [Option ID = 2018]
4. Exemption from taxation by States in respect of water or electricity in certain cases [Option ID = 2019]
Correct Answer :-
Annual payment to certain Devaswom Funds [Option ID = 2020]
Match the cases mentioned in List I with legal issues mentioned in List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
52)
Codes:
[Question ID = 449]
1. [Option ID = 1793]
2. [Option ID = 1794]
3. [Option ID = 1796]
4. [Option ID = 1795]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1795]
53)
[Question ID = 53444]
1. [Option ID = 93763]
2. [Option ID = 93764]
3. [Option ID = 93761]
4. [Option ID = 93762]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 93761]
54)
[Question ID = 495]
1. [Option ID = 1978]
2. [Option ID = 1977]
3. [Option ID = 1980]
4. [Option ID = 1979]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1980]
55)
[Question ID = 462]
1. [Option ID = 1848]
2. [Option ID = 1845]
3. [Option ID = 1846]
4. [Option ID = 1847]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1847]
[Question ID = 492]
56)
1. [Option ID = 1966]
2. [Option ID = 1968]
3. [Option ID = 1965]
4. [Option ID = 1967]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1968]
[Question ID = 472]
1. [Option ID = 1888]
2. [Option ID = 1887]
3. [Option ID = 1885]
57)
58)
4. [Option ID = 1886]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1888]
[Question ID = 490]
1. [Option ID = 1957]
2. [Option ID = 1958]
3. [Option ID = 1959]
4. [Option ID = 1960]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1958]
59)
Codes: [Question ID = 489]
1. [Option ID = 1956]
2. [Option ID = 1953]
3. [Option ID = 1955]
4. [Option ID = 1954]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1953]
60)
61)
62)
[Question ID = 448]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1791]
2. 1, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1792]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1789]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1790]
Correct Answer :-
2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1791]
Who among the following can remove the name of company from the register of companies on suo-motu basis in terms of section
248(1) of the Companies Act, 2013? [Question ID = 443]
1. Registrar of Companies [Option ID = 1770]
2. Securities and Exchange Board of India [Option ID = 1771]
3. National Company Law Tribunal [Option ID = 1769]
4. Ministry of Corporate Affairs [Option ID = 1772]
Correct Answer :-
Registrar of Companies [Option ID = 1770]
Who amongst the following accepts that ?Rights are important because they can be enforced?? [Question ID = 483]
1. Lloyd [Option ID = 1930]
2. John Rawls [Option ID = 1929]
3. Allen Buchanan [Option ID = 1932]
4. Thomas Hobbes [Option ID = 1931]
Correct Answer :-
Allen Buchanan [Option ID = 1932]
Kelson?s theory of law suggests that
1. Legal order is a hierarchy of norms.
2. The basic content of the law is determined by Grundnorm (the basic norm).
3. Law is a command.
4. Pure theory of law deals with law as it ought to be.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 484]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1935]
2. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1934]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1933]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1936]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1936]
63)
64)
65)
66)
67)
Consider the following propositions:
1. A Muslim woman, on her husband?s death, need not follow Iddat if her marriage is valid but not consummated.
2. A Muslim woman, on divorce, need not follow Iddat if her marriage is valid but not consummated.
3. A Muslim woman, on divorce, has to observe Iddat if her marriage is irregular but consummated.
4. A Muslim woman, whose marriage is void but consummated, has to observe Iddat till delivery if she is carrying the child in her womb in
case of her husband?s death.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 450]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1797]
2. Only 4 is correct. [Option ID = 1800]
3. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1799]
4. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1798]
Correct Answer :-
2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1797]
Consider the following statements about the International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea (ITLOS):
1. The Tribunal is composed of 21 independent judges.
2. It is based in Hamburg, Germany.
3. Dr. Neeru Chadha from India has been appointed as one of the Judges of the Tribunal in 2017.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 423]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1689]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1690]
3. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1692]
4. Only 3 is correct. [Option ID = 1691]
Correct Answer :-
All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1692]
Consider the following statements:
1. Under the UN Charter, the General Assembly may take up issues relating to maintenance of international peace and security, including
the principles governing disarmament and the regulation of armaments.
2. Under the UN Charter, the Security Council has the primary responsibility for the maintenance of international peace and security.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 418]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1669]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1670]
3. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1671]
4. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1672]
Correct Answer :-
Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1671]
Consider the following statements:
1. The motion for removal of a Supreme Court Judge submitted to the speaker of the Lok Sabha lapses with the dissolution of Lok Sabha.
2. The Inquiry Committee appointed under the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968 to ascertain the veracity of the motion for removal of the judge
can be treated as a tribunal under Article 136 of the Constitution.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 514]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 2055]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2056]
3. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 2053]
4. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2054]
Correct Answer :-
Neither 1 nor 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2054]
Consider the following statements:
1. The Statute of the International Court of Justice is an integral part of the UN Charter.
2. All members of the UN are ipso facto parties to the Statute of the International Court of Justice.
3. The Statute of the International Court of Justice is a separate treaty, and members of the UN have to separately ratify it in order to be
68)
69)
70)
71)
bound by the same.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 421]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1681]
2. None of these is correct. [Option ID = 1684]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1683]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1682]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1682]
Consider the following statements:
1. All robberies are either theft or extortion.
2. If A holds Z down and fraudulently takes Z?s money without Z?s consent. This is an example of theft as robbery.
3. A obtains property from Z by saying that his child is in the hands of my gang and will be put to death unless a ransom of 50 lakh rupees
is paid. Z was however not put in fear of instant death of child. This is an example of extortion as robbery.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 474]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1896]
2. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1893]
3. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1894]
4. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1895]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1894]
Consider the following statements:
1. An agreement made without adequate consideration is void.
2. A written and registered agreement made on account of a natural love and affection between the close relatives is not valid without
adequate consideration.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 493]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1969]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1970]
3. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1971]
4. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1972]
Correct Answer :-
Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1972]
Consider the following statements:
1. There may be situations where only one party is bound to the terms of the contract.
2. In order to convert a proposal into a promise, the acceptance must be absolute and may be unqualified.
3. Death or insanity of the proposer is considered as good ground for revocation of proposal in all circumstances.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 494]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1973]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1976]
3. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1974]
4. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1975]
Correct Answer :-
Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1973]
Consider the following statements:
1. The minor is estopped from setting the defence of minority when by misrepresenting his age minor himself has induced the other party
to enter into agreement with him.
2. Section 11 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 declares that only minors and persons of unsound mind are incompetent to make contract.
Codes: [Question ID = 497]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1985]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1986]
72)
73)
74)
75)
76)
3. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1987]
4. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1988]
Correct Answer :-
Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1988]
?A? a resident of Mumbai has a website ?www.caravan.co.in? launched in 2015. ?A? has a business of apparels in Mumbai having a trade
mark ?CARAVAN?. The website is accessible from Delhi. ?B? a resident of Hyderabad starts a website ?www.caravaan.co.in? in 2017 having
the same business. The website of ?B? consists of a catalogue, a toll free number, and an email address. ?A? wants to file a suit for passing
off of trade mark in Delhi.
1. ?A? can file a suit in Delhi on the basis of accessibility of website of ?B?.
2. ?A? cannot file a suit merely on the accessibility of website.
3. ?A? cannot file a suit in Delhi as the website of ?B? is not interactive.
4. ?A? can file a suit if ?B? specifically targets the forum state resulting in harm to ?A? in forum State.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 437]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1745]
2. Only 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1748]
3. Only 4 is correct. [Option ID = 1747]
4. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1746]
Correct Answer :-
2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1746]
?A? has lent money to ?P&Q? firm engaged in the cement business and has agreed to take in addition to, or in place of his interest, a
portion of the profits of the firm business. It can be said that
[Question ID = 444]
1. ?A? is a partner as well as a creditor of the ?P&Q? firm. [Option ID = 1774]
2. ?A? is a partner in ?P&Q? firm. [Option ID = 1773]
3. ?A? is not a partner in the ?P&Q? firm. [Option ID = 1775]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1776]
Correct Answer :-
?A? is not a partner in the ?P&Q? firm. [Option ID = 1775]
Minor can be admitted to the benefits of the firm
[Question ID = 446]
1. with the consent of all the existing creditors of the firm. [Option ID = 1782]
2. with the consent of all the partners. [Option ID = 1781]
3. with the consent of the guardian of such minor. [Option ID = 1783]
4. All of these [Option ID = 1784]
Correct Answer :-
with the consent of all the partners. [Option ID = 1781]
?A? instigates ?B? to murder ?C?. ?B? refuses to do so. Which offence under the Indian Penal Code, 1860 has been committed by ?A??
[Question ID = 468]
1. No offence [Option ID = 1872]
2. Abetting to commit murder [Option ID = 1869]
3. Conspiracy to commit murder [Option ID = 1870]
4. Attempt to murder [Option ID = 1871]
Correct Answer :-
Abetting to commit murder [Option ID = 1869]
Which of the following goals are mentioned in the preamble of the UN Charter?
1. To save succeeding generations from the scourge of war.
2. To reaffirm faith in fundamental human rights, in the dignity and worth of the human person, in the equal rights of men and women
and of nations large and small.
FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
1)
2)
3)
4)
DU LLM
Topic:- DU_J18_LLM_Topic01
Which of the following statement is true regarding the social contract theory on origin of State?
1. State is a creation of agreement between people
2. Thomas Hobbes? social contract theory supported limited constitutional monarchy
3. According to Rousseau, the ruler was bound by the general will of the people
4. According to Locke, the sovereign was absolute and his word was the law.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 485]
1. All are correct. [Option ID = 1940]
2. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1938]
3. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
4. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1937]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
[Question ID = 500]
1. A stipulation in a contract of sale may be a condition or warranty. [Option ID = 1997]
2. A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
3. A breach of condition results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1998]
4. All these [Option ID = 2000]
Correct Answer :-
A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
Which of the following exceptions to strict liability were recognised by Justice Blackburn in Rylands v. Fletcher?
1. Vis major
2. Statutory authority
3. Plaintiff?s own default
4. Act of third party
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 463]
1. 3 and 4 [Option ID = 1849]
2. 1, 2 and 3 [Option ID = 1851]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1852]
4. 1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Which of the following Acts was amended by the Criminal Law Amendment Act, 2013?
[Question ID = 467]
1. None of these [Option ID = 1868]
2. The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 [Option ID = 1867]
3. The Information Technology Act, 2000 [Option ID = 1865]
4. The Immoral Trafficking (Prevention) Act, 1956 [Option ID = 1866]
Correct Answer :-
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 [Option ID = 1867]
Which of the following observations on fundamental rights was made by the Supreme Court in K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India?
1. There is no overlap between rights enumerated under Article 19 and Article 21 of the Constitution of India.
2. The constitutional values embodied under every Article of Part III of the Constitution of India animates the interpretation of the other.
3. Only Article 21 contains residue of fundamental rights that are not expressly stipulated under Article 19 of the Constitution of India.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 501]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 2004]
2. Only 3 is correct. [Option ID = 2001]
3. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2002]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 2003]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2002]
Which of the following is sensitive personal information according to rule 3 of the Information Technology (Reasonable Security
Practices and Procedures and Sensitive Data or Information) Rules, 2011?
1. Credit card details
2. Medical records
3. Mobile number
4. Sexual orientation
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 436]
1. 1, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1742]
2. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1743]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1741]
4. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1744]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1743]
Which of the following is/are mechanism/mechanisms of pacific settlement of disputes under the UN Charter?
[Question ID = 419]
1. Enquiry [Option ID = 1673]
2. Judicial Settlement [Option ID = 1675]
3. Arbitration [Option ID = 1674]
4. All these [Option ID = 1676]
Correct Answer :-
All these [Option ID = 1676]
Which of the following actions of host is allowed under the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations of 1961:
[Question ID = 425]
1. The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata. [Option ID
= 1697]
2. The host state can any time search the premises of the diplomatic staff. [Option ID = 1699]
3. The host state can at any time withdraw the immunities granted to diplomats. [Option ID = 1700]
4. The host state can at any time confiscate the diplomatic bag. [Option ID = 1698]
Correct Answer :-
The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata.
[Option ID = 1697]
Which of the following provisions of the UN Charter is correctly matched:
10)
11)
12)
13)
14)
[Question ID = 428]
1. Article 2 (5) Principle of Settlement of Disputes by Peaceful Means [Option ID = 1712]
2. Article 2 (6) Principle of Non-Intervention [Option ID = 1710]
3. Article 2 (4) Prohibition on Use of Force [Option ID = 1709]
4. Article 2 (2) Principle of Sovereign Equality of the UN Members [Option ID = 1711]
Correct Answer :-
Article 2 (4) Prohibition on Use of Force [Option ID = 1709]
Which of the following are ?Inventions Not Patentable? under the Patent Act, 1970?
[Question ID = 431]
1. Invention relating to atomic Energy [Option ID = 1723]
2. A method of agriculture or horticulture [Option ID = 1721]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1724]
4. Topography of integrated circuits [Option ID = 1722]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1724]
Which of the following are conditions of a valid Hindu marriage in accordance with section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
1. Prior consent of the parties.
2. Neither Party must have a spouse living at the time of the marriage.
3. The bridegroom must have completed the age of 21 years and the bride, the age of 18 years at the time of the marriage.
4. The parties are not sagotras of each other.
5. The parties are not sapindas of each other.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 452]
1. Only 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1808]
2. Only 1, 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1805]
3. Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1807]
4. Only 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1806]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1806]
Which of the following is an example of obligatio erga omnes of states under International Law?
[Question ID = 422]
1. Protection from Wars [Option ID = 1687]
2. Protection from slavery [Option ID = 1685]
3. Protection from Political Crimes [Option ID = 1686]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1688]
Correct Answer :-
Protection from slavery [Option ID = 1685]
Which of the following is an implied condition in case of a contract for sale by sample?
[Question ID = 499]
1. Goods shall not be free from any defect, rendering them unmerchantable, which would not be apparent on reasonable examination of the sample. [Option
ID = 1995]
2. Bulk not corresponding with the sample in quality. [Option ID = 1993]
3. Buyer shall not have a reasonable opportunity of comparing the bulk with the sample. [Option ID = 1994]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1996]
Correct Answer :-
None of these [Option ID = 1996]
Read the following statements about the offence of dacoity under the Indian Penal Code, 1860:
15)
16)
17)
18)
19)
1. Attempt to commit dacoity is punishable.
2. Assembling for the purpose of dacoity is punishable.
3. Preparation for dacoity is punishable.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 477]
1. Only 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1907]
2. Only 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1908]
3. Only 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1906]
4. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1905]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1905]
Which among the following is generally referred to as the subtle species of fraud? [Question ID = 498]
1. Undue Influence [Option ID = 1990]
2. Deliberate Mistake [Option ID = 1992]
3. Misrepresentation [Option ID = 1989]
4. Coercion [Option ID = 1991]
Correct Answer :-
Undue Influence [Option ID = 1990]
A member of the UN may be suspended from its membership [Question ID = 417]
1. by the Security Council [Option ID = 1666]
2. by the International Court of Justice upon the request made by the UN General Assembly [Option ID = 1665]
3. by the General Assembly upon the recommendations of the Security Council [Option ID = 1667]
4. by the UN Secretary General [Option ID = 1668]
Correct Answer :-
by the General Assembly upon the recommendations of the Security Council [Option ID = 1667]
According to the Information Technology Act, 2000, an electronic record is deemed to be received at a place where addressee
[Question ID = 439]
1. All these [Option ID = 1756]
2. has his server. [Option ID = 1753]
3. has his place of business. [Option ID = 1754]
4. retrieves the record. [Option ID = 1755]
Correct Answer :-
has his place of business. [Option ID = 1754]
According to Fuller, in order to evade failure, law must have the following characteristics:
1. Law must be publicly accessible
2. Law must be clear and unambiguous
3. Law must not command what cannot be done
4. Law must introduce frequent changes
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 481]
1. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1923]
2. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1921]
3. All are correct. [Option ID = 1924]
4. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1922]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1921]
Who among the following remarked that international law is positive morality? [Question ID = 486]
1. Lon Fuller [Option ID = 1941]
2. Jeremy Bentham [Option ID = 1942]
3. H.L.A. Hart [Option ID = 1943]
20)
21)
22)
23)
24)
25)
4. John Austin [Option ID = 1944]
Correct Answer :-
John Austin [Option ID = 1944]
Trade mark includes
[Question ID = 435]
1. Certification mark [Option ID = 1737]
2. Collective mark [Option ID = 1738]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1740]
4. Well known trade mark [Option ID = 1739]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1740]
Lakshmi and Ram married under the Special Marriage Act, 1954. Ram died in 2010 leaving behind Lakshmi, his mother, a son and a
daughter. The intestate and testamentary succession to his property would be governed by [Question ID = 454]
1. Intestate succession according to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and testamentary succession according to the Indian Succession Act, 1925. [Option ID
= 1816]
2. His ancestral property would devolve on his son and mother and separate property to his wife, son and daughter. [Option ID = 1815]
3. The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 [Option ID = 1813]
4. The Indian Succession Act, 1925 [Option ID = 1814]
Correct Answer :-
Intestate succession according to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and testamentary succession according to the Indian Succession Act, 1925. [Option
ID = 1816]
Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 is applicable in cases of cruelty by husband or relatives of the husband within
[Question ID = 476]
1. 2 years of marriage [Option ID = 1903]
2. 3 years of marriage [Option ID = 1902]
3. No time limit [Option ID = 1904]
4. 7 years of marriage [Option ID = 1901]
Correct Answer :-
No time limit [Option ID = 1904]
John Rawls? idea of basing justice on a contract has been challenged by [Question ID = 487]
1. Jeremy Bentham [Option ID = 1945]
2. Tom Bingham [Option ID = 1947]
3. Amartya Sen [Option ID = 1946]
4. Upendra Baxi [Option ID = 1948]
Correct Answer :-
Amartya Sen [Option ID = 1946]
Dinesh finds a gold ring on the road, not knowing to whom the ring belongs. Dinesh picks up the ring. Dinesh is guilty of which
offence under the Indian Penal Code, 1860? [Question ID = 471]
1. No offence [Option ID = 1884]
2. Theft [Option ID = 1882]
3. Criminal breach of trust [Option ID = 1883]
4. Dishonest Misappropriation [Option ID = 1881]
Correct Answer :-
No offence [Option ID = 1884]
First Geneva Convention of 1949 deals with
[Question ID = 424]
1. Amelioration of the Condition of the Wounded and Sick in Armed Forces in the Field. [Option ID = 1695]
2. Amelioration of the Condition of Wounded, Sick and Shipwrecked Members of Armed Forces at Sea. [Option ID = 1694]
26)
27)
28)
29)
30)
31)
3. Treatment of Prisoners of War. [Option ID = 1693]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1696]
Correct Answer :-
Amelioration of the Condition of the Wounded and Sick in Armed Forces in the Field. [Option ID = 1695]
Shamim Ara claimed her dower after the death of her husband from her husband?s property. She is a/an [Question ID = 453]
1. preferential creditor to all other creditors subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1809]
2. ordinary unsecured creditor, having no priority over other unsecured creditors, subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1812]
3. ordinary unsecured creditor but having priority over other unsecured creditors [Option ID = 1811]
4. secured creditor subject to her right of retention. [Option ID = 1810]
Correct Answer :-
ordinary unsecured creditor, having no priority over other unsecured creditors, subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1812]
To cede a part of the Indian Territory in favour of any foreign country, which one of the following procedural requirement must be
complied with? [Question ID = 503]
1. A law made by Parliament to the effect would be relevant and sufficient. [Option ID = 2012]
2. A law must be passed in compliance with Article 3 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2009]
3. A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed in compliance with Article 368 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2010]
4. A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed to amend the Constitution as per Article 368 and followed up by a law passed relatable to Article 3 of the
Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2011]
Correct Answer :-
A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed in compliance with Article 368 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2010]
Who defined defamation as ?publication of a statement which tends to lower a person in the estimation of right thinking members of
society generally, or which tends to make them shun or avoid that person?. [Question ID = 461]
1. Winfield [Option ID = 1841]
2. Glanville Williams [Option ID = 1844]
3. Salmond [Option ID = 1842]
4. Pollock [Option ID = 1843]
Correct Answer :-
Winfield [Option ID = 1841]
Who among the following can file a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986?
[Question ID = 457]
1. Any recognised consumer association [Option ID = 1826]
2. The Central Government or any State Government [Option ID = 1827]
3. A consumer [Option ID = 1825]
4. All of these [Option ID = 1828]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1828]
In which of the following cases has the Supreme Court made it mandatory for candidates contesting elections to the legislatures and
their spouses to declare their source of income at the time of filing nominations?
[Question ID = 478]
1. People?s Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India [Option ID = 1912]
2. Jan Chaukidar v. Union of India [Option ID = 1910]
3. Association for Democratic Reforms v. Union of India [Option ID = 1911]
4. Lok Prahari v. Union of India [Option ID = 1909]
Correct Answer :-
Lok Prahari v. Union of India [Option ID = 1909]
In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that the public authority providing services or goods as per the definition
under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 must be held liable to pay adequate compensation to the consumer for harassment or mental
agony or oppression caused to him for capricious exercise of power and the money could then be recovered from the erring public
officials?
32)
33)
34)
35)
36)
[Question ID = 465]
1. State of Gujarat v. Memom Mahomed [Option ID = 1860]
2. Shyam Sunder v. State of Rajasthan [Option ID = 1858]
3. Indian Medical Association v. V.P. Shantha [Option ID = 1857]
4. Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta [Option ID = 1859]
Correct Answer :-
Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta [Option ID = 1859]
In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that ?An intermediary shall be liable for a third party information hosted by
him if upon receiving actual knowledge from the court order or on being notified by the appropriate government, he fails to expeditiously
remove that material??
[Question ID = 438]
1. My Space Inc. v. Super Cassettes [Option ID = 1750]
2. Google India Pvt. Ltd. v. M/s Visaka Industries [Option ID = 1751]
3. Shreya Singhal v. Union of India [Option ID = 1749]
4. Avinash Bajaj v. State [Option ID = 1752]
Correct Answer :-
Shreya Singhal v. Union of India [Option ID = 1749]
In which of the following case, Lord Wilberforce opined that ?It is necessary to consider three elements inherent in any claim for
nervous shock: the class of persons whose claim should be recognized, the proximity of such persons to the incident and the means
adopted by which shock is caused??
[Question ID = 464]
1. Page v. Smith [Option ID = 1855]
2. Hinz v. Berry [Option ID = 1854]
3. Bourhill v. Young [Option ID = 1856]
4. McLoughlin v. O?Brian [Option ID = 1853]
Correct Answer :-
McLoughlin v. O?Brian [Option ID = 1853]
In which of the following offences minimum five offenders are required?
1. Affray
2. Robbery
3. Dacoity
4. Rioting
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 475]
1. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1897]
2. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1898]
3. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1900]
4. 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1899]
Correct Answer :-
3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1899]
A foreign company intends to merge with an Indian Company. As per the relevant provision in the Companies (Compromises,
Arrangements and Amalgamation) Rules, 2016, it needs to obtain prior approval of [Question ID = 442]
1. Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs. [Option ID = 1766]
2. Securities and Exchange Board of India. [Option ID = 1765]
3. Reserve Bank of India. [Option ID = 1767]
4. Department of Economic Affairs. [Option ID = 1768]
Correct Answer :-
Reserve Bank of India. [Option ID = 1767]
Who coined the term ?Compensatory Discrimination?? [Question ID = 512]
1. Prof. P.N. Singh [Option ID = 2047]
2. Prof. Marc Galanter [Option ID = 2046]
3. Prof. Upendra Baxi [Option ID = 2048]
37)
38)
39)
40)
41)
42)
4. Justice Krishna Iyer [Option ID = 2045]
Correct Answer :-
Prof. Marc Galanter [Option ID = 2046]
What is the limitation period for filing a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986? [Question ID = 459]
1. One year from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1834]
2. 2 years from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1833]
3. 6 months from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1835]
4. 90 days from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1836]
Correct Answer :-
2 years from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1833]
What is the role of section 135, Trade Marks Act, 1999? [Question ID = 434]
1. relief for recovery of property [Option ID = 1734]
2. relief for specific performance [Option ID = 1735]
3. relief for infringement [Option ID = 1733]
4. declaration of the title [Option ID = 1736]
Correct Answer :-
relief for infringement [Option ID = 1733]
What is the principle of complementarity in the context of the International Criminal Court (ICC)? [Question ID = 427]
1. It means the ICC will assist the domestic criminal court in trial and prosecution of the individual accused of committing crimes enlisted in the Rome
Statute, 1998. [Option ID = 1707]
2. It means the ICC will seek for demand production of accused to its jurisdiction. [Option ID = 1708]
3. It means the ICC will prosecute an individual only when that individual submits to its jurisdiction. [Option ID = 1706]
4. It means the ICC will only prosecute an individual if states are unwilling or unable to prosecute. [Option ID = 1705]
Correct Answer :-
It means the ICC will only prosecute an individual if states are unwilling or unable to prosecute. [Option ID = 1705]
The question regarding disqualification of the Speaker of Lok Sabha under the X Schedule of the Constitution of India is referred for
the decision to [Question ID = 479]
1. A member elected for this purpose by the Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1916]
2. Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1914]
3. Deputy Chairperson of Rajya Sabha [Option ID = 1913]
4. President of India [Option ID = 1915]
Correct Answer :-
A member elected for this purpose by the Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1916]
Dissolution of a firm can be carried by
[Question ID = 447]
1. expiry of the term for which it was constituted. [Option ID = 1786]
2. adjudication of a partner as an insolvent. [Option ID = 1787]
3. death of a partner. [Option ID = 1785]
4. All of these [Option ID = 1788]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1788]
?A?, ?B? and ?C? are partners in a partnership firm named AB&C. ?A? retires from the firm without giving any public notice. Thereafter, an
existing creditor lends Rs. ten lakh to the firm on the basis of his knowledge that ?A?, ?B? and ?C? are the three partners in the firm. This
amount remains unpaid by the firm. The creditor wants to recover the unpaid loan amount from the firm. [Question ID = 445]
1. No one will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1780]
2. ?A?, ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1778]
3. Only ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1779]
4. Only ?A? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1777]
Correct Answer :-
43)
44)
45)
46)
?A?, ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1778]
Assertion (A): Distributive justice is based on the principle that there has to be equal distribution amongst the equals.
Reason (R): Reasonable classification is the essence of equality as justice cannot be achieved by promulgating uniform law for everyone.
1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct reason for A.
2. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct reason for A.
3. Both A and R are incorrect.
4. A is incorrect but R is correct.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 488]
1. 2 [Option ID = 1950]
2. 1 [Option ID = 1949]
3. 3 [Option ID = 1951]
4. 4 [Option ID = 1952]
Correct Answer :-
1 [Option ID = 1949]
Consider the following statement about the Military Staff Committee:
1. It shall advise and assist the Security Council on all questions relating to military requirements for maintenance of international peace
and security.
2. It shall consist of Chiefs of Staff of the permanent members and two non- members nominated by the General Assembly.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 420]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1679]
2. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1680]
3. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1677]
4. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1678]
Correct Answer :-
Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1677]
Consider the following statements:
1. Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons is the first legally binding international agreement to comprehensively prohibit nuclear
weapons.
2. It was passed on July 7, 2017 by the Security Council.
3. It has not come into force.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 426]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1701]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1702]
3. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1704]
4. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1703]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1703]
Consider the following statements:
1. Moses v. Macferlan is a prominent example of theory of unjust enrichment as propounded by Lord Mansfield.
2. According to this theory, the demands of justice and equity is to prevent the unjust enrichment of one person at the cost of another.
3. Sinclair v. Brougham has propounded the theory of ?Implied-in-fact? contract to elaborate the nature of Quasi Contracts.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 491]
1. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1961]
2. Only 1 and 3 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1964]
3. Only 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1962]
47)
48)
49)
50)
51)
4. Only 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1963]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1961]
Consider the following statements:
1. A contract with a minor is void, however, a minor can after attaining majority ratify an agreement made by him during his minority.
2. Minor is not liable for the wrongful act when the cause of action in substance is ex contractu.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 496]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1983]
2. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1984]
3. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1981]
4. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1982]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1982]
Consider the following statements:
1. The Bolitho test relates to medical negligence.
2. The Bolitho test was referred to in Malay Kumar Ganguly v. Sukumar Mukherjee.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 458]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1830]
2. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1829]
3. 1 is correct but 2 is incorrect. [Option ID = 1831]
4. 1 is incorrect but 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1832]
Correct Answer :-
Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1830]
Savithri, a married Hindu woman died intestate leaving behind her husband and mother. Properties mentioned in Schedule ?A? was
inherited by her from her father and Schedule ?B? property was her self-acquired property. Pick out the correct legal proposition from
below: [Question ID = 456]
1. Her husband and mother will share equally in both the properties. [Option ID = 1821]
2. Her husband alone will succeed to both properties. [Option ID = 1822]
3. Her husband will inherit Schedule ?B? property and mother will inherit Schedule ?A? property. [Option ID = 1824]
4. Her mother will alone succeed to both properties. [Option ID = 1823]
Correct Answer :-
Her husband will inherit Schedule ?B? property and mother will inherit Schedule ?A? property. [Option ID = 1824]
Article 290-A of the Constitution of India refers to [Question ID = 505]
1. Annual payment to certain Devaswom Funds [Option ID = 2020]
2. Privy purse sums of Rulers [Option ID = 2017]
3. Exemption of property and income of a State from Union taxation [Option ID = 2018]
4. Exemption from taxation by States in respect of water or electricity in certain cases [Option ID = 2019]
Correct Answer :-
Annual payment to certain Devaswom Funds [Option ID = 2020]
Match the cases mentioned in List I with legal issues mentioned in List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
52)
Codes:
[Question ID = 449]
1. [Option ID = 1793]
2. [Option ID = 1794]
3. [Option ID = 1796]
4. [Option ID = 1795]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1795]
53)
[Question ID = 53444]
1. [Option ID = 93763]
2. [Option ID = 93764]
3. [Option ID = 93761]
4. [Option ID = 93762]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 93761]
54)
[Question ID = 495]
1. [Option ID = 1978]
2. [Option ID = 1977]
3. [Option ID = 1980]
4. [Option ID = 1979]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1980]
55)
[Question ID = 462]
1. [Option ID = 1848]
2. [Option ID = 1845]
3. [Option ID = 1846]
4. [Option ID = 1847]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1847]
[Question ID = 492]
56)
1. [Option ID = 1966]
2. [Option ID = 1968]
3. [Option ID = 1965]
4. [Option ID = 1967]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1968]
[Question ID = 472]
1. [Option ID = 1888]
2. [Option ID = 1887]
3. [Option ID = 1885]
57)
58)
4. [Option ID = 1886]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1888]
[Question ID = 490]
1. [Option ID = 1957]
2. [Option ID = 1958]
3. [Option ID = 1959]
4. [Option ID = 1960]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1958]
59)
Codes: [Question ID = 489]
1. [Option ID = 1956]
2. [Option ID = 1953]
3. [Option ID = 1955]
4. [Option ID = 1954]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1953]
60)
61)
62)
[Question ID = 448]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1791]
2. 1, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1792]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1789]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1790]
Correct Answer :-
2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1791]
Who among the following can remove the name of company from the register of companies on suo-motu basis in terms of section
248(1) of the Companies Act, 2013? [Question ID = 443]
1. Registrar of Companies [Option ID = 1770]
2. Securities and Exchange Board of India [Option ID = 1771]
3. National Company Law Tribunal [Option ID = 1769]
4. Ministry of Corporate Affairs [Option ID = 1772]
Correct Answer :-
Registrar of Companies [Option ID = 1770]
Who amongst the following accepts that ?Rights are important because they can be enforced?? [Question ID = 483]
1. Lloyd [Option ID = 1930]
2. John Rawls [Option ID = 1929]
3. Allen Buchanan [Option ID = 1932]
4. Thomas Hobbes [Option ID = 1931]
Correct Answer :-
Allen Buchanan [Option ID = 1932]
Kelson?s theory of law suggests that
1. Legal order is a hierarchy of norms.
2. The basic content of the law is determined by Grundnorm (the basic norm).
3. Law is a command.
4. Pure theory of law deals with law as it ought to be.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 484]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1935]
2. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1934]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1933]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1936]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1936]
63)
64)
65)
66)
67)
Consider the following propositions:
1. A Muslim woman, on her husband?s death, need not follow Iddat if her marriage is valid but not consummated.
2. A Muslim woman, on divorce, need not follow Iddat if her marriage is valid but not consummated.
3. A Muslim woman, on divorce, has to observe Iddat if her marriage is irregular but consummated.
4. A Muslim woman, whose marriage is void but consummated, has to observe Iddat till delivery if she is carrying the child in her womb in
case of her husband?s death.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 450]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1797]
2. Only 4 is correct. [Option ID = 1800]
3. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1799]
4. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1798]
Correct Answer :-
2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1797]
Consider the following statements about the International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea (ITLOS):
1. The Tribunal is composed of 21 independent judges.
2. It is based in Hamburg, Germany.
3. Dr. Neeru Chadha from India has been appointed as one of the Judges of the Tribunal in 2017.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 423]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1689]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1690]
3. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1692]
4. Only 3 is correct. [Option ID = 1691]
Correct Answer :-
All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1692]
Consider the following statements:
1. Under the UN Charter, the General Assembly may take up issues relating to maintenance of international peace and security, including
the principles governing disarmament and the regulation of armaments.
2. Under the UN Charter, the Security Council has the primary responsibility for the maintenance of international peace and security.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 418]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1669]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1670]
3. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1671]
4. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1672]
Correct Answer :-
Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1671]
Consider the following statements:
1. The motion for removal of a Supreme Court Judge submitted to the speaker of the Lok Sabha lapses with the dissolution of Lok Sabha.
2. The Inquiry Committee appointed under the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968 to ascertain the veracity of the motion for removal of the judge
can be treated as a tribunal under Article 136 of the Constitution.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 514]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 2055]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2056]
3. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 2053]
4. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2054]
Correct Answer :-
Neither 1 nor 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2054]
Consider the following statements:
1. The Statute of the International Court of Justice is an integral part of the UN Charter.
2. All members of the UN are ipso facto parties to the Statute of the International Court of Justice.
3. The Statute of the International Court of Justice is a separate treaty, and members of the UN have to separately ratify it in order to be
68)
69)
70)
71)
bound by the same.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 421]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1681]
2. None of these is correct. [Option ID = 1684]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1683]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1682]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1682]
Consider the following statements:
1. All robberies are either theft or extortion.
2. If A holds Z down and fraudulently takes Z?s money without Z?s consent. This is an example of theft as robbery.
3. A obtains property from Z by saying that his child is in the hands of my gang and will be put to death unless a ransom of 50 lakh rupees
is paid. Z was however not put in fear of instant death of child. This is an example of extortion as robbery.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 474]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1896]
2. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1893]
3. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1894]
4. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1895]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1894]
Consider the following statements:
1. An agreement made without adequate consideration is void.
2. A written and registered agreement made on account of a natural love and affection between the close relatives is not valid without
adequate consideration.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 493]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1969]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1970]
3. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1971]
4. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1972]
Correct Answer :-
Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1972]
Consider the following statements:
1. There may be situations where only one party is bound to the terms of the contract.
2. In order to convert a proposal into a promise, the acceptance must be absolute and may be unqualified.
3. Death or insanity of the proposer is considered as good ground for revocation of proposal in all circumstances.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 494]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1973]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1976]
3. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1974]
4. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1975]
Correct Answer :-
Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1973]
Consider the following statements:
1. The minor is estopped from setting the defence of minority when by misrepresenting his age minor himself has induced the other party
to enter into agreement with him.
2. Section 11 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 declares that only minors and persons of unsound mind are incompetent to make contract.
Codes: [Question ID = 497]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1985]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1986]
72)
73)
74)
75)
76)
3. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1987]
4. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1988]
Correct Answer :-
Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1988]
?A? a resident of Mumbai has a website ?www.caravan.co.in? launched in 2015. ?A? has a business of apparels in Mumbai having a trade
mark ?CARAVAN?. The website is accessible from Delhi. ?B? a resident of Hyderabad starts a website ?www.caravaan.co.in? in 2017 having
the same business. The website of ?B? consists of a catalogue, a toll free number, and an email address. ?A? wants to file a suit for passing
off of trade mark in Delhi.
1. ?A? can file a suit in Delhi on the basis of accessibility of website of ?B?.
2. ?A? cannot file a suit merely on the accessibility of website.
3. ?A? cannot file a suit in Delhi as the website of ?B? is not interactive.
4. ?A? can file a suit if ?B? specifically targets the forum state resulting in harm to ?A? in forum State.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 437]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1745]
2. Only 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1748]
3. Only 4 is correct. [Option ID = 1747]
4. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1746]
Correct Answer :-
2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1746]
?A? has lent money to ?P&Q? firm engaged in the cement business and has agreed to take in addition to, or in place of his interest, a
portion of the profits of the firm business. It can be said that
[Question ID = 444]
1. ?A? is a partner as well as a creditor of the ?P&Q? firm. [Option ID = 1774]
2. ?A? is a partner in ?P&Q? firm. [Option ID = 1773]
3. ?A? is not a partner in the ?P&Q? firm. [Option ID = 1775]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1776]
Correct Answer :-
?A? is not a partner in the ?P&Q? firm. [Option ID = 1775]
Minor can be admitted to the benefits of the firm
[Question ID = 446]
1. with the consent of all the existing creditors of the firm. [Option ID = 1782]
2. with the consent of all the partners. [Option ID = 1781]
3. with the consent of the guardian of such minor. [Option ID = 1783]
4. All of these [Option ID = 1784]
Correct Answer :-
with the consent of all the partners. [Option ID = 1781]
?A? instigates ?B? to murder ?C?. ?B? refuses to do so. Which offence under the Indian Penal Code, 1860 has been committed by ?A??
[Question ID = 468]
1. No offence [Option ID = 1872]
2. Abetting to commit murder [Option ID = 1869]
3. Conspiracy to commit murder [Option ID = 1870]
4. Attempt to murder [Option ID = 1871]
Correct Answer :-
Abetting to commit murder [Option ID = 1869]
Which of the following goals are mentioned in the preamble of the UN Charter?
1. To save succeeding generations from the scourge of war.
2. To reaffirm faith in fundamental human rights, in the dignity and worth of the human person, in the equal rights of men and women
and of nations large and small.
77)
78)
79)
80)
81)
82)
3. To promote social progress and better standards of life in larger freedom.
4. To promote democratic order in conflict-ridden societies.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 416]
1. Only 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1662]
2. Only 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1661]
3. Only 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1663]
4. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1664]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1664]
Which of the following is an example of intangible property? [Question ID = 433]
1. Sale Deed of land [Option ID = 1729]
2. Pass book of a bank account [Option ID = 1730]
3. An autobiographical work [Option ID = 1731]
4. Indemnity Bond [Option ID = 1732]
Correct Answer :-
An autobiographical work [Option ID = 1731]
Which of the following are jural correlatives in Hohfeld?s scheme of analysis of rights?
1. Right ?Liberty
2. Power-Liability
3. Liberty-No-Right
4. Immunity-Disability
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 480]
1. 1, 2, 3 and 4 [Option ID = 1920]
2. 1, 2 and 3 [Option ID = 1917]
3. 2, 3 and 4 [Option ID = 1918]
4. 1 and 2 [Option ID = 1919]
Correct Answer :-
2, 3 and 4 [Option ID = 1918]
Which of the following is not a body associated with the European Union (EU)? [Question ID = 430]
1. Council of the European Union [Option ID = 1719]
2. Council of Europe [Option ID = 1717]
3. European Commission [Option ID = 1720]
4. European Council [Option ID = 1718]
Correct Answer :-
Council of Europe [Option ID = 1717]
Which of the following statement is incorrect as per the Constitution of India? [Question ID = 507]
1. The President of India exercises three functions, namely, summoning, prorogation and dissolution in relation to the Houses of Parliament. [Option ID =
2026]
2. The President of India may address either House of Parliament or both Houses assembled together. [Option ID = 2027]
3. Allocation of seats in the House of the People to the States shall be readjusted upon the completion of each census. [Option ID = 2025]
4. The Speaker summons the House of People. [Option ID = 2028]
Correct Answer :-
Which of the following statement is incorrect about the Attorney General for India? [Question ID = 511]
1. Attorney General is appointed by the President. [Option ID = 2041]
2. Attorney General shall have right of audience in all courts in India in the performance of his duties. [Option ID = 2042]
3. Attorney General shall be entitled to vote when he takes part in Parliamentary proceedings. [Option ID = 2044]
4. Attorney General for India shall have the right to take part in the proceedings of Parliament. [Option ID = 2043]
Correct Answer :-
Attorney General shall be entitled to vote when he takes part in Parliamentary proceedings. [Option ID = 2044]
FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
1)
2)
3)
4)
DU LLM
Topic:- DU_J18_LLM_Topic01
Which of the following statement is true regarding the social contract theory on origin of State?
1. State is a creation of agreement between people
2. Thomas Hobbes? social contract theory supported limited constitutional monarchy
3. According to Rousseau, the ruler was bound by the general will of the people
4. According to Locke, the sovereign was absolute and his word was the law.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 485]
1. All are correct. [Option ID = 1940]
2. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1938]
3. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
4. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1937]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
[Question ID = 500]
1. A stipulation in a contract of sale may be a condition or warranty. [Option ID = 1997]
2. A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
3. A breach of condition results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1998]
4. All these [Option ID = 2000]
Correct Answer :-
A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
Which of the following exceptions to strict liability were recognised by Justice Blackburn in Rylands v. Fletcher?
1. Vis major
2. Statutory authority
3. Plaintiff?s own default
4. Act of third party
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 463]
1. 3 and 4 [Option ID = 1849]
2. 1, 2 and 3 [Option ID = 1851]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1852]
4. 1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Which of the following Acts was amended by the Criminal Law Amendment Act, 2013?
[Question ID = 467]
1. None of these [Option ID = 1868]
2. The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 [Option ID = 1867]
3. The Information Technology Act, 2000 [Option ID = 1865]
4. The Immoral Trafficking (Prevention) Act, 1956 [Option ID = 1866]
Correct Answer :-
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 [Option ID = 1867]
Which of the following observations on fundamental rights was made by the Supreme Court in K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India?
1. There is no overlap between rights enumerated under Article 19 and Article 21 of the Constitution of India.
2. The constitutional values embodied under every Article of Part III of the Constitution of India animates the interpretation of the other.
3. Only Article 21 contains residue of fundamental rights that are not expressly stipulated under Article 19 of the Constitution of India.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 501]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 2004]
2. Only 3 is correct. [Option ID = 2001]
3. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2002]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 2003]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2002]
Which of the following is sensitive personal information according to rule 3 of the Information Technology (Reasonable Security
Practices and Procedures and Sensitive Data or Information) Rules, 2011?
1. Credit card details
2. Medical records
3. Mobile number
4. Sexual orientation
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 436]
1. 1, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1742]
2. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1743]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1741]
4. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1744]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1743]
Which of the following is/are mechanism/mechanisms of pacific settlement of disputes under the UN Charter?
[Question ID = 419]
1. Enquiry [Option ID = 1673]
2. Judicial Settlement [Option ID = 1675]
3. Arbitration [Option ID = 1674]
4. All these [Option ID = 1676]
Correct Answer :-
All these [Option ID = 1676]
Which of the following actions of host is allowed under the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations of 1961:
[Question ID = 425]
1. The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata. [Option ID
= 1697]
2. The host state can any time search the premises of the diplomatic staff. [Option ID = 1699]
3. The host state can at any time withdraw the immunities granted to diplomats. [Option ID = 1700]
4. The host state can at any time confiscate the diplomatic bag. [Option ID = 1698]
Correct Answer :-
The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata.
[Option ID = 1697]
Which of the following provisions of the UN Charter is correctly matched:
10)
11)
12)
13)
14)
[Question ID = 428]
1. Article 2 (5) Principle of Settlement of Disputes by Peaceful Means [Option ID = 1712]
2. Article 2 (6) Principle of Non-Intervention [Option ID = 1710]
3. Article 2 (4) Prohibition on Use of Force [Option ID = 1709]
4. Article 2 (2) Principle of Sovereign Equality of the UN Members [Option ID = 1711]
Correct Answer :-
Article 2 (4) Prohibition on Use of Force [Option ID = 1709]
Which of the following are ?Inventions Not Patentable? under the Patent Act, 1970?
[Question ID = 431]
1. Invention relating to atomic Energy [Option ID = 1723]
2. A method of agriculture or horticulture [Option ID = 1721]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1724]
4. Topography of integrated circuits [Option ID = 1722]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1724]
Which of the following are conditions of a valid Hindu marriage in accordance with section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
1. Prior consent of the parties.
2. Neither Party must have a spouse living at the time of the marriage.
3. The bridegroom must have completed the age of 21 years and the bride, the age of 18 years at the time of the marriage.
4. The parties are not sagotras of each other.
5. The parties are not sapindas of each other.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 452]
1. Only 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1808]
2. Only 1, 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1805]
3. Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1807]
4. Only 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1806]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1806]
Which of the following is an example of obligatio erga omnes of states under International Law?
[Question ID = 422]
1. Protection from Wars [Option ID = 1687]
2. Protection from slavery [Option ID = 1685]
3. Protection from Political Crimes [Option ID = 1686]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1688]
Correct Answer :-
Protection from slavery [Option ID = 1685]
Which of the following is an implied condition in case of a contract for sale by sample?
[Question ID = 499]
1. Goods shall not be free from any defect, rendering them unmerchantable, which would not be apparent on reasonable examination of the sample. [Option
ID = 1995]
2. Bulk not corresponding with the sample in quality. [Option ID = 1993]
3. Buyer shall not have a reasonable opportunity of comparing the bulk with the sample. [Option ID = 1994]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1996]
Correct Answer :-
None of these [Option ID = 1996]
Read the following statements about the offence of dacoity under the Indian Penal Code, 1860:
15)
16)
17)
18)
19)
1. Attempt to commit dacoity is punishable.
2. Assembling for the purpose of dacoity is punishable.
3. Preparation for dacoity is punishable.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 477]
1. Only 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1907]
2. Only 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1908]
3. Only 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1906]
4. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1905]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1905]
Which among the following is generally referred to as the subtle species of fraud? [Question ID = 498]
1. Undue Influence [Option ID = 1990]
2. Deliberate Mistake [Option ID = 1992]
3. Misrepresentation [Option ID = 1989]
4. Coercion [Option ID = 1991]
Correct Answer :-
Undue Influence [Option ID = 1990]
A member of the UN may be suspended from its membership [Question ID = 417]
1. by the Security Council [Option ID = 1666]
2. by the International Court of Justice upon the request made by the UN General Assembly [Option ID = 1665]
3. by the General Assembly upon the recommendations of the Security Council [Option ID = 1667]
4. by the UN Secretary General [Option ID = 1668]
Correct Answer :-
by the General Assembly upon the recommendations of the Security Council [Option ID = 1667]
According to the Information Technology Act, 2000, an electronic record is deemed to be received at a place where addressee
[Question ID = 439]
1. All these [Option ID = 1756]
2. has his server. [Option ID = 1753]
3. has his place of business. [Option ID = 1754]
4. retrieves the record. [Option ID = 1755]
Correct Answer :-
has his place of business. [Option ID = 1754]
According to Fuller, in order to evade failure, law must have the following characteristics:
1. Law must be publicly accessible
2. Law must be clear and unambiguous
3. Law must not command what cannot be done
4. Law must introduce frequent changes
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 481]
1. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1923]
2. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1921]
3. All are correct. [Option ID = 1924]
4. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1922]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1921]
Who among the following remarked that international law is positive morality? [Question ID = 486]
1. Lon Fuller [Option ID = 1941]
2. Jeremy Bentham [Option ID = 1942]
3. H.L.A. Hart [Option ID = 1943]
20)
21)
22)
23)
24)
25)
4. John Austin [Option ID = 1944]
Correct Answer :-
John Austin [Option ID = 1944]
Trade mark includes
[Question ID = 435]
1. Certification mark [Option ID = 1737]
2. Collective mark [Option ID = 1738]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1740]
4. Well known trade mark [Option ID = 1739]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1740]
Lakshmi and Ram married under the Special Marriage Act, 1954. Ram died in 2010 leaving behind Lakshmi, his mother, a son and a
daughter. The intestate and testamentary succession to his property would be governed by [Question ID = 454]
1. Intestate succession according to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and testamentary succession according to the Indian Succession Act, 1925. [Option ID
= 1816]
2. His ancestral property would devolve on his son and mother and separate property to his wife, son and daughter. [Option ID = 1815]
3. The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 [Option ID = 1813]
4. The Indian Succession Act, 1925 [Option ID = 1814]
Correct Answer :-
Intestate succession according to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and testamentary succession according to the Indian Succession Act, 1925. [Option
ID = 1816]
Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 is applicable in cases of cruelty by husband or relatives of the husband within
[Question ID = 476]
1. 2 years of marriage [Option ID = 1903]
2. 3 years of marriage [Option ID = 1902]
3. No time limit [Option ID = 1904]
4. 7 years of marriage [Option ID = 1901]
Correct Answer :-
No time limit [Option ID = 1904]
John Rawls? idea of basing justice on a contract has been challenged by [Question ID = 487]
1. Jeremy Bentham [Option ID = 1945]
2. Tom Bingham [Option ID = 1947]
3. Amartya Sen [Option ID = 1946]
4. Upendra Baxi [Option ID = 1948]
Correct Answer :-
Amartya Sen [Option ID = 1946]
Dinesh finds a gold ring on the road, not knowing to whom the ring belongs. Dinesh picks up the ring. Dinesh is guilty of which
offence under the Indian Penal Code, 1860? [Question ID = 471]
1. No offence [Option ID = 1884]
2. Theft [Option ID = 1882]
3. Criminal breach of trust [Option ID = 1883]
4. Dishonest Misappropriation [Option ID = 1881]
Correct Answer :-
No offence [Option ID = 1884]
First Geneva Convention of 1949 deals with
[Question ID = 424]
1. Amelioration of the Condition of the Wounded and Sick in Armed Forces in the Field. [Option ID = 1695]
2. Amelioration of the Condition of Wounded, Sick and Shipwrecked Members of Armed Forces at Sea. [Option ID = 1694]
26)
27)
28)
29)
30)
31)
3. Treatment of Prisoners of War. [Option ID = 1693]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1696]
Correct Answer :-
Amelioration of the Condition of the Wounded and Sick in Armed Forces in the Field. [Option ID = 1695]
Shamim Ara claimed her dower after the death of her husband from her husband?s property. She is a/an [Question ID = 453]
1. preferential creditor to all other creditors subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1809]
2. ordinary unsecured creditor, having no priority over other unsecured creditors, subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1812]
3. ordinary unsecured creditor but having priority over other unsecured creditors [Option ID = 1811]
4. secured creditor subject to her right of retention. [Option ID = 1810]
Correct Answer :-
ordinary unsecured creditor, having no priority over other unsecured creditors, subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1812]
To cede a part of the Indian Territory in favour of any foreign country, which one of the following procedural requirement must be
complied with? [Question ID = 503]
1. A law made by Parliament to the effect would be relevant and sufficient. [Option ID = 2012]
2. A law must be passed in compliance with Article 3 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2009]
3. A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed in compliance with Article 368 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2010]
4. A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed to amend the Constitution as per Article 368 and followed up by a law passed relatable to Article 3 of the
Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2011]
Correct Answer :-
A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed in compliance with Article 368 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2010]
Who defined defamation as ?publication of a statement which tends to lower a person in the estimation of right thinking members of
society generally, or which tends to make them shun or avoid that person?. [Question ID = 461]
1. Winfield [Option ID = 1841]
2. Glanville Williams [Option ID = 1844]
3. Salmond [Option ID = 1842]
4. Pollock [Option ID = 1843]
Correct Answer :-
Winfield [Option ID = 1841]
Who among the following can file a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986?
[Question ID = 457]
1. Any recognised consumer association [Option ID = 1826]
2. The Central Government or any State Government [Option ID = 1827]
3. A consumer [Option ID = 1825]
4. All of these [Option ID = 1828]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1828]
In which of the following cases has the Supreme Court made it mandatory for candidates contesting elections to the legislatures and
their spouses to declare their source of income at the time of filing nominations?
[Question ID = 478]
1. People?s Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India [Option ID = 1912]
2. Jan Chaukidar v. Union of India [Option ID = 1910]
3. Association for Democratic Reforms v. Union of India [Option ID = 1911]
4. Lok Prahari v. Union of India [Option ID = 1909]
Correct Answer :-
Lok Prahari v. Union of India [Option ID = 1909]
In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that the public authority providing services or goods as per the definition
under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 must be held liable to pay adequate compensation to the consumer for harassment or mental
agony or oppression caused to him for capricious exercise of power and the money could then be recovered from the erring public
officials?
32)
33)
34)
35)
36)
[Question ID = 465]
1. State of Gujarat v. Memom Mahomed [Option ID = 1860]
2. Shyam Sunder v. State of Rajasthan [Option ID = 1858]
3. Indian Medical Association v. V.P. Shantha [Option ID = 1857]
4. Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta [Option ID = 1859]
Correct Answer :-
Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta [Option ID = 1859]
In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that ?An intermediary shall be liable for a third party information hosted by
him if upon receiving actual knowledge from the court order or on being notified by the appropriate government, he fails to expeditiously
remove that material??
[Question ID = 438]
1. My Space Inc. v. Super Cassettes [Option ID = 1750]
2. Google India Pvt. Ltd. v. M/s Visaka Industries [Option ID = 1751]
3. Shreya Singhal v. Union of India [Option ID = 1749]
4. Avinash Bajaj v. State [Option ID = 1752]
Correct Answer :-
Shreya Singhal v. Union of India [Option ID = 1749]
In which of the following case, Lord Wilberforce opined that ?It is necessary to consider three elements inherent in any claim for
nervous shock: the class of persons whose claim should be recognized, the proximity of such persons to the incident and the means
adopted by which shock is caused??
[Question ID = 464]
1. Page v. Smith [Option ID = 1855]
2. Hinz v. Berry [Option ID = 1854]
3. Bourhill v. Young [Option ID = 1856]
4. McLoughlin v. O?Brian [Option ID = 1853]
Correct Answer :-
McLoughlin v. O?Brian [Option ID = 1853]
In which of the following offences minimum five offenders are required?
1. Affray
2. Robbery
3. Dacoity
4. Rioting
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 475]
1. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1897]
2. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1898]
3. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1900]
4. 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1899]
Correct Answer :-
3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1899]
A foreign company intends to merge with an Indian Company. As per the relevant provision in the Companies (Compromises,
Arrangements and Amalgamation) Rules, 2016, it needs to obtain prior approval of [Question ID = 442]
1. Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs. [Option ID = 1766]
2. Securities and Exchange Board of India. [Option ID = 1765]
3. Reserve Bank of India. [Option ID = 1767]
4. Department of Economic Affairs. [Option ID = 1768]
Correct Answer :-
Reserve Bank of India. [Option ID = 1767]
Who coined the term ?Compensatory Discrimination?? [Question ID = 512]
1. Prof. P.N. Singh [Option ID = 2047]
2. Prof. Marc Galanter [Option ID = 2046]
3. Prof. Upendra Baxi [Option ID = 2048]
37)
38)
39)
40)
41)
42)
4. Justice Krishna Iyer [Option ID = 2045]
Correct Answer :-
Prof. Marc Galanter [Option ID = 2046]
What is the limitation period for filing a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986? [Question ID = 459]
1. One year from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1834]
2. 2 years from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1833]
3. 6 months from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1835]
4. 90 days from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1836]
Correct Answer :-
2 years from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1833]
What is the role of section 135, Trade Marks Act, 1999? [Question ID = 434]
1. relief for recovery of property [Option ID = 1734]
2. relief for specific performance [Option ID = 1735]
3. relief for infringement [Option ID = 1733]
4. declaration of the title [Option ID = 1736]
Correct Answer :-
relief for infringement [Option ID = 1733]
What is the principle of complementarity in the context of the International Criminal Court (ICC)? [Question ID = 427]
1. It means the ICC will assist the domestic criminal court in trial and prosecution of the individual accused of committing crimes enlisted in the Rome
Statute, 1998. [Option ID = 1707]
2. It means the ICC will seek for demand production of accused to its jurisdiction. [Option ID = 1708]
3. It means the ICC will prosecute an individual only when that individual submits to its jurisdiction. [Option ID = 1706]
4. It means the ICC will only prosecute an individual if states are unwilling or unable to prosecute. [Option ID = 1705]
Correct Answer :-
It means the ICC will only prosecute an individual if states are unwilling or unable to prosecute. [Option ID = 1705]
The question regarding disqualification of the Speaker of Lok Sabha under the X Schedule of the Constitution of India is referred for
the decision to [Question ID = 479]
1. A member elected for this purpose by the Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1916]
2. Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1914]
3. Deputy Chairperson of Rajya Sabha [Option ID = 1913]
4. President of India [Option ID = 1915]
Correct Answer :-
A member elected for this purpose by the Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1916]
Dissolution of a firm can be carried by
[Question ID = 447]
1. expiry of the term for which it was constituted. [Option ID = 1786]
2. adjudication of a partner as an insolvent. [Option ID = 1787]
3. death of a partner. [Option ID = 1785]
4. All of these [Option ID = 1788]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1788]
?A?, ?B? and ?C? are partners in a partnership firm named AB&C. ?A? retires from the firm without giving any public notice. Thereafter, an
existing creditor lends Rs. ten lakh to the firm on the basis of his knowledge that ?A?, ?B? and ?C? are the three partners in the firm. This
amount remains unpaid by the firm. The creditor wants to recover the unpaid loan amount from the firm. [Question ID = 445]
1. No one will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1780]
2. ?A?, ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1778]
3. Only ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1779]
4. Only ?A? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1777]
Correct Answer :-
43)
44)
45)
46)
?A?, ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1778]
Assertion (A): Distributive justice is based on the principle that there has to be equal distribution amongst the equals.
Reason (R): Reasonable classification is the essence of equality as justice cannot be achieved by promulgating uniform law for everyone.
1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct reason for A.
2. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct reason for A.
3. Both A and R are incorrect.
4. A is incorrect but R is correct.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 488]
1. 2 [Option ID = 1950]
2. 1 [Option ID = 1949]
3. 3 [Option ID = 1951]
4. 4 [Option ID = 1952]
Correct Answer :-
1 [Option ID = 1949]
Consider the following statement about the Military Staff Committee:
1. It shall advise and assist the Security Council on all questions relating to military requirements for maintenance of international peace
and security.
2. It shall consist of Chiefs of Staff of the permanent members and two non- members nominated by the General Assembly.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 420]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1679]
2. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1680]
3. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1677]
4. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1678]
Correct Answer :-
Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1677]
Consider the following statements:
1. Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons is the first legally binding international agreement to comprehensively prohibit nuclear
weapons.
2. It was passed on July 7, 2017 by the Security Council.
3. It has not come into force.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 426]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1701]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1702]
3. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1704]
4. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1703]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1703]
Consider the following statements:
1. Moses v. Macferlan is a prominent example of theory of unjust enrichment as propounded by Lord Mansfield.
2. According to this theory, the demands of justice and equity is to prevent the unjust enrichment of one person at the cost of another.
3. Sinclair v. Brougham has propounded the theory of ?Implied-in-fact? contract to elaborate the nature of Quasi Contracts.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 491]
1. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1961]
2. Only 1 and 3 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1964]
3. Only 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1962]
47)
48)
49)
50)
51)
4. Only 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1963]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1961]
Consider the following statements:
1. A contract with a minor is void, however, a minor can after attaining majority ratify an agreement made by him during his minority.
2. Minor is not liable for the wrongful act when the cause of action in substance is ex contractu.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 496]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1983]
2. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1984]
3. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1981]
4. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1982]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1982]
Consider the following statements:
1. The Bolitho test relates to medical negligence.
2. The Bolitho test was referred to in Malay Kumar Ganguly v. Sukumar Mukherjee.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 458]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1830]
2. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1829]
3. 1 is correct but 2 is incorrect. [Option ID = 1831]
4. 1 is incorrect but 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1832]
Correct Answer :-
Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1830]
Savithri, a married Hindu woman died intestate leaving behind her husband and mother. Properties mentioned in Schedule ?A? was
inherited by her from her father and Schedule ?B? property was her self-acquired property. Pick out the correct legal proposition from
below: [Question ID = 456]
1. Her husband and mother will share equally in both the properties. [Option ID = 1821]
2. Her husband alone will succeed to both properties. [Option ID = 1822]
3. Her husband will inherit Schedule ?B? property and mother will inherit Schedule ?A? property. [Option ID = 1824]
4. Her mother will alone succeed to both properties. [Option ID = 1823]
Correct Answer :-
Her husband will inherit Schedule ?B? property and mother will inherit Schedule ?A? property. [Option ID = 1824]
Article 290-A of the Constitution of India refers to [Question ID = 505]
1. Annual payment to certain Devaswom Funds [Option ID = 2020]
2. Privy purse sums of Rulers [Option ID = 2017]
3. Exemption of property and income of a State from Union taxation [Option ID = 2018]
4. Exemption from taxation by States in respect of water or electricity in certain cases [Option ID = 2019]
Correct Answer :-
Annual payment to certain Devaswom Funds [Option ID = 2020]
Match the cases mentioned in List I with legal issues mentioned in List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
52)
Codes:
[Question ID = 449]
1. [Option ID = 1793]
2. [Option ID = 1794]
3. [Option ID = 1796]
4. [Option ID = 1795]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1795]
53)
[Question ID = 53444]
1. [Option ID = 93763]
2. [Option ID = 93764]
3. [Option ID = 93761]
4. [Option ID = 93762]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 93761]
54)
[Question ID = 495]
1. [Option ID = 1978]
2. [Option ID = 1977]
3. [Option ID = 1980]
4. [Option ID = 1979]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1980]
55)
[Question ID = 462]
1. [Option ID = 1848]
2. [Option ID = 1845]
3. [Option ID = 1846]
4. [Option ID = 1847]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1847]
[Question ID = 492]
56)
1. [Option ID = 1966]
2. [Option ID = 1968]
3. [Option ID = 1965]
4. [Option ID = 1967]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1968]
[Question ID = 472]
1. [Option ID = 1888]
2. [Option ID = 1887]
3. [Option ID = 1885]
57)
58)
4. [Option ID = 1886]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1888]
[Question ID = 490]
1. [Option ID = 1957]
2. [Option ID = 1958]
3. [Option ID = 1959]
4. [Option ID = 1960]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1958]
59)
Codes: [Question ID = 489]
1. [Option ID = 1956]
2. [Option ID = 1953]
3. [Option ID = 1955]
4. [Option ID = 1954]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1953]
60)
61)
62)
[Question ID = 448]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1791]
2. 1, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1792]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1789]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1790]
Correct Answer :-
2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1791]
Who among the following can remove the name of company from the register of companies on suo-motu basis in terms of section
248(1) of the Companies Act, 2013? [Question ID = 443]
1. Registrar of Companies [Option ID = 1770]
2. Securities and Exchange Board of India [Option ID = 1771]
3. National Company Law Tribunal [Option ID = 1769]
4. Ministry of Corporate Affairs [Option ID = 1772]
Correct Answer :-
Registrar of Companies [Option ID = 1770]
Who amongst the following accepts that ?Rights are important because they can be enforced?? [Question ID = 483]
1. Lloyd [Option ID = 1930]
2. John Rawls [Option ID = 1929]
3. Allen Buchanan [Option ID = 1932]
4. Thomas Hobbes [Option ID = 1931]
Correct Answer :-
Allen Buchanan [Option ID = 1932]
Kelson?s theory of law suggests that
1. Legal order is a hierarchy of norms.
2. The basic content of the law is determined by Grundnorm (the basic norm).
3. Law is a command.
4. Pure theory of law deals with law as it ought to be.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 484]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1935]
2. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1934]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1933]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1936]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1936]
63)
64)
65)
66)
67)
Consider the following propositions:
1. A Muslim woman, on her husband?s death, need not follow Iddat if her marriage is valid but not consummated.
2. A Muslim woman, on divorce, need not follow Iddat if her marriage is valid but not consummated.
3. A Muslim woman, on divorce, has to observe Iddat if her marriage is irregular but consummated.
4. A Muslim woman, whose marriage is void but consummated, has to observe Iddat till delivery if she is carrying the child in her womb in
case of her husband?s death.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 450]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1797]
2. Only 4 is correct. [Option ID = 1800]
3. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1799]
4. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1798]
Correct Answer :-
2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1797]
Consider the following statements about the International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea (ITLOS):
1. The Tribunal is composed of 21 independent judges.
2. It is based in Hamburg, Germany.
3. Dr. Neeru Chadha from India has been appointed as one of the Judges of the Tribunal in 2017.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 423]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1689]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1690]
3. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1692]
4. Only 3 is correct. [Option ID = 1691]
Correct Answer :-
All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1692]
Consider the following statements:
1. Under the UN Charter, the General Assembly may take up issues relating to maintenance of international peace and security, including
the principles governing disarmament and the regulation of armaments.
2. Under the UN Charter, the Security Council has the primary responsibility for the maintenance of international peace and security.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 418]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1669]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1670]
3. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1671]
4. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1672]
Correct Answer :-
Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1671]
Consider the following statements:
1. The motion for removal of a Supreme Court Judge submitted to the speaker of the Lok Sabha lapses with the dissolution of Lok Sabha.
2. The Inquiry Committee appointed under the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968 to ascertain the veracity of the motion for removal of the judge
can be treated as a tribunal under Article 136 of the Constitution.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 514]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 2055]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2056]
3. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 2053]
4. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2054]
Correct Answer :-
Neither 1 nor 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2054]
Consider the following statements:
1. The Statute of the International Court of Justice is an integral part of the UN Charter.
2. All members of the UN are ipso facto parties to the Statute of the International Court of Justice.
3. The Statute of the International Court of Justice is a separate treaty, and members of the UN have to separately ratify it in order to be
68)
69)
70)
71)
bound by the same.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 421]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1681]
2. None of these is correct. [Option ID = 1684]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1683]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1682]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1682]
Consider the following statements:
1. All robberies are either theft or extortion.
2. If A holds Z down and fraudulently takes Z?s money without Z?s consent. This is an example of theft as robbery.
3. A obtains property from Z by saying that his child is in the hands of my gang and will be put to death unless a ransom of 50 lakh rupees
is paid. Z was however not put in fear of instant death of child. This is an example of extortion as robbery.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 474]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1896]
2. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1893]
3. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1894]
4. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1895]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1894]
Consider the following statements:
1. An agreement made without adequate consideration is void.
2. A written and registered agreement made on account of a natural love and affection between the close relatives is not valid without
adequate consideration.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 493]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1969]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1970]
3. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1971]
4. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1972]
Correct Answer :-
Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1972]
Consider the following statements:
1. There may be situations where only one party is bound to the terms of the contract.
2. In order to convert a proposal into a promise, the acceptance must be absolute and may be unqualified.
3. Death or insanity of the proposer is considered as good ground for revocation of proposal in all circumstances.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 494]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1973]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1976]
3. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1974]
4. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1975]
Correct Answer :-
Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1973]
Consider the following statements:
1. The minor is estopped from setting the defence of minority when by misrepresenting his age minor himself has induced the other party
to enter into agreement with him.
2. Section 11 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 declares that only minors and persons of unsound mind are incompetent to make contract.
Codes: [Question ID = 497]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1985]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1986]
72)
73)
74)
75)
76)
3. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1987]
4. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1988]
Correct Answer :-
Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1988]
?A? a resident of Mumbai has a website ?www.caravan.co.in? launched in 2015. ?A? has a business of apparels in Mumbai having a trade
mark ?CARAVAN?. The website is accessible from Delhi. ?B? a resident of Hyderabad starts a website ?www.caravaan.co.in? in 2017 having
the same business. The website of ?B? consists of a catalogue, a toll free number, and an email address. ?A? wants to file a suit for passing
off of trade mark in Delhi.
1. ?A? can file a suit in Delhi on the basis of accessibility of website of ?B?.
2. ?A? cannot file a suit merely on the accessibility of website.
3. ?A? cannot file a suit in Delhi as the website of ?B? is not interactive.
4. ?A? can file a suit if ?B? specifically targets the forum state resulting in harm to ?A? in forum State.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 437]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1745]
2. Only 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1748]
3. Only 4 is correct. [Option ID = 1747]
4. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1746]
Correct Answer :-
2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1746]
?A? has lent money to ?P&Q? firm engaged in the cement business and has agreed to take in addition to, or in place of his interest, a
portion of the profits of the firm business. It can be said that
[Question ID = 444]
1. ?A? is a partner as well as a creditor of the ?P&Q? firm. [Option ID = 1774]
2. ?A? is a partner in ?P&Q? firm. [Option ID = 1773]
3. ?A? is not a partner in the ?P&Q? firm. [Option ID = 1775]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1776]
Correct Answer :-
?A? is not a partner in the ?P&Q? firm. [Option ID = 1775]
Minor can be admitted to the benefits of the firm
[Question ID = 446]
1. with the consent of all the existing creditors of the firm. [Option ID = 1782]
2. with the consent of all the partners. [Option ID = 1781]
3. with the consent of the guardian of such minor. [Option ID = 1783]
4. All of these [Option ID = 1784]
Correct Answer :-
with the consent of all the partners. [Option ID = 1781]
?A? instigates ?B? to murder ?C?. ?B? refuses to do so. Which offence under the Indian Penal Code, 1860 has been committed by ?A??
[Question ID = 468]
1. No offence [Option ID = 1872]
2. Abetting to commit murder [Option ID = 1869]
3. Conspiracy to commit murder [Option ID = 1870]
4. Attempt to murder [Option ID = 1871]
Correct Answer :-
Abetting to commit murder [Option ID = 1869]
Which of the following goals are mentioned in the preamble of the UN Charter?
1. To save succeeding generations from the scourge of war.
2. To reaffirm faith in fundamental human rights, in the dignity and worth of the human person, in the equal rights of men and women
and of nations large and small.
77)
78)
79)
80)
81)
82)
3. To promote social progress and better standards of life in larger freedom.
4. To promote democratic order in conflict-ridden societies.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 416]
1. Only 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1662]
2. Only 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1661]
3. Only 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1663]
4. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1664]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1664]
Which of the following is an example of intangible property? [Question ID = 433]
1. Sale Deed of land [Option ID = 1729]
2. Pass book of a bank account [Option ID = 1730]
3. An autobiographical work [Option ID = 1731]
4. Indemnity Bond [Option ID = 1732]
Correct Answer :-
An autobiographical work [Option ID = 1731]
Which of the following are jural correlatives in Hohfeld?s scheme of analysis of rights?
1. Right ?Liberty
2. Power-Liability
3. Liberty-No-Right
4. Immunity-Disability
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 480]
1. 1, 2, 3 and 4 [Option ID = 1920]
2. 1, 2 and 3 [Option ID = 1917]
3. 2, 3 and 4 [Option ID = 1918]
4. 1 and 2 [Option ID = 1919]
Correct Answer :-
2, 3 and 4 [Option ID = 1918]
Which of the following is not a body associated with the European Union (EU)? [Question ID = 430]
1. Council of the European Union [Option ID = 1719]
2. Council of Europe [Option ID = 1717]
3. European Commission [Option ID = 1720]
4. European Council [Option ID = 1718]
Correct Answer :-
Council of Europe [Option ID = 1717]
Which of the following statement is incorrect as per the Constitution of India? [Question ID = 507]
1. The President of India exercises three functions, namely, summoning, prorogation and dissolution in relation to the Houses of Parliament. [Option ID =
2026]
2. The President of India may address either House of Parliament or both Houses assembled together. [Option ID = 2027]
3. Allocation of seats in the House of the People to the States shall be readjusted upon the completion of each census. [Option ID = 2025]
4. The Speaker summons the House of People. [Option ID = 2028]
Correct Answer :-
Which of the following statement is incorrect about the Attorney General for India? [Question ID = 511]
1. Attorney General is appointed by the President. [Option ID = 2041]
2. Attorney General shall have right of audience in all courts in India in the performance of his duties. [Option ID = 2042]
3. Attorney General shall be entitled to vote when he takes part in Parliamentary proceedings. [Option ID = 2044]
4. Attorney General for India shall have the right to take part in the proceedings of Parliament. [Option ID = 2043]
Correct Answer :-
Attorney General shall be entitled to vote when he takes part in Parliamentary proceedings. [Option ID = 2044]
83)
84)
85)
86)
87)
Which of the following statements is incorrect about the National Capital Territory of Delhi as per the Constitution of India? [Question ID
= 510]
1. In the case of difference of opinion between the Lieutenant Governor and his Ministers on any matter, the Lieutenant Governor shall refer it to the
President for decision. [Option ID = 2039]
2. If any provision of law made by the Legislative Assembly with respect to any matter is repugnant to any provision of a law made by Parliament with
respect to that matter, the law made by Parliament shall prevail. [Option ID = 2040]
3. The Chief Minister and other Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the Lieutenant Governor. [Option ID = 2037]
4. The Union Territory of Delhi shall be called the National Capital Territory of Delhi. [Option ID = 2038]
Correct Answer :-
The Chief Minister and other Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the Lieutenant Governor. [Option ID = 2037]
Which of the following statement about the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is incorrect? [Question ID = 506]
1. Second Schedule of the Constitution specifies the salary and service conditions of CAG. [Option ID = 2023]
2. CAG is appointed by the President of India. [Option ID = 2021]
3. CAG shall be removed in the manner like that of Judge of the Supreme Court. [Option ID = 2022]
4. CAG submits the reports relating to the accounts of the State to the President of India. [Option ID = 2024]
Correct Answer :-
CAG submits the reports relating to the accounts of the State to the President of India. [Option ID = 2024]
Which of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India? [Question ID = 509]
1. There shall be a Special Officer for linguistic minorities to be appointed by the President. [Option ID = 2035]
2. All proceedings in the Supreme Court and every High Court shall be in the English language. [Option ID = 2034]
3. The official language of the Union shall be Hindi in Devanagari script. [Option ID = 2033]
4. Every person shall submit the representation for redress of grievances to the Union in the language of English or Hindi. [Option ID = 2036]
Correct Answer :-
Which of the following presumptions/reasons best justify the validity of laws on hate speech?
1. Equality means uniformity.
2. Equality and liberty may sometimes become contradictory values.
3. Law should always prioritize equality over liberty.
4. Equality and liberty must be harmoniously construed.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 482]
1. 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1927]
2. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1926]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1925]
4. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1928]
Correct Answer :-
2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1927]
Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India provides for the constitution of Panchayats? [Question ID = 504]
1. Article 243-F [Option ID = 2014]
2. Article 243-H [Option ID = 2016]
3. Article 243-B [Option ID = 2015]
4. Article 243-E [Option ID = 2013]
Correct Answer :-
Article 243-B [Option ID = 2015]
Which of the following is true about the test of directness to determine remoteness of damage? [Question ID = 460]
1. If some harm is foreseeable, the defendant is liable for all direct consequences of his act, even if the actual damage is of a different kind than what was
foreseeable. [Option ID = 1838]
2. If some harm is foreseeable, the defendant is liable for all direct consequences of his act, only if the actual damage is of the same kind as was
foreseeable. [Option ID = 1839]
3. The defendant is liable for all direct consequences of his act. [Option ID = 1837]
4. The defendant is liable only for those consequences that are foreseeable by a reasonable man. [Option ID = 1840]
Correct Answer :-
If some harm is foreseeable, the defendant is liable for all direct consequences of his act, even if the actual damage is of a different kind than what
was foreseeable. [Option ID = 1838]
FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
1)
2)
3)
4)
DU LLM
Topic:- DU_J18_LLM_Topic01
Which of the following statement is true regarding the social contract theory on origin of State?
1. State is a creation of agreement between people
2. Thomas Hobbes? social contract theory supported limited constitutional monarchy
3. According to Rousseau, the ruler was bound by the general will of the people
4. According to Locke, the sovereign was absolute and his word was the law.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 485]
1. All are correct. [Option ID = 1940]
2. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1938]
3. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
4. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1937]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
[Question ID = 500]
1. A stipulation in a contract of sale may be a condition or warranty. [Option ID = 1997]
2. A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
3. A breach of condition results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1998]
4. All these [Option ID = 2000]
Correct Answer :-
A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
Which of the following exceptions to strict liability were recognised by Justice Blackburn in Rylands v. Fletcher?
1. Vis major
2. Statutory authority
3. Plaintiff?s own default
4. Act of third party
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 463]
1. 3 and 4 [Option ID = 1849]
2. 1, 2 and 3 [Option ID = 1851]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1852]
4. 1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Which of the following Acts was amended by the Criminal Law Amendment Act, 2013?
[Question ID = 467]
1. None of these [Option ID = 1868]
2. The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 [Option ID = 1867]
3. The Information Technology Act, 2000 [Option ID = 1865]
4. The Immoral Trafficking (Prevention) Act, 1956 [Option ID = 1866]
Correct Answer :-
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 [Option ID = 1867]
Which of the following observations on fundamental rights was made by the Supreme Court in K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India?
1. There is no overlap between rights enumerated under Article 19 and Article 21 of the Constitution of India.
2. The constitutional values embodied under every Article of Part III of the Constitution of India animates the interpretation of the other.
3. Only Article 21 contains residue of fundamental rights that are not expressly stipulated under Article 19 of the Constitution of India.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 501]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 2004]
2. Only 3 is correct. [Option ID = 2001]
3. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2002]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 2003]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2002]
Which of the following is sensitive personal information according to rule 3 of the Information Technology (Reasonable Security
Practices and Procedures and Sensitive Data or Information) Rules, 2011?
1. Credit card details
2. Medical records
3. Mobile number
4. Sexual orientation
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 436]
1. 1, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1742]
2. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1743]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1741]
4. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1744]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1743]
Which of the following is/are mechanism/mechanisms of pacific settlement of disputes under the UN Charter?
[Question ID = 419]
1. Enquiry [Option ID = 1673]
2. Judicial Settlement [Option ID = 1675]
3. Arbitration [Option ID = 1674]
4. All these [Option ID = 1676]
Correct Answer :-
All these [Option ID = 1676]
Which of the following actions of host is allowed under the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations of 1961:
[Question ID = 425]
1. The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata. [Option ID
= 1697]
2. The host state can any time search the premises of the diplomatic staff. [Option ID = 1699]
3. The host state can at any time withdraw the immunities granted to diplomats. [Option ID = 1700]
4. The host state can at any time confiscate the diplomatic bag. [Option ID = 1698]
Correct Answer :-
The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata.
[Option ID = 1697]
Which of the following provisions of the UN Charter is correctly matched:
10)
11)
12)
13)
14)
[Question ID = 428]
1. Article 2 (5) Principle of Settlement of Disputes by Peaceful Means [Option ID = 1712]
2. Article 2 (6) Principle of Non-Intervention [Option ID = 1710]
3. Article 2 (4) Prohibition on Use of Force [Option ID = 1709]
4. Article 2 (2) Principle of Sovereign Equality of the UN Members [Option ID = 1711]
Correct Answer :-
Article 2 (4) Prohibition on Use of Force [Option ID = 1709]
Which of the following are ?Inventions Not Patentable? under the Patent Act, 1970?
[Question ID = 431]
1. Invention relating to atomic Energy [Option ID = 1723]
2. A method of agriculture or horticulture [Option ID = 1721]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1724]
4. Topography of integrated circuits [Option ID = 1722]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1724]
Which of the following are conditions of a valid Hindu marriage in accordance with section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
1. Prior consent of the parties.
2. Neither Party must have a spouse living at the time of the marriage.
3. The bridegroom must have completed the age of 21 years and the bride, the age of 18 years at the time of the marriage.
4. The parties are not sagotras of each other.
5. The parties are not sapindas of each other.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 452]
1. Only 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1808]
2. Only 1, 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1805]
3. Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1807]
4. Only 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1806]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1806]
Which of the following is an example of obligatio erga omnes of states under International Law?
[Question ID = 422]
1. Protection from Wars [Option ID = 1687]
2. Protection from slavery [Option ID = 1685]
3. Protection from Political Crimes [Option ID = 1686]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1688]
Correct Answer :-
Protection from slavery [Option ID = 1685]
Which of the following is an implied condition in case of a contract for sale by sample?
[Question ID = 499]
1. Goods shall not be free from any defect, rendering them unmerchantable, which would not be apparent on reasonable examination of the sample. [Option
ID = 1995]
2. Bulk not corresponding with the sample in quality. [Option ID = 1993]
3. Buyer shall not have a reasonable opportunity of comparing the bulk with the sample. [Option ID = 1994]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1996]
Correct Answer :-
None of these [Option ID = 1996]
Read the following statements about the offence of dacoity under the Indian Penal Code, 1860:
15)
16)
17)
18)
19)
1. Attempt to commit dacoity is punishable.
2. Assembling for the purpose of dacoity is punishable.
3. Preparation for dacoity is punishable.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 477]
1. Only 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1907]
2. Only 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1908]
3. Only 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1906]
4. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1905]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1905]
Which among the following is generally referred to as the subtle species of fraud? [Question ID = 498]
1. Undue Influence [Option ID = 1990]
2. Deliberate Mistake [Option ID = 1992]
3. Misrepresentation [Option ID = 1989]
4. Coercion [Option ID = 1991]
Correct Answer :-
Undue Influence [Option ID = 1990]
A member of the UN may be suspended from its membership [Question ID = 417]
1. by the Security Council [Option ID = 1666]
2. by the International Court of Justice upon the request made by the UN General Assembly [Option ID = 1665]
3. by the General Assembly upon the recommendations of the Security Council [Option ID = 1667]
4. by the UN Secretary General [Option ID = 1668]
Correct Answer :-
by the General Assembly upon the recommendations of the Security Council [Option ID = 1667]
According to the Information Technology Act, 2000, an electronic record is deemed to be received at a place where addressee
[Question ID = 439]
1. All these [Option ID = 1756]
2. has his server. [Option ID = 1753]
3. has his place of business. [Option ID = 1754]
4. retrieves the record. [Option ID = 1755]
Correct Answer :-
has his place of business. [Option ID = 1754]
According to Fuller, in order to evade failure, law must have the following characteristics:
1. Law must be publicly accessible
2. Law must be clear and unambiguous
3. Law must not command what cannot be done
4. Law must introduce frequent changes
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 481]
1. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1923]
2. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1921]
3. All are correct. [Option ID = 1924]
4. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1922]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1921]
Who among the following remarked that international law is positive morality? [Question ID = 486]
1. Lon Fuller [Option ID = 1941]
2. Jeremy Bentham [Option ID = 1942]
3. H.L.A. Hart [Option ID = 1943]
20)
21)
22)
23)
24)
25)
4. John Austin [Option ID = 1944]
Correct Answer :-
John Austin [Option ID = 1944]
Trade mark includes
[Question ID = 435]
1. Certification mark [Option ID = 1737]
2. Collective mark [Option ID = 1738]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1740]
4. Well known trade mark [Option ID = 1739]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1740]
Lakshmi and Ram married under the Special Marriage Act, 1954. Ram died in 2010 leaving behind Lakshmi, his mother, a son and a
daughter. The intestate and testamentary succession to his property would be governed by [Question ID = 454]
1. Intestate succession according to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and testamentary succession according to the Indian Succession Act, 1925. [Option ID
= 1816]
2. His ancestral property would devolve on his son and mother and separate property to his wife, son and daughter. [Option ID = 1815]
3. The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 [Option ID = 1813]
4. The Indian Succession Act, 1925 [Option ID = 1814]
Correct Answer :-
Intestate succession according to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and testamentary succession according to the Indian Succession Act, 1925. [Option
ID = 1816]
Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 is applicable in cases of cruelty by husband or relatives of the husband within
[Question ID = 476]
1. 2 years of marriage [Option ID = 1903]
2. 3 years of marriage [Option ID = 1902]
3. No time limit [Option ID = 1904]
4. 7 years of marriage [Option ID = 1901]
Correct Answer :-
No time limit [Option ID = 1904]
John Rawls? idea of basing justice on a contract has been challenged by [Question ID = 487]
1. Jeremy Bentham [Option ID = 1945]
2. Tom Bingham [Option ID = 1947]
3. Amartya Sen [Option ID = 1946]
4. Upendra Baxi [Option ID = 1948]
Correct Answer :-
Amartya Sen [Option ID = 1946]
Dinesh finds a gold ring on the road, not knowing to whom the ring belongs. Dinesh picks up the ring. Dinesh is guilty of which
offence under the Indian Penal Code, 1860? [Question ID = 471]
1. No offence [Option ID = 1884]
2. Theft [Option ID = 1882]
3. Criminal breach of trust [Option ID = 1883]
4. Dishonest Misappropriation [Option ID = 1881]
Correct Answer :-
No offence [Option ID = 1884]
First Geneva Convention of 1949 deals with
[Question ID = 424]
1. Amelioration of the Condition of the Wounded and Sick in Armed Forces in the Field. [Option ID = 1695]
2. Amelioration of the Condition of Wounded, Sick and Shipwrecked Members of Armed Forces at Sea. [Option ID = 1694]
26)
27)
28)
29)
30)
31)
3. Treatment of Prisoners of War. [Option ID = 1693]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1696]
Correct Answer :-
Amelioration of the Condition of the Wounded and Sick in Armed Forces in the Field. [Option ID = 1695]
Shamim Ara claimed her dower after the death of her husband from her husband?s property. She is a/an [Question ID = 453]
1. preferential creditor to all other creditors subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1809]
2. ordinary unsecured creditor, having no priority over other unsecured creditors, subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1812]
3. ordinary unsecured creditor but having priority over other unsecured creditors [Option ID = 1811]
4. secured creditor subject to her right of retention. [Option ID = 1810]
Correct Answer :-
ordinary unsecured creditor, having no priority over other unsecured creditors, subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1812]
To cede a part of the Indian Territory in favour of any foreign country, which one of the following procedural requirement must be
complied with? [Question ID = 503]
1. A law made by Parliament to the effect would be relevant and sufficient. [Option ID = 2012]
2. A law must be passed in compliance with Article 3 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2009]
3. A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed in compliance with Article 368 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2010]
4. A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed to amend the Constitution as per Article 368 and followed up by a law passed relatable to Article 3 of the
Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2011]
Correct Answer :-
A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed in compliance with Article 368 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2010]
Who defined defamation as ?publication of a statement which tends to lower a person in the estimation of right thinking members of
society generally, or which tends to make them shun or avoid that person?. [Question ID = 461]
1. Winfield [Option ID = 1841]
2. Glanville Williams [Option ID = 1844]
3. Salmond [Option ID = 1842]
4. Pollock [Option ID = 1843]
Correct Answer :-
Winfield [Option ID = 1841]
Who among the following can file a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986?
[Question ID = 457]
1. Any recognised consumer association [Option ID = 1826]
2. The Central Government or any State Government [Option ID = 1827]
3. A consumer [Option ID = 1825]
4. All of these [Option ID = 1828]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1828]
In which of the following cases has the Supreme Court made it mandatory for candidates contesting elections to the legislatures and
their spouses to declare their source of income at the time of filing nominations?
[Question ID = 478]
1. People?s Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India [Option ID = 1912]
2. Jan Chaukidar v. Union of India [Option ID = 1910]
3. Association for Democratic Reforms v. Union of India [Option ID = 1911]
4. Lok Prahari v. Union of India [Option ID = 1909]
Correct Answer :-
Lok Prahari v. Union of India [Option ID = 1909]
In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that the public authority providing services or goods as per the definition
under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 must be held liable to pay adequate compensation to the consumer for harassment or mental
agony or oppression caused to him for capricious exercise of power and the money could then be recovered from the erring public
officials?
32)
33)
34)
35)
36)
[Question ID = 465]
1. State of Gujarat v. Memom Mahomed [Option ID = 1860]
2. Shyam Sunder v. State of Rajasthan [Option ID = 1858]
3. Indian Medical Association v. V.P. Shantha [Option ID = 1857]
4. Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta [Option ID = 1859]
Correct Answer :-
Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta [Option ID = 1859]
In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that ?An intermediary shall be liable for a third party information hosted by
him if upon receiving actual knowledge from the court order or on being notified by the appropriate government, he fails to expeditiously
remove that material??
[Question ID = 438]
1. My Space Inc. v. Super Cassettes [Option ID = 1750]
2. Google India Pvt. Ltd. v. M/s Visaka Industries [Option ID = 1751]
3. Shreya Singhal v. Union of India [Option ID = 1749]
4. Avinash Bajaj v. State [Option ID = 1752]
Correct Answer :-
Shreya Singhal v. Union of India [Option ID = 1749]
In which of the following case, Lord Wilberforce opined that ?It is necessary to consider three elements inherent in any claim for
nervous shock: the class of persons whose claim should be recognized, the proximity of such persons to the incident and the means
adopted by which shock is caused??
[Question ID = 464]
1. Page v. Smith [Option ID = 1855]
2. Hinz v. Berry [Option ID = 1854]
3. Bourhill v. Young [Option ID = 1856]
4. McLoughlin v. O?Brian [Option ID = 1853]
Correct Answer :-
McLoughlin v. O?Brian [Option ID = 1853]
In which of the following offences minimum five offenders are required?
1. Affray
2. Robbery
3. Dacoity
4. Rioting
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 475]
1. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1897]
2. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1898]
3. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1900]
4. 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1899]
Correct Answer :-
3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1899]
A foreign company intends to merge with an Indian Company. As per the relevant provision in the Companies (Compromises,
Arrangements and Amalgamation) Rules, 2016, it needs to obtain prior approval of [Question ID = 442]
1. Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs. [Option ID = 1766]
2. Securities and Exchange Board of India. [Option ID = 1765]
3. Reserve Bank of India. [Option ID = 1767]
4. Department of Economic Affairs. [Option ID = 1768]
Correct Answer :-
Reserve Bank of India. [Option ID = 1767]
Who coined the term ?Compensatory Discrimination?? [Question ID = 512]
1. Prof. P.N. Singh [Option ID = 2047]
2. Prof. Marc Galanter [Option ID = 2046]
3. Prof. Upendra Baxi [Option ID = 2048]
37)
38)
39)
40)
41)
42)
4. Justice Krishna Iyer [Option ID = 2045]
Correct Answer :-
Prof. Marc Galanter [Option ID = 2046]
What is the limitation period for filing a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986? [Question ID = 459]
1. One year from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1834]
2. 2 years from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1833]
3. 6 months from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1835]
4. 90 days from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1836]
Correct Answer :-
2 years from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1833]
What is the role of section 135, Trade Marks Act, 1999? [Question ID = 434]
1. relief for recovery of property [Option ID = 1734]
2. relief for specific performance [Option ID = 1735]
3. relief for infringement [Option ID = 1733]
4. declaration of the title [Option ID = 1736]
Correct Answer :-
relief for infringement [Option ID = 1733]
What is the principle of complementarity in the context of the International Criminal Court (ICC)? [Question ID = 427]
1. It means the ICC will assist the domestic criminal court in trial and prosecution of the individual accused of committing crimes enlisted in the Rome
Statute, 1998. [Option ID = 1707]
2. It means the ICC will seek for demand production of accused to its jurisdiction. [Option ID = 1708]
3. It means the ICC will prosecute an individual only when that individual submits to its jurisdiction. [Option ID = 1706]
4. It means the ICC will only prosecute an individual if states are unwilling or unable to prosecute. [Option ID = 1705]
Correct Answer :-
It means the ICC will only prosecute an individual if states are unwilling or unable to prosecute. [Option ID = 1705]
The question regarding disqualification of the Speaker of Lok Sabha under the X Schedule of the Constitution of India is referred for
the decision to [Question ID = 479]
1. A member elected for this purpose by the Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1916]
2. Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1914]
3. Deputy Chairperson of Rajya Sabha [Option ID = 1913]
4. President of India [Option ID = 1915]
Correct Answer :-
A member elected for this purpose by the Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1916]
Dissolution of a firm can be carried by
[Question ID = 447]
1. expiry of the term for which it was constituted. [Option ID = 1786]
2. adjudication of a partner as an insolvent. [Option ID = 1787]
3. death of a partner. [Option ID = 1785]
4. All of these [Option ID = 1788]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1788]
?A?, ?B? and ?C? are partners in a partnership firm named AB&C. ?A? retires from the firm without giving any public notice. Thereafter, an
existing creditor lends Rs. ten lakh to the firm on the basis of his knowledge that ?A?, ?B? and ?C? are the three partners in the firm. This
amount remains unpaid by the firm. The creditor wants to recover the unpaid loan amount from the firm. [Question ID = 445]
1. No one will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1780]
2. ?A?, ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1778]
3. Only ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1779]
4. Only ?A? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1777]
Correct Answer :-
43)
44)
45)
46)
?A?, ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1778]
Assertion (A): Distributive justice is based on the principle that there has to be equal distribution amongst the equals.
Reason (R): Reasonable classification is the essence of equality as justice cannot be achieved by promulgating uniform law for everyone.
1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct reason for A.
2. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct reason for A.
3. Both A and R are incorrect.
4. A is incorrect but R is correct.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 488]
1. 2 [Option ID = 1950]
2. 1 [Option ID = 1949]
3. 3 [Option ID = 1951]
4. 4 [Option ID = 1952]
Correct Answer :-
1 [Option ID = 1949]
Consider the following statement about the Military Staff Committee:
1. It shall advise and assist the Security Council on all questions relating to military requirements for maintenance of international peace
and security.
2. It shall consist of Chiefs of Staff of the permanent members and two non- members nominated by the General Assembly.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 420]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1679]
2. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1680]
3. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1677]
4. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1678]
Correct Answer :-
Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1677]
Consider the following statements:
1. Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons is the first legally binding international agreement to comprehensively prohibit nuclear
weapons.
2. It was passed on July 7, 2017 by the Security Council.
3. It has not come into force.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 426]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1701]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1702]
3. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1704]
4. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1703]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1703]
Consider the following statements:
1. Moses v. Macferlan is a prominent example of theory of unjust enrichment as propounded by Lord Mansfield.
2. According to this theory, the demands of justice and equity is to prevent the unjust enrichment of one person at the cost of another.
3. Sinclair v. Brougham has propounded the theory of ?Implied-in-fact? contract to elaborate the nature of Quasi Contracts.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 491]
1. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1961]
2. Only 1 and 3 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1964]
3. Only 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1962]
47)
48)
49)
50)
51)
4. Only 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1963]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1961]
Consider the following statements:
1. A contract with a minor is void, however, a minor can after attaining majority ratify an agreement made by him during his minority.
2. Minor is not liable for the wrongful act when the cause of action in substance is ex contractu.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 496]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1983]
2. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1984]
3. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1981]
4. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1982]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1982]
Consider the following statements:
1. The Bolitho test relates to medical negligence.
2. The Bolitho test was referred to in Malay Kumar Ganguly v. Sukumar Mukherjee.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 458]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1830]
2. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1829]
3. 1 is correct but 2 is incorrect. [Option ID = 1831]
4. 1 is incorrect but 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1832]
Correct Answer :-
Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1830]
Savithri, a married Hindu woman died intestate leaving behind her husband and mother. Properties mentioned in Schedule ?A? was
inherited by her from her father and Schedule ?B? property was her self-acquired property. Pick out the correct legal proposition from
below: [Question ID = 456]
1. Her husband and mother will share equally in both the properties. [Option ID = 1821]
2. Her husband alone will succeed to both properties. [Option ID = 1822]
3. Her husband will inherit Schedule ?B? property and mother will inherit Schedule ?A? property. [Option ID = 1824]
4. Her mother will alone succeed to both properties. [Option ID = 1823]
Correct Answer :-
Her husband will inherit Schedule ?B? property and mother will inherit Schedule ?A? property. [Option ID = 1824]
Article 290-A of the Constitution of India refers to [Question ID = 505]
1. Annual payment to certain Devaswom Funds [Option ID = 2020]
2. Privy purse sums of Rulers [Option ID = 2017]
3. Exemption of property and income of a State from Union taxation [Option ID = 2018]
4. Exemption from taxation by States in respect of water or electricity in certain cases [Option ID = 2019]
Correct Answer :-
Annual payment to certain Devaswom Funds [Option ID = 2020]
Match the cases mentioned in List I with legal issues mentioned in List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
52)
Codes:
[Question ID = 449]
1. [Option ID = 1793]
2. [Option ID = 1794]
3. [Option ID = 1796]
4. [Option ID = 1795]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1795]
53)
[Question ID = 53444]
1. [Option ID = 93763]
2. [Option ID = 93764]
3. [Option ID = 93761]
4. [Option ID = 93762]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 93761]
54)
[Question ID = 495]
1. [Option ID = 1978]
2. [Option ID = 1977]
3. [Option ID = 1980]
4. [Option ID = 1979]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1980]
55)
[Question ID = 462]
1. [Option ID = 1848]
2. [Option ID = 1845]
3. [Option ID = 1846]
4. [Option ID = 1847]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1847]
[Question ID = 492]
56)
1. [Option ID = 1966]
2. [Option ID = 1968]
3. [Option ID = 1965]
4. [Option ID = 1967]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1968]
[Question ID = 472]
1. [Option ID = 1888]
2. [Option ID = 1887]
3. [Option ID = 1885]
57)
58)
4. [Option ID = 1886]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1888]
[Question ID = 490]
1. [Option ID = 1957]
2. [Option ID = 1958]
3. [Option ID = 1959]
4. [Option ID = 1960]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1958]
59)
Codes: [Question ID = 489]
1. [Option ID = 1956]
2. [Option ID = 1953]
3. [Option ID = 1955]
4. [Option ID = 1954]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1953]
60)
61)
62)
[Question ID = 448]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1791]
2. 1, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1792]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1789]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1790]
Correct Answer :-
2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1791]
Who among the following can remove the name of company from the register of companies on suo-motu basis in terms of section
248(1) of the Companies Act, 2013? [Question ID = 443]
1. Registrar of Companies [Option ID = 1770]
2. Securities and Exchange Board of India [Option ID = 1771]
3. National Company Law Tribunal [Option ID = 1769]
4. Ministry of Corporate Affairs [Option ID = 1772]
Correct Answer :-
Registrar of Companies [Option ID = 1770]
Who amongst the following accepts that ?Rights are important because they can be enforced?? [Question ID = 483]
1. Lloyd [Option ID = 1930]
2. John Rawls [Option ID = 1929]
3. Allen Buchanan [Option ID = 1932]
4. Thomas Hobbes [Option ID = 1931]
Correct Answer :-
Allen Buchanan [Option ID = 1932]
Kelson?s theory of law suggests that
1. Legal order is a hierarchy of norms.
2. The basic content of the law is determined by Grundnorm (the basic norm).
3. Law is a command.
4. Pure theory of law deals with law as it ought to be.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 484]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1935]
2. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1934]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1933]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1936]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1936]
63)
64)
65)
66)
67)
Consider the following propositions:
1. A Muslim woman, on her husband?s death, need not follow Iddat if her marriage is valid but not consummated.
2. A Muslim woman, on divorce, need not follow Iddat if her marriage is valid but not consummated.
3. A Muslim woman, on divorce, has to observe Iddat if her marriage is irregular but consummated.
4. A Muslim woman, whose marriage is void but consummated, has to observe Iddat till delivery if she is carrying the child in her womb in
case of her husband?s death.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 450]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1797]
2. Only 4 is correct. [Option ID = 1800]
3. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1799]
4. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1798]
Correct Answer :-
2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1797]
Consider the following statements about the International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea (ITLOS):
1. The Tribunal is composed of 21 independent judges.
2. It is based in Hamburg, Germany.
3. Dr. Neeru Chadha from India has been appointed as one of the Judges of the Tribunal in 2017.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 423]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1689]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1690]
3. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1692]
4. Only 3 is correct. [Option ID = 1691]
Correct Answer :-
All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1692]
Consider the following statements:
1. Under the UN Charter, the General Assembly may take up issues relating to maintenance of international peace and security, including
the principles governing disarmament and the regulation of armaments.
2. Under the UN Charter, the Security Council has the primary responsibility for the maintenance of international peace and security.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 418]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1669]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1670]
3. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1671]
4. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1672]
Correct Answer :-
Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1671]
Consider the following statements:
1. The motion for removal of a Supreme Court Judge submitted to the speaker of the Lok Sabha lapses with the dissolution of Lok Sabha.
2. The Inquiry Committee appointed under the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968 to ascertain the veracity of the motion for removal of the judge
can be treated as a tribunal under Article 136 of the Constitution.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 514]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 2055]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2056]
3. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 2053]
4. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2054]
Correct Answer :-
Neither 1 nor 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2054]
Consider the following statements:
1. The Statute of the International Court of Justice is an integral part of the UN Charter.
2. All members of the UN are ipso facto parties to the Statute of the International Court of Justice.
3. The Statute of the International Court of Justice is a separate treaty, and members of the UN have to separately ratify it in order to be
68)
69)
70)
71)
bound by the same.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 421]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1681]
2. None of these is correct. [Option ID = 1684]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1683]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1682]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1682]
Consider the following statements:
1. All robberies are either theft or extortion.
2. If A holds Z down and fraudulently takes Z?s money without Z?s consent. This is an example of theft as robbery.
3. A obtains property from Z by saying that his child is in the hands of my gang and will be put to death unless a ransom of 50 lakh rupees
is paid. Z was however not put in fear of instant death of child. This is an example of extortion as robbery.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 474]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1896]
2. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1893]
3. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1894]
4. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1895]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1894]
Consider the following statements:
1. An agreement made without adequate consideration is void.
2. A written and registered agreement made on account of a natural love and affection between the close relatives is not valid without
adequate consideration.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 493]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1969]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1970]
3. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1971]
4. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1972]
Correct Answer :-
Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1972]
Consider the following statements:
1. There may be situations where only one party is bound to the terms of the contract.
2. In order to convert a proposal into a promise, the acceptance must be absolute and may be unqualified.
3. Death or insanity of the proposer is considered as good ground for revocation of proposal in all circumstances.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 494]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1973]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1976]
3. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1974]
4. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1975]
Correct Answer :-
Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1973]
Consider the following statements:
1. The minor is estopped from setting the defence of minority when by misrepresenting his age minor himself has induced the other party
to enter into agreement with him.
2. Section 11 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 declares that only minors and persons of unsound mind are incompetent to make contract.
Codes: [Question ID = 497]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1985]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1986]
72)
73)
74)
75)
76)
3. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1987]
4. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1988]
Correct Answer :-
Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1988]
?A? a resident of Mumbai has a website ?www.caravan.co.in? launched in 2015. ?A? has a business of apparels in Mumbai having a trade
mark ?CARAVAN?. The website is accessible from Delhi. ?B? a resident of Hyderabad starts a website ?www.caravaan.co.in? in 2017 having
the same business. The website of ?B? consists of a catalogue, a toll free number, and an email address. ?A? wants to file a suit for passing
off of trade mark in Delhi.
1. ?A? can file a suit in Delhi on the basis of accessibility of website of ?B?.
2. ?A? cannot file a suit merely on the accessibility of website.
3. ?A? cannot file a suit in Delhi as the website of ?B? is not interactive.
4. ?A? can file a suit if ?B? specifically targets the forum state resulting in harm to ?A? in forum State.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 437]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1745]
2. Only 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1748]
3. Only 4 is correct. [Option ID = 1747]
4. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1746]
Correct Answer :-
2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1746]
?A? has lent money to ?P&Q? firm engaged in the cement business and has agreed to take in addition to, or in place of his interest, a
portion of the profits of the firm business. It can be said that
[Question ID = 444]
1. ?A? is a partner as well as a creditor of the ?P&Q? firm. [Option ID = 1774]
2. ?A? is a partner in ?P&Q? firm. [Option ID = 1773]
3. ?A? is not a partner in the ?P&Q? firm. [Option ID = 1775]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1776]
Correct Answer :-
?A? is not a partner in the ?P&Q? firm. [Option ID = 1775]
Minor can be admitted to the benefits of the firm
[Question ID = 446]
1. with the consent of all the existing creditors of the firm. [Option ID = 1782]
2. with the consent of all the partners. [Option ID = 1781]
3. with the consent of the guardian of such minor. [Option ID = 1783]
4. All of these [Option ID = 1784]
Correct Answer :-
with the consent of all the partners. [Option ID = 1781]
?A? instigates ?B? to murder ?C?. ?B? refuses to do so. Which offence under the Indian Penal Code, 1860 has been committed by ?A??
[Question ID = 468]
1. No offence [Option ID = 1872]
2. Abetting to commit murder [Option ID = 1869]
3. Conspiracy to commit murder [Option ID = 1870]
4. Attempt to murder [Option ID = 1871]
Correct Answer :-
Abetting to commit murder [Option ID = 1869]
Which of the following goals are mentioned in the preamble of the UN Charter?
1. To save succeeding generations from the scourge of war.
2. To reaffirm faith in fundamental human rights, in the dignity and worth of the human person, in the equal rights of men and women
and of nations large and small.
77)
78)
79)
80)
81)
82)
3. To promote social progress and better standards of life in larger freedom.
4. To promote democratic order in conflict-ridden societies.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 416]
1. Only 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1662]
2. Only 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1661]
3. Only 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1663]
4. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1664]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1664]
Which of the following is an example of intangible property? [Question ID = 433]
1. Sale Deed of land [Option ID = 1729]
2. Pass book of a bank account [Option ID = 1730]
3. An autobiographical work [Option ID = 1731]
4. Indemnity Bond [Option ID = 1732]
Correct Answer :-
An autobiographical work [Option ID = 1731]
Which of the following are jural correlatives in Hohfeld?s scheme of analysis of rights?
1. Right ?Liberty
2. Power-Liability
3. Liberty-No-Right
4. Immunity-Disability
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 480]
1. 1, 2, 3 and 4 [Option ID = 1920]
2. 1, 2 and 3 [Option ID = 1917]
3. 2, 3 and 4 [Option ID = 1918]
4. 1 and 2 [Option ID = 1919]
Correct Answer :-
2, 3 and 4 [Option ID = 1918]
Which of the following is not a body associated with the European Union (EU)? [Question ID = 430]
1. Council of the European Union [Option ID = 1719]
2. Council of Europe [Option ID = 1717]
3. European Commission [Option ID = 1720]
4. European Council [Option ID = 1718]
Correct Answer :-
Council of Europe [Option ID = 1717]
Which of the following statement is incorrect as per the Constitution of India? [Question ID = 507]
1. The President of India exercises three functions, namely, summoning, prorogation and dissolution in relation to the Houses of Parliament. [Option ID =
2026]
2. The President of India may address either House of Parliament or both Houses assembled together. [Option ID = 2027]
3. Allocation of seats in the House of the People to the States shall be readjusted upon the completion of each census. [Option ID = 2025]
4. The Speaker summons the House of People. [Option ID = 2028]
Correct Answer :-
Which of the following statement is incorrect about the Attorney General for India? [Question ID = 511]
1. Attorney General is appointed by the President. [Option ID = 2041]
2. Attorney General shall have right of audience in all courts in India in the performance of his duties. [Option ID = 2042]
3. Attorney General shall be entitled to vote when he takes part in Parliamentary proceedings. [Option ID = 2044]
4. Attorney General for India shall have the right to take part in the proceedings of Parliament. [Option ID = 2043]
Correct Answer :-
Attorney General shall be entitled to vote when he takes part in Parliamentary proceedings. [Option ID = 2044]
83)
84)
85)
86)
87)
Which of the following statements is incorrect about the National Capital Territory of Delhi as per the Constitution of India? [Question ID
= 510]
1. In the case of difference of opinion between the Lieutenant Governor and his Ministers on any matter, the Lieutenant Governor shall refer it to the
President for decision. [Option ID = 2039]
2. If any provision of law made by the Legislative Assembly with respect to any matter is repugnant to any provision of a law made by Parliament with
respect to that matter, the law made by Parliament shall prevail. [Option ID = 2040]
3. The Chief Minister and other Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the Lieutenant Governor. [Option ID = 2037]
4. The Union Territory of Delhi shall be called the National Capital Territory of Delhi. [Option ID = 2038]
Correct Answer :-
The Chief Minister and other Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the Lieutenant Governor. [Option ID = 2037]
Which of the following statement about the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is incorrect? [Question ID = 506]
1. Second Schedule of the Constitution specifies the salary and service conditions of CAG. [Option ID = 2023]
2. CAG is appointed by the President of India. [Option ID = 2021]
3. CAG shall be removed in the manner like that of Judge of the Supreme Court. [Option ID = 2022]
4. CAG submits the reports relating to the accounts of the State to the President of India. [Option ID = 2024]
Correct Answer :-
CAG submits the reports relating to the accounts of the State to the President of India. [Option ID = 2024]
Which of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India? [Question ID = 509]
1. There shall be a Special Officer for linguistic minorities to be appointed by the President. [Option ID = 2035]
2. All proceedings in the Supreme Court and every High Court shall be in the English language. [Option ID = 2034]
3. The official language of the Union shall be Hindi in Devanagari script. [Option ID = 2033]
4. Every person shall submit the representation for redress of grievances to the Union in the language of English or Hindi. [Option ID = 2036]
Correct Answer :-
Which of the following presumptions/reasons best justify the validity of laws on hate speech?
1. Equality means uniformity.
2. Equality and liberty may sometimes become contradictory values.
3. Law should always prioritize equality over liberty.
4. Equality and liberty must be harmoniously construed.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 482]
1. 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1927]
2. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1926]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1925]
4. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1928]
Correct Answer :-
2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1927]
Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India provides for the constitution of Panchayats? [Question ID = 504]
1. Article 243-F [Option ID = 2014]
2. Article 243-H [Option ID = 2016]
3. Article 243-B [Option ID = 2015]
4. Article 243-E [Option ID = 2013]
Correct Answer :-
Article 243-B [Option ID = 2015]
Which of the following is true about the test of directness to determine remoteness of damage? [Question ID = 460]
1. If some harm is foreseeable, the defendant is liable for all direct consequences of his act, even if the actual damage is of a different kind than what was
foreseeable. [Option ID = 1838]
2. If some harm is foreseeable, the defendant is liable for all direct consequences of his act, only if the actual damage is of the same kind as was
foreseeable. [Option ID = 1839]
3. The defendant is liable for all direct consequences of his act. [Option ID = 1837]
4. The defendant is liable only for those consequences that are foreseeable by a reasonable man. [Option ID = 1840]
Correct Answer :-
If some harm is foreseeable, the defendant is liable for all direct consequences of his act, even if the actual damage is of a different kind than what
was foreseeable. [Option ID = 1838]
88)
89)
Match the following correctly:
[Question ID = 429]
1. [Option ID = 1714]
2. [Option ID = 1716]
3. [Option ID = 1715]
4. [Option ID = 1713]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1716]
Assertion (A): A Governor is always supposed to act on the advice of the Council of Ministers in matter of appointment of the Chief
Minister.
Reason (R): Like Article 74(1), Article 163(1) of the Constitution of India make it mandatory for the Governor to act in accordance with
the advice tendered by the Council of Ministers.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 513]
1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct reason for (A). [Option ID = 2049]
FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
1)
2)
3)
4)
DU LLM
Topic:- DU_J18_LLM_Topic01
Which of the following statement is true regarding the social contract theory on origin of State?
1. State is a creation of agreement between people
2. Thomas Hobbes? social contract theory supported limited constitutional monarchy
3. According to Rousseau, the ruler was bound by the general will of the people
4. According to Locke, the sovereign was absolute and his word was the law.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 485]
1. All are correct. [Option ID = 1940]
2. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1938]
3. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
4. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1937]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
[Question ID = 500]
1. A stipulation in a contract of sale may be a condition or warranty. [Option ID = 1997]
2. A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
3. A breach of condition results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1998]
4. All these [Option ID = 2000]
Correct Answer :-
A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
Which of the following exceptions to strict liability were recognised by Justice Blackburn in Rylands v. Fletcher?
1. Vis major
2. Statutory authority
3. Plaintiff?s own default
4. Act of third party
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 463]
1. 3 and 4 [Option ID = 1849]
2. 1, 2 and 3 [Option ID = 1851]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1852]
4. 1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Which of the following Acts was amended by the Criminal Law Amendment Act, 2013?
[Question ID = 467]
1. None of these [Option ID = 1868]
2. The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 [Option ID = 1867]
3. The Information Technology Act, 2000 [Option ID = 1865]
4. The Immoral Trafficking (Prevention) Act, 1956 [Option ID = 1866]
Correct Answer :-
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 [Option ID = 1867]
Which of the following observations on fundamental rights was made by the Supreme Court in K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India?
1. There is no overlap between rights enumerated under Article 19 and Article 21 of the Constitution of India.
2. The constitutional values embodied under every Article of Part III of the Constitution of India animates the interpretation of the other.
3. Only Article 21 contains residue of fundamental rights that are not expressly stipulated under Article 19 of the Constitution of India.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 501]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 2004]
2. Only 3 is correct. [Option ID = 2001]
3. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2002]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 2003]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2002]
Which of the following is sensitive personal information according to rule 3 of the Information Technology (Reasonable Security
Practices and Procedures and Sensitive Data or Information) Rules, 2011?
1. Credit card details
2. Medical records
3. Mobile number
4. Sexual orientation
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 436]
1. 1, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1742]
2. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1743]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1741]
4. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1744]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1743]
Which of the following is/are mechanism/mechanisms of pacific settlement of disputes under the UN Charter?
[Question ID = 419]
1. Enquiry [Option ID = 1673]
2. Judicial Settlement [Option ID = 1675]
3. Arbitration [Option ID = 1674]
4. All these [Option ID = 1676]
Correct Answer :-
All these [Option ID = 1676]
Which of the following actions of host is allowed under the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations of 1961:
[Question ID = 425]
1. The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata. [Option ID
= 1697]
2. The host state can any time search the premises of the diplomatic staff. [Option ID = 1699]
3. The host state can at any time withdraw the immunities granted to diplomats. [Option ID = 1700]
4. The host state can at any time confiscate the diplomatic bag. [Option ID = 1698]
Correct Answer :-
The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata.
[Option ID = 1697]
Which of the following provisions of the UN Charter is correctly matched:
10)
11)
12)
13)
14)
[Question ID = 428]
1. Article 2 (5) Principle of Settlement of Disputes by Peaceful Means [Option ID = 1712]
2. Article 2 (6) Principle of Non-Intervention [Option ID = 1710]
3. Article 2 (4) Prohibition on Use of Force [Option ID = 1709]
4. Article 2 (2) Principle of Sovereign Equality of the UN Members [Option ID = 1711]
Correct Answer :-
Article 2 (4) Prohibition on Use of Force [Option ID = 1709]
Which of the following are ?Inventions Not Patentable? under the Patent Act, 1970?
[Question ID = 431]
1. Invention relating to atomic Energy [Option ID = 1723]
2. A method of agriculture or horticulture [Option ID = 1721]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1724]
4. Topography of integrated circuits [Option ID = 1722]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1724]
Which of the following are conditions of a valid Hindu marriage in accordance with section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
1. Prior consent of the parties.
2. Neither Party must have a spouse living at the time of the marriage.
3. The bridegroom must have completed the age of 21 years and the bride, the age of 18 years at the time of the marriage.
4. The parties are not sagotras of each other.
5. The parties are not sapindas of each other.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 452]
1. Only 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1808]
2. Only 1, 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1805]
3. Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1807]
4. Only 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1806]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1806]
Which of the following is an example of obligatio erga omnes of states under International Law?
[Question ID = 422]
1. Protection from Wars [Option ID = 1687]
2. Protection from slavery [Option ID = 1685]
3. Protection from Political Crimes [Option ID = 1686]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1688]
Correct Answer :-
Protection from slavery [Option ID = 1685]
Which of the following is an implied condition in case of a contract for sale by sample?
[Question ID = 499]
1. Goods shall not be free from any defect, rendering them unmerchantable, which would not be apparent on reasonable examination of the sample. [Option
ID = 1995]
2. Bulk not corresponding with the sample in quality. [Option ID = 1993]
3. Buyer shall not have a reasonable opportunity of comparing the bulk with the sample. [Option ID = 1994]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1996]
Correct Answer :-
None of these [Option ID = 1996]
Read the following statements about the offence of dacoity under the Indian Penal Code, 1860:
15)
16)
17)
18)
19)
1. Attempt to commit dacoity is punishable.
2. Assembling for the purpose of dacoity is punishable.
3. Preparation for dacoity is punishable.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 477]
1. Only 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1907]
2. Only 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1908]
3. Only 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1906]
4. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1905]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1905]
Which among the following is generally referred to as the subtle species of fraud? [Question ID = 498]
1. Undue Influence [Option ID = 1990]
2. Deliberate Mistake [Option ID = 1992]
3. Misrepresentation [Option ID = 1989]
4. Coercion [Option ID = 1991]
Correct Answer :-
Undue Influence [Option ID = 1990]
A member of the UN may be suspended from its membership [Question ID = 417]
1. by the Security Council [Option ID = 1666]
2. by the International Court of Justice upon the request made by the UN General Assembly [Option ID = 1665]
3. by the General Assembly upon the recommendations of the Security Council [Option ID = 1667]
4. by the UN Secretary General [Option ID = 1668]
Correct Answer :-
by the General Assembly upon the recommendations of the Security Council [Option ID = 1667]
According to the Information Technology Act, 2000, an electronic record is deemed to be received at a place where addressee
[Question ID = 439]
1. All these [Option ID = 1756]
2. has his server. [Option ID = 1753]
3. has his place of business. [Option ID = 1754]
4. retrieves the record. [Option ID = 1755]
Correct Answer :-
has his place of business. [Option ID = 1754]
According to Fuller, in order to evade failure, law must have the following characteristics:
1. Law must be publicly accessible
2. Law must be clear and unambiguous
3. Law must not command what cannot be done
4. Law must introduce frequent changes
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 481]
1. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1923]
2. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1921]
3. All are correct. [Option ID = 1924]
4. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1922]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1921]
Who among the following remarked that international law is positive morality? [Question ID = 486]
1. Lon Fuller [Option ID = 1941]
2. Jeremy Bentham [Option ID = 1942]
3. H.L.A. Hart [Option ID = 1943]
20)
21)
22)
23)
24)
25)
4. John Austin [Option ID = 1944]
Correct Answer :-
John Austin [Option ID = 1944]
Trade mark includes
[Question ID = 435]
1. Certification mark [Option ID = 1737]
2. Collective mark [Option ID = 1738]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1740]
4. Well known trade mark [Option ID = 1739]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1740]
Lakshmi and Ram married under the Special Marriage Act, 1954. Ram died in 2010 leaving behind Lakshmi, his mother, a son and a
daughter. The intestate and testamentary succession to his property would be governed by [Question ID = 454]
1. Intestate succession according to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and testamentary succession according to the Indian Succession Act, 1925. [Option ID
= 1816]
2. His ancestral property would devolve on his son and mother and separate property to his wife, son and daughter. [Option ID = 1815]
3. The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 [Option ID = 1813]
4. The Indian Succession Act, 1925 [Option ID = 1814]
Correct Answer :-
Intestate succession according to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and testamentary succession according to the Indian Succession Act, 1925. [Option
ID = 1816]
Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 is applicable in cases of cruelty by husband or relatives of the husband within
[Question ID = 476]
1. 2 years of marriage [Option ID = 1903]
2. 3 years of marriage [Option ID = 1902]
3. No time limit [Option ID = 1904]
4. 7 years of marriage [Option ID = 1901]
Correct Answer :-
No time limit [Option ID = 1904]
John Rawls? idea of basing justice on a contract has been challenged by [Question ID = 487]
1. Jeremy Bentham [Option ID = 1945]
2. Tom Bingham [Option ID = 1947]
3. Amartya Sen [Option ID = 1946]
4. Upendra Baxi [Option ID = 1948]
Correct Answer :-
Amartya Sen [Option ID = 1946]
Dinesh finds a gold ring on the road, not knowing to whom the ring belongs. Dinesh picks up the ring. Dinesh is guilty of which
offence under the Indian Penal Code, 1860? [Question ID = 471]
1. No offence [Option ID = 1884]
2. Theft [Option ID = 1882]
3. Criminal breach of trust [Option ID = 1883]
4. Dishonest Misappropriation [Option ID = 1881]
Correct Answer :-
No offence [Option ID = 1884]
First Geneva Convention of 1949 deals with
[Question ID = 424]
1. Amelioration of the Condition of the Wounded and Sick in Armed Forces in the Field. [Option ID = 1695]
2. Amelioration of the Condition of Wounded, Sick and Shipwrecked Members of Armed Forces at Sea. [Option ID = 1694]
26)
27)
28)
29)
30)
31)
3. Treatment of Prisoners of War. [Option ID = 1693]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1696]
Correct Answer :-
Amelioration of the Condition of the Wounded and Sick in Armed Forces in the Field. [Option ID = 1695]
Shamim Ara claimed her dower after the death of her husband from her husband?s property. She is a/an [Question ID = 453]
1. preferential creditor to all other creditors subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1809]
2. ordinary unsecured creditor, having no priority over other unsecured creditors, subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1812]
3. ordinary unsecured creditor but having priority over other unsecured creditors [Option ID = 1811]
4. secured creditor subject to her right of retention. [Option ID = 1810]
Correct Answer :-
ordinary unsecured creditor, having no priority over other unsecured creditors, subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1812]
To cede a part of the Indian Territory in favour of any foreign country, which one of the following procedural requirement must be
complied with? [Question ID = 503]
1. A law made by Parliament to the effect would be relevant and sufficient. [Option ID = 2012]
2. A law must be passed in compliance with Article 3 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2009]
3. A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed in compliance with Article 368 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2010]
4. A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed to amend the Constitution as per Article 368 and followed up by a law passed relatable to Article 3 of the
Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2011]
Correct Answer :-
A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed in compliance with Article 368 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2010]
Who defined defamation as ?publication of a statement which tends to lower a person in the estimation of right thinking members of
society generally, or which tends to make them shun or avoid that person?. [Question ID = 461]
1. Winfield [Option ID = 1841]
2. Glanville Williams [Option ID = 1844]
3. Salmond [Option ID = 1842]
4. Pollock [Option ID = 1843]
Correct Answer :-
Winfield [Option ID = 1841]
Who among the following can file a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986?
[Question ID = 457]
1. Any recognised consumer association [Option ID = 1826]
2. The Central Government or any State Government [Option ID = 1827]
3. A consumer [Option ID = 1825]
4. All of these [Option ID = 1828]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1828]
In which of the following cases has the Supreme Court made it mandatory for candidates contesting elections to the legislatures and
their spouses to declare their source of income at the time of filing nominations?
[Question ID = 478]
1. People?s Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India [Option ID = 1912]
2. Jan Chaukidar v. Union of India [Option ID = 1910]
3. Association for Democratic Reforms v. Union of India [Option ID = 1911]
4. Lok Prahari v. Union of India [Option ID = 1909]
Correct Answer :-
Lok Prahari v. Union of India [Option ID = 1909]
In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that the public authority providing services or goods as per the definition
under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 must be held liable to pay adequate compensation to the consumer for harassment or mental
agony or oppression caused to him for capricious exercise of power and the money could then be recovered from the erring public
officials?
32)
33)
34)
35)
36)
[Question ID = 465]
1. State of Gujarat v. Memom Mahomed [Option ID = 1860]
2. Shyam Sunder v. State of Rajasthan [Option ID = 1858]
3. Indian Medical Association v. V.P. Shantha [Option ID = 1857]
4. Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta [Option ID = 1859]
Correct Answer :-
Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta [Option ID = 1859]
In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that ?An intermediary shall be liable for a third party information hosted by
him if upon receiving actual knowledge from the court order or on being notified by the appropriate government, he fails to expeditiously
remove that material??
[Question ID = 438]
1. My Space Inc. v. Super Cassettes [Option ID = 1750]
2. Google India Pvt. Ltd. v. M/s Visaka Industries [Option ID = 1751]
3. Shreya Singhal v. Union of India [Option ID = 1749]
4. Avinash Bajaj v. State [Option ID = 1752]
Correct Answer :-
Shreya Singhal v. Union of India [Option ID = 1749]
In which of the following case, Lord Wilberforce opined that ?It is necessary to consider three elements inherent in any claim for
nervous shock: the class of persons whose claim should be recognized, the proximity of such persons to the incident and the means
adopted by which shock is caused??
[Question ID = 464]
1. Page v. Smith [Option ID = 1855]
2. Hinz v. Berry [Option ID = 1854]
3. Bourhill v. Young [Option ID = 1856]
4. McLoughlin v. O?Brian [Option ID = 1853]
Correct Answer :-
McLoughlin v. O?Brian [Option ID = 1853]
In which of the following offences minimum five offenders are required?
1. Affray
2. Robbery
3. Dacoity
4. Rioting
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 475]
1. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1897]
2. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1898]
3. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1900]
4. 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1899]
Correct Answer :-
3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1899]
A foreign company intends to merge with an Indian Company. As per the relevant provision in the Companies (Compromises,
Arrangements and Amalgamation) Rules, 2016, it needs to obtain prior approval of [Question ID = 442]
1. Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs. [Option ID = 1766]
2. Securities and Exchange Board of India. [Option ID = 1765]
3. Reserve Bank of India. [Option ID = 1767]
4. Department of Economic Affairs. [Option ID = 1768]
Correct Answer :-
Reserve Bank of India. [Option ID = 1767]
Who coined the term ?Compensatory Discrimination?? [Question ID = 512]
1. Prof. P.N. Singh [Option ID = 2047]
2. Prof. Marc Galanter [Option ID = 2046]
3. Prof. Upendra Baxi [Option ID = 2048]
37)
38)
39)
40)
41)
42)
4. Justice Krishna Iyer [Option ID = 2045]
Correct Answer :-
Prof. Marc Galanter [Option ID = 2046]
What is the limitation period for filing a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986? [Question ID = 459]
1. One year from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1834]
2. 2 years from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1833]
3. 6 months from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1835]
4. 90 days from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1836]
Correct Answer :-
2 years from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1833]
What is the role of section 135, Trade Marks Act, 1999? [Question ID = 434]
1. relief for recovery of property [Option ID = 1734]
2. relief for specific performance [Option ID = 1735]
3. relief for infringement [Option ID = 1733]
4. declaration of the title [Option ID = 1736]
Correct Answer :-
relief for infringement [Option ID = 1733]
What is the principle of complementarity in the context of the International Criminal Court (ICC)? [Question ID = 427]
1. It means the ICC will assist the domestic criminal court in trial and prosecution of the individual accused of committing crimes enlisted in the Rome
Statute, 1998. [Option ID = 1707]
2. It means the ICC will seek for demand production of accused to its jurisdiction. [Option ID = 1708]
3. It means the ICC will prosecute an individual only when that individual submits to its jurisdiction. [Option ID = 1706]
4. It means the ICC will only prosecute an individual if states are unwilling or unable to prosecute. [Option ID = 1705]
Correct Answer :-
It means the ICC will only prosecute an individual if states are unwilling or unable to prosecute. [Option ID = 1705]
The question regarding disqualification of the Speaker of Lok Sabha under the X Schedule of the Constitution of India is referred for
the decision to [Question ID = 479]
1. A member elected for this purpose by the Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1916]
2. Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1914]
3. Deputy Chairperson of Rajya Sabha [Option ID = 1913]
4. President of India [Option ID = 1915]
Correct Answer :-
A member elected for this purpose by the Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1916]
Dissolution of a firm can be carried by
[Question ID = 447]
1. expiry of the term for which it was constituted. [Option ID = 1786]
2. adjudication of a partner as an insolvent. [Option ID = 1787]
3. death of a partner. [Option ID = 1785]
4. All of these [Option ID = 1788]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1788]
?A?, ?B? and ?C? are partners in a partnership firm named AB&C. ?A? retires from the firm without giving any public notice. Thereafter, an
existing creditor lends Rs. ten lakh to the firm on the basis of his knowledge that ?A?, ?B? and ?C? are the three partners in the firm. This
amount remains unpaid by the firm. The creditor wants to recover the unpaid loan amount from the firm. [Question ID = 445]
1. No one will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1780]
2. ?A?, ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1778]
3. Only ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1779]
4. Only ?A? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1777]
Correct Answer :-
43)
44)
45)
46)
?A?, ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1778]
Assertion (A): Distributive justice is based on the principle that there has to be equal distribution amongst the equals.
Reason (R): Reasonable classification is the essence of equality as justice cannot be achieved by promulgating uniform law for everyone.
1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct reason for A.
2. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct reason for A.
3. Both A and R are incorrect.
4. A is incorrect but R is correct.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 488]
1. 2 [Option ID = 1950]
2. 1 [Option ID = 1949]
3. 3 [Option ID = 1951]
4. 4 [Option ID = 1952]
Correct Answer :-
1 [Option ID = 1949]
Consider the following statement about the Military Staff Committee:
1. It shall advise and assist the Security Council on all questions relating to military requirements for maintenance of international peace
and security.
2. It shall consist of Chiefs of Staff of the permanent members and two non- members nominated by the General Assembly.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 420]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1679]
2. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1680]
3. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1677]
4. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1678]
Correct Answer :-
Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1677]
Consider the following statements:
1. Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons is the first legally binding international agreement to comprehensively prohibit nuclear
weapons.
2. It was passed on July 7, 2017 by the Security Council.
3. It has not come into force.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 426]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1701]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1702]
3. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1704]
4. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1703]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1703]
Consider the following statements:
1. Moses v. Macferlan is a prominent example of theory of unjust enrichment as propounded by Lord Mansfield.
2. According to this theory, the demands of justice and equity is to prevent the unjust enrichment of one person at the cost of another.
3. Sinclair v. Brougham has propounded the theory of ?Implied-in-fact? contract to elaborate the nature of Quasi Contracts.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 491]
1. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1961]
2. Only 1 and 3 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1964]
3. Only 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1962]
47)
48)
49)
50)
51)
4. Only 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1963]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1961]
Consider the following statements:
1. A contract with a minor is void, however, a minor can after attaining majority ratify an agreement made by him during his minority.
2. Minor is not liable for the wrongful act when the cause of action in substance is ex contractu.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 496]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1983]
2. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1984]
3. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1981]
4. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1982]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1982]
Consider the following statements:
1. The Bolitho test relates to medical negligence.
2. The Bolitho test was referred to in Malay Kumar Ganguly v. Sukumar Mukherjee.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 458]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1830]
2. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1829]
3. 1 is correct but 2 is incorrect. [Option ID = 1831]
4. 1 is incorrect but 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1832]
Correct Answer :-
Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1830]
Savithri, a married Hindu woman died intestate leaving behind her husband and mother. Properties mentioned in Schedule ?A? was
inherited by her from her father and Schedule ?B? property was her self-acquired property. Pick out the correct legal proposition from
below: [Question ID = 456]
1. Her husband and mother will share equally in both the properties. [Option ID = 1821]
2. Her husband alone will succeed to both properties. [Option ID = 1822]
3. Her husband will inherit Schedule ?B? property and mother will inherit Schedule ?A? property. [Option ID = 1824]
4. Her mother will alone succeed to both properties. [Option ID = 1823]
Correct Answer :-
Her husband will inherit Schedule ?B? property and mother will inherit Schedule ?A? property. [Option ID = 1824]
Article 290-A of the Constitution of India refers to [Question ID = 505]
1. Annual payment to certain Devaswom Funds [Option ID = 2020]
2. Privy purse sums of Rulers [Option ID = 2017]
3. Exemption of property and income of a State from Union taxation [Option ID = 2018]
4. Exemption from taxation by States in respect of water or electricity in certain cases [Option ID = 2019]
Correct Answer :-
Annual payment to certain Devaswom Funds [Option ID = 2020]
Match the cases mentioned in List I with legal issues mentioned in List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
52)
Codes:
[Question ID = 449]
1. [Option ID = 1793]
2. [Option ID = 1794]
3. [Option ID = 1796]
4. [Option ID = 1795]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1795]
53)
[Question ID = 53444]
1. [Option ID = 93763]
2. [Option ID = 93764]
3. [Option ID = 93761]
4. [Option ID = 93762]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 93761]
54)
[Question ID = 495]
1. [Option ID = 1978]
2. [Option ID = 1977]
3. [Option ID = 1980]
4. [Option ID = 1979]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1980]
55)
[Question ID = 462]
1. [Option ID = 1848]
2. [Option ID = 1845]
3. [Option ID = 1846]
4. [Option ID = 1847]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1847]
[Question ID = 492]
56)
1. [Option ID = 1966]
2. [Option ID = 1968]
3. [Option ID = 1965]
4. [Option ID = 1967]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1968]
[Question ID = 472]
1. [Option ID = 1888]
2. [Option ID = 1887]
3. [Option ID = 1885]
57)
58)
4. [Option ID = 1886]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1888]
[Question ID = 490]
1. [Option ID = 1957]
2. [Option ID = 1958]
3. [Option ID = 1959]
4. [Option ID = 1960]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1958]
59)
Codes: [Question ID = 489]
1. [Option ID = 1956]
2. [Option ID = 1953]
3. [Option ID = 1955]
4. [Option ID = 1954]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1953]
60)
61)
62)
[Question ID = 448]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1791]
2. 1, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1792]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1789]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1790]
Correct Answer :-
2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1791]
Who among the following can remove the name of company from the register of companies on suo-motu basis in terms of section
248(1) of the Companies Act, 2013? [Question ID = 443]
1. Registrar of Companies [Option ID = 1770]
2. Securities and Exchange Board of India [Option ID = 1771]
3. National Company Law Tribunal [Option ID = 1769]
4. Ministry of Corporate Affairs [Option ID = 1772]
Correct Answer :-
Registrar of Companies [Option ID = 1770]
Who amongst the following accepts that ?Rights are important because they can be enforced?? [Question ID = 483]
1. Lloyd [Option ID = 1930]
2. John Rawls [Option ID = 1929]
3. Allen Buchanan [Option ID = 1932]
4. Thomas Hobbes [Option ID = 1931]
Correct Answer :-
Allen Buchanan [Option ID = 1932]
Kelson?s theory of law suggests that
1. Legal order is a hierarchy of norms.
2. The basic content of the law is determined by Grundnorm (the basic norm).
3. Law is a command.
4. Pure theory of law deals with law as it ought to be.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 484]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1935]
2. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1934]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1933]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1936]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1936]
63)
64)
65)
66)
67)
Consider the following propositions:
1. A Muslim woman, on her husband?s death, need not follow Iddat if her marriage is valid but not consummated.
2. A Muslim woman, on divorce, need not follow Iddat if her marriage is valid but not consummated.
3. A Muslim woman, on divorce, has to observe Iddat if her marriage is irregular but consummated.
4. A Muslim woman, whose marriage is void but consummated, has to observe Iddat till delivery if she is carrying the child in her womb in
case of her husband?s death.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 450]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1797]
2. Only 4 is correct. [Option ID = 1800]
3. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1799]
4. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1798]
Correct Answer :-
2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1797]
Consider the following statements about the International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea (ITLOS):
1. The Tribunal is composed of 21 independent judges.
2. It is based in Hamburg, Germany.
3. Dr. Neeru Chadha from India has been appointed as one of the Judges of the Tribunal in 2017.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 423]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1689]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1690]
3. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1692]
4. Only 3 is correct. [Option ID = 1691]
Correct Answer :-
All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1692]
Consider the following statements:
1. Under the UN Charter, the General Assembly may take up issues relating to maintenance of international peace and security, including
the principles governing disarmament and the regulation of armaments.
2. Under the UN Charter, the Security Council has the primary responsibility for the maintenance of international peace and security.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 418]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1669]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1670]
3. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1671]
4. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1672]
Correct Answer :-
Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1671]
Consider the following statements:
1. The motion for removal of a Supreme Court Judge submitted to the speaker of the Lok Sabha lapses with the dissolution of Lok Sabha.
2. The Inquiry Committee appointed under the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968 to ascertain the veracity of the motion for removal of the judge
can be treated as a tribunal under Article 136 of the Constitution.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 514]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 2055]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2056]
3. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 2053]
4. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2054]
Correct Answer :-
Neither 1 nor 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2054]
Consider the following statements:
1. The Statute of the International Court of Justice is an integral part of the UN Charter.
2. All members of the UN are ipso facto parties to the Statute of the International Court of Justice.
3. The Statute of the International Court of Justice is a separate treaty, and members of the UN have to separately ratify it in order to be
68)
69)
70)
71)
bound by the same.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 421]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1681]
2. None of these is correct. [Option ID = 1684]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1683]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1682]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1682]
Consider the following statements:
1. All robberies are either theft or extortion.
2. If A holds Z down and fraudulently takes Z?s money without Z?s consent. This is an example of theft as robbery.
3. A obtains property from Z by saying that his child is in the hands of my gang and will be put to death unless a ransom of 50 lakh rupees
is paid. Z was however not put in fear of instant death of child. This is an example of extortion as robbery.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 474]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1896]
2. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1893]
3. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1894]
4. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1895]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1894]
Consider the following statements:
1. An agreement made without adequate consideration is void.
2. A written and registered agreement made on account of a natural love and affection between the close relatives is not valid without
adequate consideration.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 493]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1969]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1970]
3. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1971]
4. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1972]
Correct Answer :-
Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1972]
Consider the following statements:
1. There may be situations where only one party is bound to the terms of the contract.
2. In order to convert a proposal into a promise, the acceptance must be absolute and may be unqualified.
3. Death or insanity of the proposer is considered as good ground for revocation of proposal in all circumstances.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 494]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1973]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1976]
3. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1974]
4. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1975]
Correct Answer :-
Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1973]
Consider the following statements:
1. The minor is estopped from setting the defence of minority when by misrepresenting his age minor himself has induced the other party
to enter into agreement with him.
2. Section 11 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 declares that only minors and persons of unsound mind are incompetent to make contract.
Codes: [Question ID = 497]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1985]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1986]
72)
73)
74)
75)
76)
3. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1987]
4. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1988]
Correct Answer :-
Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1988]
?A? a resident of Mumbai has a website ?www.caravan.co.in? launched in 2015. ?A? has a business of apparels in Mumbai having a trade
mark ?CARAVAN?. The website is accessible from Delhi. ?B? a resident of Hyderabad starts a website ?www.caravaan.co.in? in 2017 having
the same business. The website of ?B? consists of a catalogue, a toll free number, and an email address. ?A? wants to file a suit for passing
off of trade mark in Delhi.
1. ?A? can file a suit in Delhi on the basis of accessibility of website of ?B?.
2. ?A? cannot file a suit merely on the accessibility of website.
3. ?A? cannot file a suit in Delhi as the website of ?B? is not interactive.
4. ?A? can file a suit if ?B? specifically targets the forum state resulting in harm to ?A? in forum State.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 437]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1745]
2. Only 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1748]
3. Only 4 is correct. [Option ID = 1747]
4. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1746]
Correct Answer :-
2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1746]
?A? has lent money to ?P&Q? firm engaged in the cement business and has agreed to take in addition to, or in place of his interest, a
portion of the profits of the firm business. It can be said that
[Question ID = 444]
1. ?A? is a partner as well as a creditor of the ?P&Q? firm. [Option ID = 1774]
2. ?A? is a partner in ?P&Q? firm. [Option ID = 1773]
3. ?A? is not a partner in the ?P&Q? firm. [Option ID = 1775]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1776]
Correct Answer :-
?A? is not a partner in the ?P&Q? firm. [Option ID = 1775]
Minor can be admitted to the benefits of the firm
[Question ID = 446]
1. with the consent of all the existing creditors of the firm. [Option ID = 1782]
2. with the consent of all the partners. [Option ID = 1781]
3. with the consent of the guardian of such minor. [Option ID = 1783]
4. All of these [Option ID = 1784]
Correct Answer :-
with the consent of all the partners. [Option ID = 1781]
?A? instigates ?B? to murder ?C?. ?B? refuses to do so. Which offence under the Indian Penal Code, 1860 has been committed by ?A??
[Question ID = 468]
1. No offence [Option ID = 1872]
2. Abetting to commit murder [Option ID = 1869]
3. Conspiracy to commit murder [Option ID = 1870]
4. Attempt to murder [Option ID = 1871]
Correct Answer :-
Abetting to commit murder [Option ID = 1869]
Which of the following goals are mentioned in the preamble of the UN Charter?
1. To save succeeding generations from the scourge of war.
2. To reaffirm faith in fundamental human rights, in the dignity and worth of the human person, in the equal rights of men and women
and of nations large and small.
77)
78)
79)
80)
81)
82)
3. To promote social progress and better standards of life in larger freedom.
4. To promote democratic order in conflict-ridden societies.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 416]
1. Only 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1662]
2. Only 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1661]
3. Only 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1663]
4. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1664]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1664]
Which of the following is an example of intangible property? [Question ID = 433]
1. Sale Deed of land [Option ID = 1729]
2. Pass book of a bank account [Option ID = 1730]
3. An autobiographical work [Option ID = 1731]
4. Indemnity Bond [Option ID = 1732]
Correct Answer :-
An autobiographical work [Option ID = 1731]
Which of the following are jural correlatives in Hohfeld?s scheme of analysis of rights?
1. Right ?Liberty
2. Power-Liability
3. Liberty-No-Right
4. Immunity-Disability
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 480]
1. 1, 2, 3 and 4 [Option ID = 1920]
2. 1, 2 and 3 [Option ID = 1917]
3. 2, 3 and 4 [Option ID = 1918]
4. 1 and 2 [Option ID = 1919]
Correct Answer :-
2, 3 and 4 [Option ID = 1918]
Which of the following is not a body associated with the European Union (EU)? [Question ID = 430]
1. Council of the European Union [Option ID = 1719]
2. Council of Europe [Option ID = 1717]
3. European Commission [Option ID = 1720]
4. European Council [Option ID = 1718]
Correct Answer :-
Council of Europe [Option ID = 1717]
Which of the following statement is incorrect as per the Constitution of India? [Question ID = 507]
1. The President of India exercises three functions, namely, summoning, prorogation and dissolution in relation to the Houses of Parliament. [Option ID =
2026]
2. The President of India may address either House of Parliament or both Houses assembled together. [Option ID = 2027]
3. Allocation of seats in the House of the People to the States shall be readjusted upon the completion of each census. [Option ID = 2025]
4. The Speaker summons the House of People. [Option ID = 2028]
Correct Answer :-
Which of the following statement is incorrect about the Attorney General for India? [Question ID = 511]
1. Attorney General is appointed by the President. [Option ID = 2041]
2. Attorney General shall have right of audience in all courts in India in the performance of his duties. [Option ID = 2042]
3. Attorney General shall be entitled to vote when he takes part in Parliamentary proceedings. [Option ID = 2044]
4. Attorney General for India shall have the right to take part in the proceedings of Parliament. [Option ID = 2043]
Correct Answer :-
Attorney General shall be entitled to vote when he takes part in Parliamentary proceedings. [Option ID = 2044]
83)
84)
85)
86)
87)
Which of the following statements is incorrect about the National Capital Territory of Delhi as per the Constitution of India? [Question ID
= 510]
1. In the case of difference of opinion between the Lieutenant Governor and his Ministers on any matter, the Lieutenant Governor shall refer it to the
President for decision. [Option ID = 2039]
2. If any provision of law made by the Legislative Assembly with respect to any matter is repugnant to any provision of a law made by Parliament with
respect to that matter, the law made by Parliament shall prevail. [Option ID = 2040]
3. The Chief Minister and other Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the Lieutenant Governor. [Option ID = 2037]
4. The Union Territory of Delhi shall be called the National Capital Territory of Delhi. [Option ID = 2038]
Correct Answer :-
The Chief Minister and other Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the Lieutenant Governor. [Option ID = 2037]
Which of the following statement about the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is incorrect? [Question ID = 506]
1. Second Schedule of the Constitution specifies the salary and service conditions of CAG. [Option ID = 2023]
2. CAG is appointed by the President of India. [Option ID = 2021]
3. CAG shall be removed in the manner like that of Judge of the Supreme Court. [Option ID = 2022]
4. CAG submits the reports relating to the accounts of the State to the President of India. [Option ID = 2024]
Correct Answer :-
CAG submits the reports relating to the accounts of the State to the President of India. [Option ID = 2024]
Which of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India? [Question ID = 509]
1. There shall be a Special Officer for linguistic minorities to be appointed by the President. [Option ID = 2035]
2. All proceedings in the Supreme Court and every High Court shall be in the English language. [Option ID = 2034]
3. The official language of the Union shall be Hindi in Devanagari script. [Option ID = 2033]
4. Every person shall submit the representation for redress of grievances to the Union in the language of English or Hindi. [Option ID = 2036]
Correct Answer :-
Which of the following presumptions/reasons best justify the validity of laws on hate speech?
1. Equality means uniformity.
2. Equality and liberty may sometimes become contradictory values.
3. Law should always prioritize equality over liberty.
4. Equality and liberty must be harmoniously construed.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 482]
1. 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1927]
2. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1926]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1925]
4. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1928]
Correct Answer :-
2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1927]
Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India provides for the constitution of Panchayats? [Question ID = 504]
1. Article 243-F [Option ID = 2014]
2. Article 243-H [Option ID = 2016]
3. Article 243-B [Option ID = 2015]
4. Article 243-E [Option ID = 2013]
Correct Answer :-
Article 243-B [Option ID = 2015]
Which of the following is true about the test of directness to determine remoteness of damage? [Question ID = 460]
1. If some harm is foreseeable, the defendant is liable for all direct consequences of his act, even if the actual damage is of a different kind than what was
foreseeable. [Option ID = 1838]
2. If some harm is foreseeable, the defendant is liable for all direct consequences of his act, only if the actual damage is of the same kind as was
foreseeable. [Option ID = 1839]
3. The defendant is liable for all direct consequences of his act. [Option ID = 1837]
4. The defendant is liable only for those consequences that are foreseeable by a reasonable man. [Option ID = 1840]
Correct Answer :-
If some harm is foreseeable, the defendant is liable for all direct consequences of his act, even if the actual damage is of a different kind than what
was foreseeable. [Option ID = 1838]
88)
89)
Match the following correctly:
[Question ID = 429]
1. [Option ID = 1714]
2. [Option ID = 1716]
3. [Option ID = 1715]
4. [Option ID = 1713]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1716]
Assertion (A): A Governor is always supposed to act on the advice of the Council of Ministers in matter of appointment of the Chief
Minister.
Reason (R): Like Article 74(1), Article 163(1) of the Constitution of India make it mandatory for the Governor to act in accordance with
the advice tendered by the Council of Ministers.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 513]
1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct reason for (A). [Option ID = 2049]
90)
91)
2. Both (A) and (R) are incorrect. [Option ID = 2052]
3. (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct. [Option ID = 2051]
4. (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect. [Option ID = 2050]
Correct Answer :-
Both (A) and (R) are incorrect. [Option ID = 2052]
X Ltd. is an Indian company, other than a company referred to in sub rule (2) of Rule 2 of the Companies (Restriction on number of
layers) Rules, 2017 which relates to the ?Restriction on number of layers for certain classes of holding companies?. X Ltd. has a wholly
owned Indian subsidiary Y Ltd. Y Ltd. has another Indian subsidiary Z Ltd. and it owns 60% of its total share capital. Y Ltd. now seeks to
form another Indian subsidiary K Ltd. Which of the following is correct? [Question ID = 441]
1. Y Ltd. is permitted to have K Ltd. only as its wholly owned subsidiary and not otherwise. [Option ID = 1763]
2. Y Ltd. is permitted to have K Ltd. as its subsidiary. [Option ID = 1761]
3. Y Ltd. is not permitted to have K Ltd. as its subsidiary as this investment will be beyond the maximum permissible layers. [Option ID = 1762]
4. Y Ltd. is not permitted to have K Ltd. as its subsidiary as X Ltd. is not covered by the abovementioned sub rule (2). [Option ID = 1764]
Correct Answer :-
Y Ltd. is permitted to have K Ltd. as its subsidiary. [Option ID = 1761]
Match List I and List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
[Question ID = 455]
1. [Option ID = 1819]
2. [Option ID = 1820]
3. [Option ID = 1818]
4. [Option ID = 1817]
Correct Answer :-
FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
1)
2)
3)
4)
DU LLM
Topic:- DU_J18_LLM_Topic01
Which of the following statement is true regarding the social contract theory on origin of State?
1. State is a creation of agreement between people
2. Thomas Hobbes? social contract theory supported limited constitutional monarchy
3. According to Rousseau, the ruler was bound by the general will of the people
4. According to Locke, the sovereign was absolute and his word was the law.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 485]
1. All are correct. [Option ID = 1940]
2. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1938]
3. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
4. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1937]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
[Question ID = 500]
1. A stipulation in a contract of sale may be a condition or warranty. [Option ID = 1997]
2. A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
3. A breach of condition results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1998]
4. All these [Option ID = 2000]
Correct Answer :-
A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
Which of the following exceptions to strict liability were recognised by Justice Blackburn in Rylands v. Fletcher?
1. Vis major
2. Statutory authority
3. Plaintiff?s own default
4. Act of third party
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 463]
1. 3 and 4 [Option ID = 1849]
2. 1, 2 and 3 [Option ID = 1851]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1852]
4. 1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Which of the following Acts was amended by the Criminal Law Amendment Act, 2013?
[Question ID = 467]
1. None of these [Option ID = 1868]
2. The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 [Option ID = 1867]
3. The Information Technology Act, 2000 [Option ID = 1865]
4. The Immoral Trafficking (Prevention) Act, 1956 [Option ID = 1866]
Correct Answer :-
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 [Option ID = 1867]
Which of the following observations on fundamental rights was made by the Supreme Court in K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India?
1. There is no overlap between rights enumerated under Article 19 and Article 21 of the Constitution of India.
2. The constitutional values embodied under every Article of Part III of the Constitution of India animates the interpretation of the other.
3. Only Article 21 contains residue of fundamental rights that are not expressly stipulated under Article 19 of the Constitution of India.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 501]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 2004]
2. Only 3 is correct. [Option ID = 2001]
3. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2002]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 2003]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2002]
Which of the following is sensitive personal information according to rule 3 of the Information Technology (Reasonable Security
Practices and Procedures and Sensitive Data or Information) Rules, 2011?
1. Credit card details
2. Medical records
3. Mobile number
4. Sexual orientation
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 436]
1. 1, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1742]
2. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1743]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1741]
4. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1744]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1743]
Which of the following is/are mechanism/mechanisms of pacific settlement of disputes under the UN Charter?
[Question ID = 419]
1. Enquiry [Option ID = 1673]
2. Judicial Settlement [Option ID = 1675]
3. Arbitration [Option ID = 1674]
4. All these [Option ID = 1676]
Correct Answer :-
All these [Option ID = 1676]
Which of the following actions of host is allowed under the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations of 1961:
[Question ID = 425]
1. The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata. [Option ID
= 1697]
2. The host state can any time search the premises of the diplomatic staff. [Option ID = 1699]
3. The host state can at any time withdraw the immunities granted to diplomats. [Option ID = 1700]
4. The host state can at any time confiscate the diplomatic bag. [Option ID = 1698]
Correct Answer :-
The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata.
[Option ID = 1697]
Which of the following provisions of the UN Charter is correctly matched:
10)
11)
12)
13)
14)
[Question ID = 428]
1. Article 2 (5) Principle of Settlement of Disputes by Peaceful Means [Option ID = 1712]
2. Article 2 (6) Principle of Non-Intervention [Option ID = 1710]
3. Article 2 (4) Prohibition on Use of Force [Option ID = 1709]
4. Article 2 (2) Principle of Sovereign Equality of the UN Members [Option ID = 1711]
Correct Answer :-
Article 2 (4) Prohibition on Use of Force [Option ID = 1709]
Which of the following are ?Inventions Not Patentable? under the Patent Act, 1970?
[Question ID = 431]
1. Invention relating to atomic Energy [Option ID = 1723]
2. A method of agriculture or horticulture [Option ID = 1721]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1724]
4. Topography of integrated circuits [Option ID = 1722]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1724]
Which of the following are conditions of a valid Hindu marriage in accordance with section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
1. Prior consent of the parties.
2. Neither Party must have a spouse living at the time of the marriage.
3. The bridegroom must have completed the age of 21 years and the bride, the age of 18 years at the time of the marriage.
4. The parties are not sagotras of each other.
5. The parties are not sapindas of each other.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 452]
1. Only 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1808]
2. Only 1, 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1805]
3. Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1807]
4. Only 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1806]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1806]
Which of the following is an example of obligatio erga omnes of states under International Law?
[Question ID = 422]
1. Protection from Wars [Option ID = 1687]
2. Protection from slavery [Option ID = 1685]
3. Protection from Political Crimes [Option ID = 1686]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1688]
Correct Answer :-
Protection from slavery [Option ID = 1685]
Which of the following is an implied condition in case of a contract for sale by sample?
[Question ID = 499]
1. Goods shall not be free from any defect, rendering them unmerchantable, which would not be apparent on reasonable examination of the sample. [Option
ID = 1995]
2. Bulk not corresponding with the sample in quality. [Option ID = 1993]
3. Buyer shall not have a reasonable opportunity of comparing the bulk with the sample. [Option ID = 1994]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1996]
Correct Answer :-
None of these [Option ID = 1996]
Read the following statements about the offence of dacoity under the Indian Penal Code, 1860:
15)
16)
17)
18)
19)
1. Attempt to commit dacoity is punishable.
2. Assembling for the purpose of dacoity is punishable.
3. Preparation for dacoity is punishable.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 477]
1. Only 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1907]
2. Only 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1908]
3. Only 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1906]
4. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1905]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1905]
Which among the following is generally referred to as the subtle species of fraud? [Question ID = 498]
1. Undue Influence [Option ID = 1990]
2. Deliberate Mistake [Option ID = 1992]
3. Misrepresentation [Option ID = 1989]
4. Coercion [Option ID = 1991]
Correct Answer :-
Undue Influence [Option ID = 1990]
A member of the UN may be suspended from its membership [Question ID = 417]
1. by the Security Council [Option ID = 1666]
2. by the International Court of Justice upon the request made by the UN General Assembly [Option ID = 1665]
3. by the General Assembly upon the recommendations of the Security Council [Option ID = 1667]
4. by the UN Secretary General [Option ID = 1668]
Correct Answer :-
by the General Assembly upon the recommendations of the Security Council [Option ID = 1667]
According to the Information Technology Act, 2000, an electronic record is deemed to be received at a place where addressee
[Question ID = 439]
1. All these [Option ID = 1756]
2. has his server. [Option ID = 1753]
3. has his place of business. [Option ID = 1754]
4. retrieves the record. [Option ID = 1755]
Correct Answer :-
has his place of business. [Option ID = 1754]
According to Fuller, in order to evade failure, law must have the following characteristics:
1. Law must be publicly accessible
2. Law must be clear and unambiguous
3. Law must not command what cannot be done
4. Law must introduce frequent changes
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 481]
1. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1923]
2. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1921]
3. All are correct. [Option ID = 1924]
4. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1922]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1921]
Who among the following remarked that international law is positive morality? [Question ID = 486]
1. Lon Fuller [Option ID = 1941]
2. Jeremy Bentham [Option ID = 1942]
3. H.L.A. Hart [Option ID = 1943]
20)
21)
22)
23)
24)
25)
4. John Austin [Option ID = 1944]
Correct Answer :-
John Austin [Option ID = 1944]
Trade mark includes
[Question ID = 435]
1. Certification mark [Option ID = 1737]
2. Collective mark [Option ID = 1738]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1740]
4. Well known trade mark [Option ID = 1739]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1740]
Lakshmi and Ram married under the Special Marriage Act, 1954. Ram died in 2010 leaving behind Lakshmi, his mother, a son and a
daughter. The intestate and testamentary succession to his property would be governed by [Question ID = 454]
1. Intestate succession according to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and testamentary succession according to the Indian Succession Act, 1925. [Option ID
= 1816]
2. His ancestral property would devolve on his son and mother and separate property to his wife, son and daughter. [Option ID = 1815]
3. The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 [Option ID = 1813]
4. The Indian Succession Act, 1925 [Option ID = 1814]
Correct Answer :-
Intestate succession according to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and testamentary succession according to the Indian Succession Act, 1925. [Option
ID = 1816]
Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 is applicable in cases of cruelty by husband or relatives of the husband within
[Question ID = 476]
1. 2 years of marriage [Option ID = 1903]
2. 3 years of marriage [Option ID = 1902]
3. No time limit [Option ID = 1904]
4. 7 years of marriage [Option ID = 1901]
Correct Answer :-
No time limit [Option ID = 1904]
John Rawls? idea of basing justice on a contract has been challenged by [Question ID = 487]
1. Jeremy Bentham [Option ID = 1945]
2. Tom Bingham [Option ID = 1947]
3. Amartya Sen [Option ID = 1946]
4. Upendra Baxi [Option ID = 1948]
Correct Answer :-
Amartya Sen [Option ID = 1946]
Dinesh finds a gold ring on the road, not knowing to whom the ring belongs. Dinesh picks up the ring. Dinesh is guilty of which
offence under the Indian Penal Code, 1860? [Question ID = 471]
1. No offence [Option ID = 1884]
2. Theft [Option ID = 1882]
3. Criminal breach of trust [Option ID = 1883]
4. Dishonest Misappropriation [Option ID = 1881]
Correct Answer :-
No offence [Option ID = 1884]
First Geneva Convention of 1949 deals with
[Question ID = 424]
1. Amelioration of the Condition of the Wounded and Sick in Armed Forces in the Field. [Option ID = 1695]
2. Amelioration of the Condition of Wounded, Sick and Shipwrecked Members of Armed Forces at Sea. [Option ID = 1694]
26)
27)
28)
29)
30)
31)
3. Treatment of Prisoners of War. [Option ID = 1693]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1696]
Correct Answer :-
Amelioration of the Condition of the Wounded and Sick in Armed Forces in the Field. [Option ID = 1695]
Shamim Ara claimed her dower after the death of her husband from her husband?s property. She is a/an [Question ID = 453]
1. preferential creditor to all other creditors subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1809]
2. ordinary unsecured creditor, having no priority over other unsecured creditors, subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1812]
3. ordinary unsecured creditor but having priority over other unsecured creditors [Option ID = 1811]
4. secured creditor subject to her right of retention. [Option ID = 1810]
Correct Answer :-
ordinary unsecured creditor, having no priority over other unsecured creditors, subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1812]
To cede a part of the Indian Territory in favour of any foreign country, which one of the following procedural requirement must be
complied with? [Question ID = 503]
1. A law made by Parliament to the effect would be relevant and sufficient. [Option ID = 2012]
2. A law must be passed in compliance with Article 3 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2009]
3. A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed in compliance with Article 368 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2010]
4. A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed to amend the Constitution as per Article 368 and followed up by a law passed relatable to Article 3 of the
Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2011]
Correct Answer :-
A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed in compliance with Article 368 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2010]
Who defined defamation as ?publication of a statement which tends to lower a person in the estimation of right thinking members of
society generally, or which tends to make them shun or avoid that person?. [Question ID = 461]
1. Winfield [Option ID = 1841]
2. Glanville Williams [Option ID = 1844]
3. Salmond [Option ID = 1842]
4. Pollock [Option ID = 1843]
Correct Answer :-
Winfield [Option ID = 1841]
Who among the following can file a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986?
[Question ID = 457]
1. Any recognised consumer association [Option ID = 1826]
2. The Central Government or any State Government [Option ID = 1827]
3. A consumer [Option ID = 1825]
4. All of these [Option ID = 1828]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1828]
In which of the following cases has the Supreme Court made it mandatory for candidates contesting elections to the legislatures and
their spouses to declare their source of income at the time of filing nominations?
[Question ID = 478]
1. People?s Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India [Option ID = 1912]
2. Jan Chaukidar v. Union of India [Option ID = 1910]
3. Association for Democratic Reforms v. Union of India [Option ID = 1911]
4. Lok Prahari v. Union of India [Option ID = 1909]
Correct Answer :-
Lok Prahari v. Union of India [Option ID = 1909]
In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that the public authority providing services or goods as per the definition
under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 must be held liable to pay adequate compensation to the consumer for harassment or mental
agony or oppression caused to him for capricious exercise of power and the money could then be recovered from the erring public
officials?
32)
33)
34)
35)
36)
[Question ID = 465]
1. State of Gujarat v. Memom Mahomed [Option ID = 1860]
2. Shyam Sunder v. State of Rajasthan [Option ID = 1858]
3. Indian Medical Association v. V.P. Shantha [Option ID = 1857]
4. Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta [Option ID = 1859]
Correct Answer :-
Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta [Option ID = 1859]
In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that ?An intermediary shall be liable for a third party information hosted by
him if upon receiving actual knowledge from the court order or on being notified by the appropriate government, he fails to expeditiously
remove that material??
[Question ID = 438]
1. My Space Inc. v. Super Cassettes [Option ID = 1750]
2. Google India Pvt. Ltd. v. M/s Visaka Industries [Option ID = 1751]
3. Shreya Singhal v. Union of India [Option ID = 1749]
4. Avinash Bajaj v. State [Option ID = 1752]
Correct Answer :-
Shreya Singhal v. Union of India [Option ID = 1749]
In which of the following case, Lord Wilberforce opined that ?It is necessary to consider three elements inherent in any claim for
nervous shock: the class of persons whose claim should be recognized, the proximity of such persons to the incident and the means
adopted by which shock is caused??
[Question ID = 464]
1. Page v. Smith [Option ID = 1855]
2. Hinz v. Berry [Option ID = 1854]
3. Bourhill v. Young [Option ID = 1856]
4. McLoughlin v. O?Brian [Option ID = 1853]
Correct Answer :-
McLoughlin v. O?Brian [Option ID = 1853]
In which of the following offences minimum five offenders are required?
1. Affray
2. Robbery
3. Dacoity
4. Rioting
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 475]
1. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1897]
2. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1898]
3. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1900]
4. 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1899]
Correct Answer :-
3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1899]
A foreign company intends to merge with an Indian Company. As per the relevant provision in the Companies (Compromises,
Arrangements and Amalgamation) Rules, 2016, it needs to obtain prior approval of [Question ID = 442]
1. Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs. [Option ID = 1766]
2. Securities and Exchange Board of India. [Option ID = 1765]
3. Reserve Bank of India. [Option ID = 1767]
4. Department of Economic Affairs. [Option ID = 1768]
Correct Answer :-
Reserve Bank of India. [Option ID = 1767]
Who coined the term ?Compensatory Discrimination?? [Question ID = 512]
1. Prof. P.N. Singh [Option ID = 2047]
2. Prof. Marc Galanter [Option ID = 2046]
3. Prof. Upendra Baxi [Option ID = 2048]
37)
38)
39)
40)
41)
42)
4. Justice Krishna Iyer [Option ID = 2045]
Correct Answer :-
Prof. Marc Galanter [Option ID = 2046]
What is the limitation period for filing a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986? [Question ID = 459]
1. One year from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1834]
2. 2 years from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1833]
3. 6 months from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1835]
4. 90 days from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1836]
Correct Answer :-
2 years from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1833]
What is the role of section 135, Trade Marks Act, 1999? [Question ID = 434]
1. relief for recovery of property [Option ID = 1734]
2. relief for specific performance [Option ID = 1735]
3. relief for infringement [Option ID = 1733]
4. declaration of the title [Option ID = 1736]
Correct Answer :-
relief for infringement [Option ID = 1733]
What is the principle of complementarity in the context of the International Criminal Court (ICC)? [Question ID = 427]
1. It means the ICC will assist the domestic criminal court in trial and prosecution of the individual accused of committing crimes enlisted in the Rome
Statute, 1998. [Option ID = 1707]
2. It means the ICC will seek for demand production of accused to its jurisdiction. [Option ID = 1708]
3. It means the ICC will prosecute an individual only when that individual submits to its jurisdiction. [Option ID = 1706]
4. It means the ICC will only prosecute an individual if states are unwilling or unable to prosecute. [Option ID = 1705]
Correct Answer :-
It means the ICC will only prosecute an individual if states are unwilling or unable to prosecute. [Option ID = 1705]
The question regarding disqualification of the Speaker of Lok Sabha under the X Schedule of the Constitution of India is referred for
the decision to [Question ID = 479]
1. A member elected for this purpose by the Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1916]
2. Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1914]
3. Deputy Chairperson of Rajya Sabha [Option ID = 1913]
4. President of India [Option ID = 1915]
Correct Answer :-
A member elected for this purpose by the Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1916]
Dissolution of a firm can be carried by
[Question ID = 447]
1. expiry of the term for which it was constituted. [Option ID = 1786]
2. adjudication of a partner as an insolvent. [Option ID = 1787]
3. death of a partner. [Option ID = 1785]
4. All of these [Option ID = 1788]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1788]
?A?, ?B? and ?C? are partners in a partnership firm named AB&C. ?A? retires from the firm without giving any public notice. Thereafter, an
existing creditor lends Rs. ten lakh to the firm on the basis of his knowledge that ?A?, ?B? and ?C? are the three partners in the firm. This
amount remains unpaid by the firm. The creditor wants to recover the unpaid loan amount from the firm. [Question ID = 445]
1. No one will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1780]
2. ?A?, ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1778]
3. Only ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1779]
4. Only ?A? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1777]
Correct Answer :-
43)
44)
45)
46)
?A?, ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1778]
Assertion (A): Distributive justice is based on the principle that there has to be equal distribution amongst the equals.
Reason (R): Reasonable classification is the essence of equality as justice cannot be achieved by promulgating uniform law for everyone.
1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct reason for A.
2. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct reason for A.
3. Both A and R are incorrect.
4. A is incorrect but R is correct.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 488]
1. 2 [Option ID = 1950]
2. 1 [Option ID = 1949]
3. 3 [Option ID = 1951]
4. 4 [Option ID = 1952]
Correct Answer :-
1 [Option ID = 1949]
Consider the following statement about the Military Staff Committee:
1. It shall advise and assist the Security Council on all questions relating to military requirements for maintenance of international peace
and security.
2. It shall consist of Chiefs of Staff of the permanent members and two non- members nominated by the General Assembly.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 420]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1679]
2. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1680]
3. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1677]
4. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1678]
Correct Answer :-
Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1677]
Consider the following statements:
1. Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons is the first legally binding international agreement to comprehensively prohibit nuclear
weapons.
2. It was passed on July 7, 2017 by the Security Council.
3. It has not come into force.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 426]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1701]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1702]
3. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1704]
4. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1703]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1703]
Consider the following statements:
1. Moses v. Macferlan is a prominent example of theory of unjust enrichment as propounded by Lord Mansfield.
2. According to this theory, the demands of justice and equity is to prevent the unjust enrichment of one person at the cost of another.
3. Sinclair v. Brougham has propounded the theory of ?Implied-in-fact? contract to elaborate the nature of Quasi Contracts.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 491]
1. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1961]
2. Only 1 and 3 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1964]
3. Only 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1962]
47)
48)
49)
50)
51)
4. Only 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1963]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1961]
Consider the following statements:
1. A contract with a minor is void, however, a minor can after attaining majority ratify an agreement made by him during his minority.
2. Minor is not liable for the wrongful act when the cause of action in substance is ex contractu.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 496]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1983]
2. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1984]
3. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1981]
4. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1982]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1982]
Consider the following statements:
1. The Bolitho test relates to medical negligence.
2. The Bolitho test was referred to in Malay Kumar Ganguly v. Sukumar Mukherjee.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 458]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1830]
2. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1829]
3. 1 is correct but 2 is incorrect. [Option ID = 1831]
4. 1 is incorrect but 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1832]
Correct Answer :-
Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1830]
Savithri, a married Hindu woman died intestate leaving behind her husband and mother. Properties mentioned in Schedule ?A? was
inherited by her from her father and Schedule ?B? property was her self-acquired property. Pick out the correct legal proposition from
below: [Question ID = 456]
1. Her husband and mother will share equally in both the properties. [Option ID = 1821]
2. Her husband alone will succeed to both properties. [Option ID = 1822]
3. Her husband will inherit Schedule ?B? property and mother will inherit Schedule ?A? property. [Option ID = 1824]
4. Her mother will alone succeed to both properties. [Option ID = 1823]
Correct Answer :-
Her husband will inherit Schedule ?B? property and mother will inherit Schedule ?A? property. [Option ID = 1824]
Article 290-A of the Constitution of India refers to [Question ID = 505]
1. Annual payment to certain Devaswom Funds [Option ID = 2020]
2. Privy purse sums of Rulers [Option ID = 2017]
3. Exemption of property and income of a State from Union taxation [Option ID = 2018]
4. Exemption from taxation by States in respect of water or electricity in certain cases [Option ID = 2019]
Correct Answer :-
Annual payment to certain Devaswom Funds [Option ID = 2020]
Match the cases mentioned in List I with legal issues mentioned in List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
52)
Codes:
[Question ID = 449]
1. [Option ID = 1793]
2. [Option ID = 1794]
3. [Option ID = 1796]
4. [Option ID = 1795]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1795]
53)
[Question ID = 53444]
1. [Option ID = 93763]
2. [Option ID = 93764]
3. [Option ID = 93761]
4. [Option ID = 93762]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 93761]
54)
[Question ID = 495]
1. [Option ID = 1978]
2. [Option ID = 1977]
3. [Option ID = 1980]
4. [Option ID = 1979]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1980]
55)
[Question ID = 462]
1. [Option ID = 1848]
2. [Option ID = 1845]
3. [Option ID = 1846]
4. [Option ID = 1847]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1847]
[Question ID = 492]
56)
1. [Option ID = 1966]
2. [Option ID = 1968]
3. [Option ID = 1965]
4. [Option ID = 1967]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1968]
[Question ID = 472]
1. [Option ID = 1888]
2. [Option ID = 1887]
3. [Option ID = 1885]
57)
58)
4. [Option ID = 1886]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1888]
[Question ID = 490]
1. [Option ID = 1957]
2. [Option ID = 1958]
3. [Option ID = 1959]
4. [Option ID = 1960]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1958]
59)
Codes: [Question ID = 489]
1. [Option ID = 1956]
2. [Option ID = 1953]
3. [Option ID = 1955]
4. [Option ID = 1954]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1953]
60)
61)
62)
[Question ID = 448]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1791]
2. 1, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1792]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1789]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1790]
Correct Answer :-
2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1791]
Who among the following can remove the name of company from the register of companies on suo-motu basis in terms of section
248(1) of the Companies Act, 2013? [Question ID = 443]
1. Registrar of Companies [Option ID = 1770]
2. Securities and Exchange Board of India [Option ID = 1771]
3. National Company Law Tribunal [Option ID = 1769]
4. Ministry of Corporate Affairs [Option ID = 1772]
Correct Answer :-
Registrar of Companies [Option ID = 1770]
Who amongst the following accepts that ?Rights are important because they can be enforced?? [Question ID = 483]
1. Lloyd [Option ID = 1930]
2. John Rawls [Option ID = 1929]
3. Allen Buchanan [Option ID = 1932]
4. Thomas Hobbes [Option ID = 1931]
Correct Answer :-
Allen Buchanan [Option ID = 1932]
Kelson?s theory of law suggests that
1. Legal order is a hierarchy of norms.
2. The basic content of the law is determined by Grundnorm (the basic norm).
3. Law is a command.
4. Pure theory of law deals with law as it ought to be.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 484]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1935]
2. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1934]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1933]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1936]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1936]
63)
64)
65)
66)
67)
Consider the following propositions:
1. A Muslim woman, on her husband?s death, need not follow Iddat if her marriage is valid but not consummated.
2. A Muslim woman, on divorce, need not follow Iddat if her marriage is valid but not consummated.
3. A Muslim woman, on divorce, has to observe Iddat if her marriage is irregular but consummated.
4. A Muslim woman, whose marriage is void but consummated, has to observe Iddat till delivery if she is carrying the child in her womb in
case of her husband?s death.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 450]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1797]
2. Only 4 is correct. [Option ID = 1800]
3. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1799]
4. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1798]
Correct Answer :-
2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1797]
Consider the following statements about the International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea (ITLOS):
1. The Tribunal is composed of 21 independent judges.
2. It is based in Hamburg, Germany.
3. Dr. Neeru Chadha from India has been appointed as one of the Judges of the Tribunal in 2017.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 423]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1689]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1690]
3. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1692]
4. Only 3 is correct. [Option ID = 1691]
Correct Answer :-
All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1692]
Consider the following statements:
1. Under the UN Charter, the General Assembly may take up issues relating to maintenance of international peace and security, including
the principles governing disarmament and the regulation of armaments.
2. Under the UN Charter, the Security Council has the primary responsibility for the maintenance of international peace and security.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 418]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1669]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1670]
3. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1671]
4. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1672]
Correct Answer :-
Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1671]
Consider the following statements:
1. The motion for removal of a Supreme Court Judge submitted to the speaker of the Lok Sabha lapses with the dissolution of Lok Sabha.
2. The Inquiry Committee appointed under the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968 to ascertain the veracity of the motion for removal of the judge
can be treated as a tribunal under Article 136 of the Constitution.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 514]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 2055]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2056]
3. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 2053]
4. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2054]
Correct Answer :-
Neither 1 nor 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2054]
Consider the following statements:
1. The Statute of the International Court of Justice is an integral part of the UN Charter.
2. All members of the UN are ipso facto parties to the Statute of the International Court of Justice.
3. The Statute of the International Court of Justice is a separate treaty, and members of the UN have to separately ratify it in order to be
68)
69)
70)
71)
bound by the same.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 421]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1681]
2. None of these is correct. [Option ID = 1684]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1683]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1682]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1682]
Consider the following statements:
1. All robberies are either theft or extortion.
2. If A holds Z down and fraudulently takes Z?s money without Z?s consent. This is an example of theft as robbery.
3. A obtains property from Z by saying that his child is in the hands of my gang and will be put to death unless a ransom of 50 lakh rupees
is paid. Z was however not put in fear of instant death of child. This is an example of extortion as robbery.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 474]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1896]
2. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1893]
3. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1894]
4. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1895]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1894]
Consider the following statements:
1. An agreement made without adequate consideration is void.
2. A written and registered agreement made on account of a natural love and affection between the close relatives is not valid without
adequate consideration.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 493]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1969]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1970]
3. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1971]
4. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1972]
Correct Answer :-
Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1972]
Consider the following statements:
1. There may be situations where only one party is bound to the terms of the contract.
2. In order to convert a proposal into a promise, the acceptance must be absolute and may be unqualified.
3. Death or insanity of the proposer is considered as good ground for revocation of proposal in all circumstances.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 494]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1973]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1976]
3. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1974]
4. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1975]
Correct Answer :-
Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1973]
Consider the following statements:
1. The minor is estopped from setting the defence of minority when by misrepresenting his age minor himself has induced the other party
to enter into agreement with him.
2. Section 11 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 declares that only minors and persons of unsound mind are incompetent to make contract.
Codes: [Question ID = 497]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1985]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1986]
72)
73)
74)
75)
76)
3. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1987]
4. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1988]
Correct Answer :-
Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1988]
?A? a resident of Mumbai has a website ?www.caravan.co.in? launched in 2015. ?A? has a business of apparels in Mumbai having a trade
mark ?CARAVAN?. The website is accessible from Delhi. ?B? a resident of Hyderabad starts a website ?www.caravaan.co.in? in 2017 having
the same business. The website of ?B? consists of a catalogue, a toll free number, and an email address. ?A? wants to file a suit for passing
off of trade mark in Delhi.
1. ?A? can file a suit in Delhi on the basis of accessibility of website of ?B?.
2. ?A? cannot file a suit merely on the accessibility of website.
3. ?A? cannot file a suit in Delhi as the website of ?B? is not interactive.
4. ?A? can file a suit if ?B? specifically targets the forum state resulting in harm to ?A? in forum State.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 437]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1745]
2. Only 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1748]
3. Only 4 is correct. [Option ID = 1747]
4. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1746]
Correct Answer :-
2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1746]
?A? has lent money to ?P&Q? firm engaged in the cement business and has agreed to take in addition to, or in place of his interest, a
portion of the profits of the firm business. It can be said that
[Question ID = 444]
1. ?A? is a partner as well as a creditor of the ?P&Q? firm. [Option ID = 1774]
2. ?A? is a partner in ?P&Q? firm. [Option ID = 1773]
3. ?A? is not a partner in the ?P&Q? firm. [Option ID = 1775]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1776]
Correct Answer :-
?A? is not a partner in the ?P&Q? firm. [Option ID = 1775]
Minor can be admitted to the benefits of the firm
[Question ID = 446]
1. with the consent of all the existing creditors of the firm. [Option ID = 1782]
2. with the consent of all the partners. [Option ID = 1781]
3. with the consent of the guardian of such minor. [Option ID = 1783]
4. All of these [Option ID = 1784]
Correct Answer :-
with the consent of all the partners. [Option ID = 1781]
?A? instigates ?B? to murder ?C?. ?B? refuses to do so. Which offence under the Indian Penal Code, 1860 has been committed by ?A??
[Question ID = 468]
1. No offence [Option ID = 1872]
2. Abetting to commit murder [Option ID = 1869]
3. Conspiracy to commit murder [Option ID = 1870]
4. Attempt to murder [Option ID = 1871]
Correct Answer :-
Abetting to commit murder [Option ID = 1869]
Which of the following goals are mentioned in the preamble of the UN Charter?
1. To save succeeding generations from the scourge of war.
2. To reaffirm faith in fundamental human rights, in the dignity and worth of the human person, in the equal rights of men and women
and of nations large and small.
77)
78)
79)
80)
81)
82)
3. To promote social progress and better standards of life in larger freedom.
4. To promote democratic order in conflict-ridden societies.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 416]
1. Only 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1662]
2. Only 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1661]
3. Only 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1663]
4. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1664]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1664]
Which of the following is an example of intangible property? [Question ID = 433]
1. Sale Deed of land [Option ID = 1729]
2. Pass book of a bank account [Option ID = 1730]
3. An autobiographical work [Option ID = 1731]
4. Indemnity Bond [Option ID = 1732]
Correct Answer :-
An autobiographical work [Option ID = 1731]
Which of the following are jural correlatives in Hohfeld?s scheme of analysis of rights?
1. Right ?Liberty
2. Power-Liability
3. Liberty-No-Right
4. Immunity-Disability
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 480]
1. 1, 2, 3 and 4 [Option ID = 1920]
2. 1, 2 and 3 [Option ID = 1917]
3. 2, 3 and 4 [Option ID = 1918]
4. 1 and 2 [Option ID = 1919]
Correct Answer :-
2, 3 and 4 [Option ID = 1918]
Which of the following is not a body associated with the European Union (EU)? [Question ID = 430]
1. Council of the European Union [Option ID = 1719]
2. Council of Europe [Option ID = 1717]
3. European Commission [Option ID = 1720]
4. European Council [Option ID = 1718]
Correct Answer :-
Council of Europe [Option ID = 1717]
Which of the following statement is incorrect as per the Constitution of India? [Question ID = 507]
1. The President of India exercises three functions, namely, summoning, prorogation and dissolution in relation to the Houses of Parliament. [Option ID =
2026]
2. The President of India may address either House of Parliament or both Houses assembled together. [Option ID = 2027]
3. Allocation of seats in the House of the People to the States shall be readjusted upon the completion of each census. [Option ID = 2025]
4. The Speaker summons the House of People. [Option ID = 2028]
Correct Answer :-
Which of the following statement is incorrect about the Attorney General for India? [Question ID = 511]
1. Attorney General is appointed by the President. [Option ID = 2041]
2. Attorney General shall have right of audience in all courts in India in the performance of his duties. [Option ID = 2042]
3. Attorney General shall be entitled to vote when he takes part in Parliamentary proceedings. [Option ID = 2044]
4. Attorney General for India shall have the right to take part in the proceedings of Parliament. [Option ID = 2043]
Correct Answer :-
Attorney General shall be entitled to vote when he takes part in Parliamentary proceedings. [Option ID = 2044]
83)
84)
85)
86)
87)
Which of the following statements is incorrect about the National Capital Territory of Delhi as per the Constitution of India? [Question ID
= 510]
1. In the case of difference of opinion between the Lieutenant Governor and his Ministers on any matter, the Lieutenant Governor shall refer it to the
President for decision. [Option ID = 2039]
2. If any provision of law made by the Legislative Assembly with respect to any matter is repugnant to any provision of a law made by Parliament with
respect to that matter, the law made by Parliament shall prevail. [Option ID = 2040]
3. The Chief Minister and other Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the Lieutenant Governor. [Option ID = 2037]
4. The Union Territory of Delhi shall be called the National Capital Territory of Delhi. [Option ID = 2038]
Correct Answer :-
The Chief Minister and other Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the Lieutenant Governor. [Option ID = 2037]
Which of the following statement about the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is incorrect? [Question ID = 506]
1. Second Schedule of the Constitution specifies the salary and service conditions of CAG. [Option ID = 2023]
2. CAG is appointed by the President of India. [Option ID = 2021]
3. CAG shall be removed in the manner like that of Judge of the Supreme Court. [Option ID = 2022]
4. CAG submits the reports relating to the accounts of the State to the President of India. [Option ID = 2024]
Correct Answer :-
CAG submits the reports relating to the accounts of the State to the President of India. [Option ID = 2024]
Which of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India? [Question ID = 509]
1. There shall be a Special Officer for linguistic minorities to be appointed by the President. [Option ID = 2035]
2. All proceedings in the Supreme Court and every High Court shall be in the English language. [Option ID = 2034]
3. The official language of the Union shall be Hindi in Devanagari script. [Option ID = 2033]
4. Every person shall submit the representation for redress of grievances to the Union in the language of English or Hindi. [Option ID = 2036]
Correct Answer :-
Which of the following presumptions/reasons best justify the validity of laws on hate speech?
1. Equality means uniformity.
2. Equality and liberty may sometimes become contradictory values.
3. Law should always prioritize equality over liberty.
4. Equality and liberty must be harmoniously construed.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 482]
1. 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1927]
2. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1926]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1925]
4. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1928]
Correct Answer :-
2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1927]
Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India provides for the constitution of Panchayats? [Question ID = 504]
1. Article 243-F [Option ID = 2014]
2. Article 243-H [Option ID = 2016]
3. Article 243-B [Option ID = 2015]
4. Article 243-E [Option ID = 2013]
Correct Answer :-
Article 243-B [Option ID = 2015]
Which of the following is true about the test of directness to determine remoteness of damage? [Question ID = 460]
1. If some harm is foreseeable, the defendant is liable for all direct consequences of his act, even if the actual damage is of a different kind than what was
foreseeable. [Option ID = 1838]
2. If some harm is foreseeable, the defendant is liable for all direct consequences of his act, only if the actual damage is of the same kind as was
foreseeable. [Option ID = 1839]
3. The defendant is liable for all direct consequences of his act. [Option ID = 1837]
4. The defendant is liable only for those consequences that are foreseeable by a reasonable man. [Option ID = 1840]
Correct Answer :-
If some harm is foreseeable, the defendant is liable for all direct consequences of his act, even if the actual damage is of a different kind than what
was foreseeable. [Option ID = 1838]
88)
89)
Match the following correctly:
[Question ID = 429]
1. [Option ID = 1714]
2. [Option ID = 1716]
3. [Option ID = 1715]
4. [Option ID = 1713]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1716]
Assertion (A): A Governor is always supposed to act on the advice of the Council of Ministers in matter of appointment of the Chief
Minister.
Reason (R): Like Article 74(1), Article 163(1) of the Constitution of India make it mandatory for the Governor to act in accordance with
the advice tendered by the Council of Ministers.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 513]
1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct reason for (A). [Option ID = 2049]
90)
91)
2. Both (A) and (R) are incorrect. [Option ID = 2052]
3. (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct. [Option ID = 2051]
4. (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect. [Option ID = 2050]
Correct Answer :-
Both (A) and (R) are incorrect. [Option ID = 2052]
X Ltd. is an Indian company, other than a company referred to in sub rule (2) of Rule 2 of the Companies (Restriction on number of
layers) Rules, 2017 which relates to the ?Restriction on number of layers for certain classes of holding companies?. X Ltd. has a wholly
owned Indian subsidiary Y Ltd. Y Ltd. has another Indian subsidiary Z Ltd. and it owns 60% of its total share capital. Y Ltd. now seeks to
form another Indian subsidiary K Ltd. Which of the following is correct? [Question ID = 441]
1. Y Ltd. is permitted to have K Ltd. only as its wholly owned subsidiary and not otherwise. [Option ID = 1763]
2. Y Ltd. is permitted to have K Ltd. as its subsidiary. [Option ID = 1761]
3. Y Ltd. is not permitted to have K Ltd. as its subsidiary as this investment will be beyond the maximum permissible layers. [Option ID = 1762]
4. Y Ltd. is not permitted to have K Ltd. as its subsidiary as X Ltd. is not covered by the abovementioned sub rule (2). [Option ID = 1764]
Correct Answer :-
Y Ltd. is permitted to have K Ltd. as its subsidiary. [Option ID = 1761]
Match List I and List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
[Question ID = 455]
1. [Option ID = 1819]
2. [Option ID = 1820]
3. [Option ID = 1818]
4. [Option ID = 1817]
Correct Answer :-
92)
93)
94)
95)
96)
[Option ID = 1819]
Santosh, a jailor has charge of a prisoner Virender. Santosh with an intention to cause death, illegally omits to supply Virender with
food. However, Virender does not die, though his strength is considerably reduced. Santosh is dismissed from the office and replaced by
Geeta. Geeta, without collusion with Santosh, illegally omits to supply Virender with food, knowing fully well that she is likely thereby to
cause Virender?s death. Virender dies of starvation.
Choose the correct option: [Question ID = 473]
1. Both Geeta and Santosh are guilty of murder. [Option ID = 1889]
2. Only Geeta is guilty of murder and Santosh is not guilty of any offence. [Option ID = 1890]
3. Both Santosh and Geeta are guilty of attempt to murder. [Option ID = 1892]
4. Geeta is guilty of murder and Santosh is guilty of attempt to murder. [Option ID = 1891]
Correct Answer :-
Geeta is guilty of murder and Santosh is guilty of attempt to murder. [Option ID = 1891]
The egg shell skull principle was applied in:
[Question ID = 466]
1. Page v. Smith [Option ID = 1862]
2. Watson v. Buckley and Osborne, Garrett and Co. Ltd [Option ID = 1864]
3. Smith v. Leech Brain and Company [Option ID = 1861]
4. Dulieu v. White [Option ID = 1863]
Correct Answer :-
Smith v. Leech Brain and Company [Option ID = 1861]
The term of copyright in cinematograph films shall subsist
[Question ID = 432]
1. twenty five years from the beginning of the calendar year next following the year in which the film is published. [Option ID = 1727]
2. sixty years from the beginning of the calendar year next following the year in which the author dies. [Option ID = 1726]
3. sixty years from the beginning of the calendar year next following the year in which the film is published. [Option ID = 1725]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1728]
Correct Answer :-
sixty years from the beginning of the calendar year next following the year in which the film is published. [Option ID = 1725]
The word ?reasonable? was added in clause 2 of Article 19 of the Constitution of India through:
[Question ID = 515]
1. Twenty-fourth Constitutional Amendment [Option ID = 2059]
2. First Constitutional Amendment [Option ID = 2057]
3. Sixteenth Constitutional Amendment [Option ID = 2058]
4. None of these [Option ID = 2060]
Correct Answer :-
First Constitutional Amendment [Option ID = 2057]
The maxim de minimis non curatlex incorporated in which section of the Indian Penal Code, 1860?
[Question ID = 470]
1. Section 95 [Option ID = 1877]
2. Section 84 [Option ID = 1878]
3. Section 94 [Option ID = 1879]
4. Section 86 [Option ID = 1880]
Correct Answer :-
Section 95 [Option ID = 1877]
FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
1)
2)
3)
4)
DU LLM
Topic:- DU_J18_LLM_Topic01
Which of the following statement is true regarding the social contract theory on origin of State?
1. State is a creation of agreement between people
2. Thomas Hobbes? social contract theory supported limited constitutional monarchy
3. According to Rousseau, the ruler was bound by the general will of the people
4. According to Locke, the sovereign was absolute and his word was the law.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 485]
1. All are correct. [Option ID = 1940]
2. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1938]
3. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
4. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1937]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1939]
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
[Question ID = 500]
1. A stipulation in a contract of sale may be a condition or warranty. [Option ID = 1997]
2. A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
3. A breach of condition results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1998]
4. All these [Option ID = 2000]
Correct Answer :-
A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract. [Option ID = 1999]
Which of the following exceptions to strict liability were recognised by Justice Blackburn in Rylands v. Fletcher?
1. Vis major
2. Statutory authority
3. Plaintiff?s own default
4. Act of third party
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 463]
1. 3 and 4 [Option ID = 1849]
2. 1, 2 and 3 [Option ID = 1851]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1852]
4. 1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 [Option ID = 1850]
Which of the following Acts was amended by the Criminal Law Amendment Act, 2013?
[Question ID = 467]
1. None of these [Option ID = 1868]
2. The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 [Option ID = 1867]
3. The Information Technology Act, 2000 [Option ID = 1865]
4. The Immoral Trafficking (Prevention) Act, 1956 [Option ID = 1866]
Correct Answer :-
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 [Option ID = 1867]
Which of the following observations on fundamental rights was made by the Supreme Court in K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India?
1. There is no overlap between rights enumerated under Article 19 and Article 21 of the Constitution of India.
2. The constitutional values embodied under every Article of Part III of the Constitution of India animates the interpretation of the other.
3. Only Article 21 contains residue of fundamental rights that are not expressly stipulated under Article 19 of the Constitution of India.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 501]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 2004]
2. Only 3 is correct. [Option ID = 2001]
3. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2002]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 2003]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2002]
Which of the following is sensitive personal information according to rule 3 of the Information Technology (Reasonable Security
Practices and Procedures and Sensitive Data or Information) Rules, 2011?
1. Credit card details
2. Medical records
3. Mobile number
4. Sexual orientation
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 436]
1. 1, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1742]
2. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1743]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1741]
4. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1744]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1743]
Which of the following is/are mechanism/mechanisms of pacific settlement of disputes under the UN Charter?
[Question ID = 419]
1. Enquiry [Option ID = 1673]
2. Judicial Settlement [Option ID = 1675]
3. Arbitration [Option ID = 1674]
4. All these [Option ID = 1676]
Correct Answer :-
All these [Option ID = 1676]
Which of the following actions of host is allowed under the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations of 1961:
[Question ID = 425]
1. The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata. [Option ID
= 1697]
2. The host state can any time search the premises of the diplomatic staff. [Option ID = 1699]
3. The host state can at any time withdraw the immunities granted to diplomats. [Option ID = 1700]
4. The host state can at any time confiscate the diplomatic bag. [Option ID = 1698]
Correct Answer :-
The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata.
[Option ID = 1697]
Which of the following provisions of the UN Charter is correctly matched:
10)
11)
12)
13)
14)
[Question ID = 428]
1. Article 2 (5) Principle of Settlement of Disputes by Peaceful Means [Option ID = 1712]
2. Article 2 (6) Principle of Non-Intervention [Option ID = 1710]
3. Article 2 (4) Prohibition on Use of Force [Option ID = 1709]
4. Article 2 (2) Principle of Sovereign Equality of the UN Members [Option ID = 1711]
Correct Answer :-
Article 2 (4) Prohibition on Use of Force [Option ID = 1709]
Which of the following are ?Inventions Not Patentable? under the Patent Act, 1970?
[Question ID = 431]
1. Invention relating to atomic Energy [Option ID = 1723]
2. A method of agriculture or horticulture [Option ID = 1721]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1724]
4. Topography of integrated circuits [Option ID = 1722]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1724]
Which of the following are conditions of a valid Hindu marriage in accordance with section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
1. Prior consent of the parties.
2. Neither Party must have a spouse living at the time of the marriage.
3. The bridegroom must have completed the age of 21 years and the bride, the age of 18 years at the time of the marriage.
4. The parties are not sagotras of each other.
5. The parties are not sapindas of each other.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 452]
1. Only 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1808]
2. Only 1, 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1805]
3. Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1807]
4. Only 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1806]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2, 3 and 5 are correct. [Option ID = 1806]
Which of the following is an example of obligatio erga omnes of states under International Law?
[Question ID = 422]
1. Protection from Wars [Option ID = 1687]
2. Protection from slavery [Option ID = 1685]
3. Protection from Political Crimes [Option ID = 1686]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1688]
Correct Answer :-
Protection from slavery [Option ID = 1685]
Which of the following is an implied condition in case of a contract for sale by sample?
[Question ID = 499]
1. Goods shall not be free from any defect, rendering them unmerchantable, which would not be apparent on reasonable examination of the sample. [Option
ID = 1995]
2. Bulk not corresponding with the sample in quality. [Option ID = 1993]
3. Buyer shall not have a reasonable opportunity of comparing the bulk with the sample. [Option ID = 1994]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1996]
Correct Answer :-
None of these [Option ID = 1996]
Read the following statements about the offence of dacoity under the Indian Penal Code, 1860:
15)
16)
17)
18)
19)
1. Attempt to commit dacoity is punishable.
2. Assembling for the purpose of dacoity is punishable.
3. Preparation for dacoity is punishable.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 477]
1. Only 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1907]
2. Only 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1908]
3. Only 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1906]
4. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1905]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1905]
Which among the following is generally referred to as the subtle species of fraud? [Question ID = 498]
1. Undue Influence [Option ID = 1990]
2. Deliberate Mistake [Option ID = 1992]
3. Misrepresentation [Option ID = 1989]
4. Coercion [Option ID = 1991]
Correct Answer :-
Undue Influence [Option ID = 1990]
A member of the UN may be suspended from its membership [Question ID = 417]
1. by the Security Council [Option ID = 1666]
2. by the International Court of Justice upon the request made by the UN General Assembly [Option ID = 1665]
3. by the General Assembly upon the recommendations of the Security Council [Option ID = 1667]
4. by the UN Secretary General [Option ID = 1668]
Correct Answer :-
by the General Assembly upon the recommendations of the Security Council [Option ID = 1667]
According to the Information Technology Act, 2000, an electronic record is deemed to be received at a place where addressee
[Question ID = 439]
1. All these [Option ID = 1756]
2. has his server. [Option ID = 1753]
3. has his place of business. [Option ID = 1754]
4. retrieves the record. [Option ID = 1755]
Correct Answer :-
has his place of business. [Option ID = 1754]
According to Fuller, in order to evade failure, law must have the following characteristics:
1. Law must be publicly accessible
2. Law must be clear and unambiguous
3. Law must not command what cannot be done
4. Law must introduce frequent changes
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 481]
1. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1923]
2. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1921]
3. All are correct. [Option ID = 1924]
4. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1922]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1921]
Who among the following remarked that international law is positive morality? [Question ID = 486]
1. Lon Fuller [Option ID = 1941]
2. Jeremy Bentham [Option ID = 1942]
3. H.L.A. Hart [Option ID = 1943]
20)
21)
22)
23)
24)
25)
4. John Austin [Option ID = 1944]
Correct Answer :-
John Austin [Option ID = 1944]
Trade mark includes
[Question ID = 435]
1. Certification mark [Option ID = 1737]
2. Collective mark [Option ID = 1738]
3. All of these [Option ID = 1740]
4. Well known trade mark [Option ID = 1739]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1740]
Lakshmi and Ram married under the Special Marriage Act, 1954. Ram died in 2010 leaving behind Lakshmi, his mother, a son and a
daughter. The intestate and testamentary succession to his property would be governed by [Question ID = 454]
1. Intestate succession according to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and testamentary succession according to the Indian Succession Act, 1925. [Option ID
= 1816]
2. His ancestral property would devolve on his son and mother and separate property to his wife, son and daughter. [Option ID = 1815]
3. The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 [Option ID = 1813]
4. The Indian Succession Act, 1925 [Option ID = 1814]
Correct Answer :-
Intestate succession according to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and testamentary succession according to the Indian Succession Act, 1925. [Option
ID = 1816]
Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 is applicable in cases of cruelty by husband or relatives of the husband within
[Question ID = 476]
1. 2 years of marriage [Option ID = 1903]
2. 3 years of marriage [Option ID = 1902]
3. No time limit [Option ID = 1904]
4. 7 years of marriage [Option ID = 1901]
Correct Answer :-
No time limit [Option ID = 1904]
John Rawls? idea of basing justice on a contract has been challenged by [Question ID = 487]
1. Jeremy Bentham [Option ID = 1945]
2. Tom Bingham [Option ID = 1947]
3. Amartya Sen [Option ID = 1946]
4. Upendra Baxi [Option ID = 1948]
Correct Answer :-
Amartya Sen [Option ID = 1946]
Dinesh finds a gold ring on the road, not knowing to whom the ring belongs. Dinesh picks up the ring. Dinesh is guilty of which
offence under the Indian Penal Code, 1860? [Question ID = 471]
1. No offence [Option ID = 1884]
2. Theft [Option ID = 1882]
3. Criminal breach of trust [Option ID = 1883]
4. Dishonest Misappropriation [Option ID = 1881]
Correct Answer :-
No offence [Option ID = 1884]
First Geneva Convention of 1949 deals with
[Question ID = 424]
1. Amelioration of the Condition of the Wounded and Sick in Armed Forces in the Field. [Option ID = 1695]
2. Amelioration of the Condition of Wounded, Sick and Shipwrecked Members of Armed Forces at Sea. [Option ID = 1694]
26)
27)
28)
29)
30)
31)
3. Treatment of Prisoners of War. [Option ID = 1693]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1696]
Correct Answer :-
Amelioration of the Condition of the Wounded and Sick in Armed Forces in the Field. [Option ID = 1695]
Shamim Ara claimed her dower after the death of her husband from her husband?s property. She is a/an [Question ID = 453]
1. preferential creditor to all other creditors subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1809]
2. ordinary unsecured creditor, having no priority over other unsecured creditors, subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1812]
3. ordinary unsecured creditor but having priority over other unsecured creditors [Option ID = 1811]
4. secured creditor subject to her right of retention. [Option ID = 1810]
Correct Answer :-
ordinary unsecured creditor, having no priority over other unsecured creditors, subject to her right to retention. [Option ID = 1812]
To cede a part of the Indian Territory in favour of any foreign country, which one of the following procedural requirement must be
complied with? [Question ID = 503]
1. A law made by Parliament to the effect would be relevant and sufficient. [Option ID = 2012]
2. A law must be passed in compliance with Article 3 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2009]
3. A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed in compliance with Article 368 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2010]
4. A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed to amend the Constitution as per Article 368 and followed up by a law passed relatable to Article 3 of the
Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2011]
Correct Answer :-
A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed in compliance with Article 368 of the Constitution of India. [Option ID = 2010]
Who defined defamation as ?publication of a statement which tends to lower a person in the estimation of right thinking members of
society generally, or which tends to make them shun or avoid that person?. [Question ID = 461]
1. Winfield [Option ID = 1841]
2. Glanville Williams [Option ID = 1844]
3. Salmond [Option ID = 1842]
4. Pollock [Option ID = 1843]
Correct Answer :-
Winfield [Option ID = 1841]
Who among the following can file a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986?
[Question ID = 457]
1. Any recognised consumer association [Option ID = 1826]
2. The Central Government or any State Government [Option ID = 1827]
3. A consumer [Option ID = 1825]
4. All of these [Option ID = 1828]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1828]
In which of the following cases has the Supreme Court made it mandatory for candidates contesting elections to the legislatures and
their spouses to declare their source of income at the time of filing nominations?
[Question ID = 478]
1. People?s Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India [Option ID = 1912]
2. Jan Chaukidar v. Union of India [Option ID = 1910]
3. Association for Democratic Reforms v. Union of India [Option ID = 1911]
4. Lok Prahari v. Union of India [Option ID = 1909]
Correct Answer :-
Lok Prahari v. Union of India [Option ID = 1909]
In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that the public authority providing services or goods as per the definition
under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 must be held liable to pay adequate compensation to the consumer for harassment or mental
agony or oppression caused to him for capricious exercise of power and the money could then be recovered from the erring public
officials?
32)
33)
34)
35)
36)
[Question ID = 465]
1. State of Gujarat v. Memom Mahomed [Option ID = 1860]
2. Shyam Sunder v. State of Rajasthan [Option ID = 1858]
3. Indian Medical Association v. V.P. Shantha [Option ID = 1857]
4. Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta [Option ID = 1859]
Correct Answer :-
Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta [Option ID = 1859]
In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that ?An intermediary shall be liable for a third party information hosted by
him if upon receiving actual knowledge from the court order or on being notified by the appropriate government, he fails to expeditiously
remove that material??
[Question ID = 438]
1. My Space Inc. v. Super Cassettes [Option ID = 1750]
2. Google India Pvt. Ltd. v. M/s Visaka Industries [Option ID = 1751]
3. Shreya Singhal v. Union of India [Option ID = 1749]
4. Avinash Bajaj v. State [Option ID = 1752]
Correct Answer :-
Shreya Singhal v. Union of India [Option ID = 1749]
In which of the following case, Lord Wilberforce opined that ?It is necessary to consider three elements inherent in any claim for
nervous shock: the class of persons whose claim should be recognized, the proximity of such persons to the incident and the means
adopted by which shock is caused??
[Question ID = 464]
1. Page v. Smith [Option ID = 1855]
2. Hinz v. Berry [Option ID = 1854]
3. Bourhill v. Young [Option ID = 1856]
4. McLoughlin v. O?Brian [Option ID = 1853]
Correct Answer :-
McLoughlin v. O?Brian [Option ID = 1853]
In which of the following offences minimum five offenders are required?
1. Affray
2. Robbery
3. Dacoity
4. Rioting
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 475]
1. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1897]
2. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1898]
3. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1900]
4. 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1899]
Correct Answer :-
3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1899]
A foreign company intends to merge with an Indian Company. As per the relevant provision in the Companies (Compromises,
Arrangements and Amalgamation) Rules, 2016, it needs to obtain prior approval of [Question ID = 442]
1. Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs. [Option ID = 1766]
2. Securities and Exchange Board of India. [Option ID = 1765]
3. Reserve Bank of India. [Option ID = 1767]
4. Department of Economic Affairs. [Option ID = 1768]
Correct Answer :-
Reserve Bank of India. [Option ID = 1767]
Who coined the term ?Compensatory Discrimination?? [Question ID = 512]
1. Prof. P.N. Singh [Option ID = 2047]
2. Prof. Marc Galanter [Option ID = 2046]
3. Prof. Upendra Baxi [Option ID = 2048]
37)
38)
39)
40)
41)
42)
4. Justice Krishna Iyer [Option ID = 2045]
Correct Answer :-
Prof. Marc Galanter [Option ID = 2046]
What is the limitation period for filing a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986? [Question ID = 459]
1. One year from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1834]
2. 2 years from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1833]
3. 6 months from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1835]
4. 90 days from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1836]
Correct Answer :-
2 years from the date of cause of action [Option ID = 1833]
What is the role of section 135, Trade Marks Act, 1999? [Question ID = 434]
1. relief for recovery of property [Option ID = 1734]
2. relief for specific performance [Option ID = 1735]
3. relief for infringement [Option ID = 1733]
4. declaration of the title [Option ID = 1736]
Correct Answer :-
relief for infringement [Option ID = 1733]
What is the principle of complementarity in the context of the International Criminal Court (ICC)? [Question ID = 427]
1. It means the ICC will assist the domestic criminal court in trial and prosecution of the individual accused of committing crimes enlisted in the Rome
Statute, 1998. [Option ID = 1707]
2. It means the ICC will seek for demand production of accused to its jurisdiction. [Option ID = 1708]
3. It means the ICC will prosecute an individual only when that individual submits to its jurisdiction. [Option ID = 1706]
4. It means the ICC will only prosecute an individual if states are unwilling or unable to prosecute. [Option ID = 1705]
Correct Answer :-
It means the ICC will only prosecute an individual if states are unwilling or unable to prosecute. [Option ID = 1705]
The question regarding disqualification of the Speaker of Lok Sabha under the X Schedule of the Constitution of India is referred for
the decision to [Question ID = 479]
1. A member elected for this purpose by the Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1916]
2. Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1914]
3. Deputy Chairperson of Rajya Sabha [Option ID = 1913]
4. President of India [Option ID = 1915]
Correct Answer :-
A member elected for this purpose by the Lok Sabha [Option ID = 1916]
Dissolution of a firm can be carried by
[Question ID = 447]
1. expiry of the term for which it was constituted. [Option ID = 1786]
2. adjudication of a partner as an insolvent. [Option ID = 1787]
3. death of a partner. [Option ID = 1785]
4. All of these [Option ID = 1788]
Correct Answer :-
All of these [Option ID = 1788]
?A?, ?B? and ?C? are partners in a partnership firm named AB&C. ?A? retires from the firm without giving any public notice. Thereafter, an
existing creditor lends Rs. ten lakh to the firm on the basis of his knowledge that ?A?, ?B? and ?C? are the three partners in the firm. This
amount remains unpaid by the firm. The creditor wants to recover the unpaid loan amount from the firm. [Question ID = 445]
1. No one will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1780]
2. ?A?, ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1778]
3. Only ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1779]
4. Only ?A? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1777]
Correct Answer :-
43)
44)
45)
46)
?A?, ?B? and ?C? will be liable for the unpaid loan amount. [Option ID = 1778]
Assertion (A): Distributive justice is based on the principle that there has to be equal distribution amongst the equals.
Reason (R): Reasonable classification is the essence of equality as justice cannot be achieved by promulgating uniform law for everyone.
1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct reason for A.
2. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct reason for A.
3. Both A and R are incorrect.
4. A is incorrect but R is correct.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 488]
1. 2 [Option ID = 1950]
2. 1 [Option ID = 1949]
3. 3 [Option ID = 1951]
4. 4 [Option ID = 1952]
Correct Answer :-
1 [Option ID = 1949]
Consider the following statement about the Military Staff Committee:
1. It shall advise and assist the Security Council on all questions relating to military requirements for maintenance of international peace
and security.
2. It shall consist of Chiefs of Staff of the permanent members and two non- members nominated by the General Assembly.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 420]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1679]
2. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1680]
3. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1677]
4. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1678]
Correct Answer :-
Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1677]
Consider the following statements:
1. Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons is the first legally binding international agreement to comprehensively prohibit nuclear
weapons.
2. It was passed on July 7, 2017 by the Security Council.
3. It has not come into force.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 426]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1701]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1702]
3. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1704]
4. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1703]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1703]
Consider the following statements:
1. Moses v. Macferlan is a prominent example of theory of unjust enrichment as propounded by Lord Mansfield.
2. According to this theory, the demands of justice and equity is to prevent the unjust enrichment of one person at the cost of another.
3. Sinclair v. Brougham has propounded the theory of ?Implied-in-fact? contract to elaborate the nature of Quasi Contracts.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 491]
1. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1961]
2. Only 1 and 3 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1964]
3. Only 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1962]
47)
48)
49)
50)
51)
4. Only 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1963]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1961]
Consider the following statements:
1. A contract with a minor is void, however, a minor can after attaining majority ratify an agreement made by him during his minority.
2. Minor is not liable for the wrongful act when the cause of action in substance is ex contractu.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 496]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1983]
2. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1984]
3. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1981]
4. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1982]
Correct Answer :-
Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1982]
Consider the following statements:
1. The Bolitho test relates to medical negligence.
2. The Bolitho test was referred to in Malay Kumar Ganguly v. Sukumar Mukherjee.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 458]
1. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1830]
2. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1829]
3. 1 is correct but 2 is incorrect. [Option ID = 1831]
4. 1 is incorrect but 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1832]
Correct Answer :-
Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1830]
Savithri, a married Hindu woman died intestate leaving behind her husband and mother. Properties mentioned in Schedule ?A? was
inherited by her from her father and Schedule ?B? property was her self-acquired property. Pick out the correct legal proposition from
below: [Question ID = 456]
1. Her husband and mother will share equally in both the properties. [Option ID = 1821]
2. Her husband alone will succeed to both properties. [Option ID = 1822]
3. Her husband will inherit Schedule ?B? property and mother will inherit Schedule ?A? property. [Option ID = 1824]
4. Her mother will alone succeed to both properties. [Option ID = 1823]
Correct Answer :-
Her husband will inherit Schedule ?B? property and mother will inherit Schedule ?A? property. [Option ID = 1824]
Article 290-A of the Constitution of India refers to [Question ID = 505]
1. Annual payment to certain Devaswom Funds [Option ID = 2020]
2. Privy purse sums of Rulers [Option ID = 2017]
3. Exemption of property and income of a State from Union taxation [Option ID = 2018]
4. Exemption from taxation by States in respect of water or electricity in certain cases [Option ID = 2019]
Correct Answer :-
Annual payment to certain Devaswom Funds [Option ID = 2020]
Match the cases mentioned in List I with legal issues mentioned in List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
52)
Codes:
[Question ID = 449]
1. [Option ID = 1793]
2. [Option ID = 1794]
3. [Option ID = 1796]
4. [Option ID = 1795]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1795]
53)
[Question ID = 53444]
1. [Option ID = 93763]
2. [Option ID = 93764]
3. [Option ID = 93761]
4. [Option ID = 93762]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 93761]
54)
[Question ID = 495]
1. [Option ID = 1978]
2. [Option ID = 1977]
3. [Option ID = 1980]
4. [Option ID = 1979]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1980]
55)
[Question ID = 462]
1. [Option ID = 1848]
2. [Option ID = 1845]
3. [Option ID = 1846]
4. [Option ID = 1847]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1847]
[Question ID = 492]
56)
1. [Option ID = 1966]
2. [Option ID = 1968]
3. [Option ID = 1965]
4. [Option ID = 1967]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1968]
[Question ID = 472]
1. [Option ID = 1888]
2. [Option ID = 1887]
3. [Option ID = 1885]
57)
58)
4. [Option ID = 1886]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1888]
[Question ID = 490]
1. [Option ID = 1957]
2. [Option ID = 1958]
3. [Option ID = 1959]
4. [Option ID = 1960]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1958]
59)
Codes: [Question ID = 489]
1. [Option ID = 1956]
2. [Option ID = 1953]
3. [Option ID = 1955]
4. [Option ID = 1954]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1953]
60)
61)
62)
[Question ID = 448]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1791]
2. 1, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1792]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1789]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1790]
Correct Answer :-
2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1791]
Who among the following can remove the name of company from the register of companies on suo-motu basis in terms of section
248(1) of the Companies Act, 2013? [Question ID = 443]
1. Registrar of Companies [Option ID = 1770]
2. Securities and Exchange Board of India [Option ID = 1771]
3. National Company Law Tribunal [Option ID = 1769]
4. Ministry of Corporate Affairs [Option ID = 1772]
Correct Answer :-
Registrar of Companies [Option ID = 1770]
Who amongst the following accepts that ?Rights are important because they can be enforced?? [Question ID = 483]
1. Lloyd [Option ID = 1930]
2. John Rawls [Option ID = 1929]
3. Allen Buchanan [Option ID = 1932]
4. Thomas Hobbes [Option ID = 1931]
Correct Answer :-
Allen Buchanan [Option ID = 1932]
Kelson?s theory of law suggests that
1. Legal order is a hierarchy of norms.
2. The basic content of the law is determined by Grundnorm (the basic norm).
3. Law is a command.
4. Pure theory of law deals with law as it ought to be.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 484]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1935]
2. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1934]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1933]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1936]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1936]
63)
64)
65)
66)
67)
Consider the following propositions:
1. A Muslim woman, on her husband?s death, need not follow Iddat if her marriage is valid but not consummated.
2. A Muslim woman, on divorce, need not follow Iddat if her marriage is valid but not consummated.
3. A Muslim woman, on divorce, has to observe Iddat if her marriage is irregular but consummated.
4. A Muslim woman, whose marriage is void but consummated, has to observe Iddat till delivery if she is carrying the child in her womb in
case of her husband?s death.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 450]
1. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1797]
2. Only 4 is correct. [Option ID = 1800]
3. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1799]
4. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1798]
Correct Answer :-
2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1797]
Consider the following statements about the International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea (ITLOS):
1. The Tribunal is composed of 21 independent judges.
2. It is based in Hamburg, Germany.
3. Dr. Neeru Chadha from India has been appointed as one of the Judges of the Tribunal in 2017.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 423]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1689]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1690]
3. All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1692]
4. Only 3 is correct. [Option ID = 1691]
Correct Answer :-
All of these are correct. [Option ID = 1692]
Consider the following statements:
1. Under the UN Charter, the General Assembly may take up issues relating to maintenance of international peace and security, including
the principles governing disarmament and the regulation of armaments.
2. Under the UN Charter, the Security Council has the primary responsibility for the maintenance of international peace and security.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 418]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1669]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1670]
3. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1671]
4. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1672]
Correct Answer :-
Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1671]
Consider the following statements:
1. The motion for removal of a Supreme Court Judge submitted to the speaker of the Lok Sabha lapses with the dissolution of Lok Sabha.
2. The Inquiry Committee appointed under the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968 to ascertain the veracity of the motion for removal of the judge
can be treated as a tribunal under Article 136 of the Constitution.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 514]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 2055]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2056]
3. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 2053]
4. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2054]
Correct Answer :-
Neither 1 nor 2 is correct. [Option ID = 2054]
Consider the following statements:
1. The Statute of the International Court of Justice is an integral part of the UN Charter.
2. All members of the UN are ipso facto parties to the Statute of the International Court of Justice.
3. The Statute of the International Court of Justice is a separate treaty, and members of the UN have to separately ratify it in order to be
68)
69)
70)
71)
bound by the same.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 421]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1681]
2. None of these is correct. [Option ID = 1684]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1683]
4. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1682]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1682]
Consider the following statements:
1. All robberies are either theft or extortion.
2. If A holds Z down and fraudulently takes Z?s money without Z?s consent. This is an example of theft as robbery.
3. A obtains property from Z by saying that his child is in the hands of my gang and will be put to death unless a ransom of 50 lakh rupees
is paid. Z was however not put in fear of instant death of child. This is an example of extortion as robbery.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 474]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1896]
2. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1893]
3. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1894]
4. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1895]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1894]
Consider the following statements:
1. An agreement made without adequate consideration is void.
2. A written and registered agreement made on account of a natural love and affection between the close relatives is not valid without
adequate consideration.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 493]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1969]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1970]
3. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1971]
4. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1972]
Correct Answer :-
Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1972]
Consider the following statements:
1. There may be situations where only one party is bound to the terms of the contract.
2. In order to convert a proposal into a promise, the acceptance must be absolute and may be unqualified.
3. Death or insanity of the proposer is considered as good ground for revocation of proposal in all circumstances.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 494]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1973]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1976]
3. 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1974]
4. 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1975]
Correct Answer :-
Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1973]
Consider the following statements:
1. The minor is estopped from setting the defence of minority when by misrepresenting his age minor himself has induced the other party
to enter into agreement with him.
2. Section 11 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 declares that only minors and persons of unsound mind are incompetent to make contract.
Codes: [Question ID = 497]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1985]
2. Only 2 is correct. [Option ID = 1986]
72)
73)
74)
75)
76)
3. Both 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1987]
4. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1988]
Correct Answer :-
Both 1 and 2 are incorrect. [Option ID = 1988]
?A? a resident of Mumbai has a website ?www.caravan.co.in? launched in 2015. ?A? has a business of apparels in Mumbai having a trade
mark ?CARAVAN?. The website is accessible from Delhi. ?B? a resident of Hyderabad starts a website ?www.caravaan.co.in? in 2017 having
the same business. The website of ?B? consists of a catalogue, a toll free number, and an email address. ?A? wants to file a suit for passing
off of trade mark in Delhi.
1. ?A? can file a suit in Delhi on the basis of accessibility of website of ?B?.
2. ?A? cannot file a suit merely on the accessibility of website.
3. ?A? cannot file a suit in Delhi as the website of ?B? is not interactive.
4. ?A? can file a suit if ?B? specifically targets the forum state resulting in harm to ?A? in forum State.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 437]
1. Only 1 is correct. [Option ID = 1745]
2. Only 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1748]
3. Only 4 is correct. [Option ID = 1747]
4. 2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1746]
Correct Answer :-
2, 3 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1746]
?A? has lent money to ?P&Q? firm engaged in the cement business and has agreed to take in addition to, or in place of his interest, a
portion of the profits of the firm business. It can be said that
[Question ID = 444]
1. ?A? is a partner as well as a creditor of the ?P&Q? firm. [Option ID = 1774]
2. ?A? is a partner in ?P&Q? firm. [Option ID = 1773]
3. ?A? is not a partner in the ?P&Q? firm. [Option ID = 1775]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1776]
Correct Answer :-
?A? is not a partner in the ?P&Q? firm. [Option ID = 1775]
Minor can be admitted to the benefits of the firm
[Question ID = 446]
1. with the consent of all the existing creditors of the firm. [Option ID = 1782]
2. with the consent of all the partners. [Option ID = 1781]
3. with the consent of the guardian of such minor. [Option ID = 1783]
4. All of these [Option ID = 1784]
Correct Answer :-
with the consent of all the partners. [Option ID = 1781]
?A? instigates ?B? to murder ?C?. ?B? refuses to do so. Which offence under the Indian Penal Code, 1860 has been committed by ?A??
[Question ID = 468]
1. No offence [Option ID = 1872]
2. Abetting to commit murder [Option ID = 1869]
3. Conspiracy to commit murder [Option ID = 1870]
4. Attempt to murder [Option ID = 1871]
Correct Answer :-
Abetting to commit murder [Option ID = 1869]
Which of the following goals are mentioned in the preamble of the UN Charter?
1. To save succeeding generations from the scourge of war.
2. To reaffirm faith in fundamental human rights, in the dignity and worth of the human person, in the equal rights of men and women
and of nations large and small.
77)
78)
79)
80)
81)
82)
3. To promote social progress and better standards of life in larger freedom.
4. To promote democratic order in conflict-ridden societies.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 416]
1. Only 1 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1662]
2. Only 1 and 2 are correct. [Option ID = 1661]
3. Only 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1663]
4. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1664]
Correct Answer :-
1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1664]
Which of the following is an example of intangible property? [Question ID = 433]
1. Sale Deed of land [Option ID = 1729]
2. Pass book of a bank account [Option ID = 1730]
3. An autobiographical work [Option ID = 1731]
4. Indemnity Bond [Option ID = 1732]
Correct Answer :-
An autobiographical work [Option ID = 1731]
Which of the following are jural correlatives in Hohfeld?s scheme of analysis of rights?
1. Right ?Liberty
2. Power-Liability
3. Liberty-No-Right
4. Immunity-Disability
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 480]
1. 1, 2, 3 and 4 [Option ID = 1920]
2. 1, 2 and 3 [Option ID = 1917]
3. 2, 3 and 4 [Option ID = 1918]
4. 1 and 2 [Option ID = 1919]
Correct Answer :-
2, 3 and 4 [Option ID = 1918]
Which of the following is not a body associated with the European Union (EU)? [Question ID = 430]
1. Council of the European Union [Option ID = 1719]
2. Council of Europe [Option ID = 1717]
3. European Commission [Option ID = 1720]
4. European Council [Option ID = 1718]
Correct Answer :-
Council of Europe [Option ID = 1717]
Which of the following statement is incorrect as per the Constitution of India? [Question ID = 507]
1. The President of India exercises three functions, namely, summoning, prorogation and dissolution in relation to the Houses of Parliament. [Option ID =
2026]
2. The President of India may address either House of Parliament or both Houses assembled together. [Option ID = 2027]
3. Allocation of seats in the House of the People to the States shall be readjusted upon the completion of each census. [Option ID = 2025]
4. The Speaker summons the House of People. [Option ID = 2028]
Correct Answer :-
Which of the following statement is incorrect about the Attorney General for India? [Question ID = 511]
1. Attorney General is appointed by the President. [Option ID = 2041]
2. Attorney General shall have right of audience in all courts in India in the performance of his duties. [Option ID = 2042]
3. Attorney General shall be entitled to vote when he takes part in Parliamentary proceedings. [Option ID = 2044]
4. Attorney General for India shall have the right to take part in the proceedings of Parliament. [Option ID = 2043]
Correct Answer :-
Attorney General shall be entitled to vote when he takes part in Parliamentary proceedings. [Option ID = 2044]
83)
84)
85)
86)
87)
Which of the following statements is incorrect about the National Capital Territory of Delhi as per the Constitution of India? [Question ID
= 510]
1. In the case of difference of opinion between the Lieutenant Governor and his Ministers on any matter, the Lieutenant Governor shall refer it to the
President for decision. [Option ID = 2039]
2. If any provision of law made by the Legislative Assembly with respect to any matter is repugnant to any provision of a law made by Parliament with
respect to that matter, the law made by Parliament shall prevail. [Option ID = 2040]
3. The Chief Minister and other Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the Lieutenant Governor. [Option ID = 2037]
4. The Union Territory of Delhi shall be called the National Capital Territory of Delhi. [Option ID = 2038]
Correct Answer :-
The Chief Minister and other Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the Lieutenant Governor. [Option ID = 2037]
Which of the following statement about the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is incorrect? [Question ID = 506]
1. Second Schedule of the Constitution specifies the salary and service conditions of CAG. [Option ID = 2023]
2. CAG is appointed by the President of India. [Option ID = 2021]
3. CAG shall be removed in the manner like that of Judge of the Supreme Court. [Option ID = 2022]
4. CAG submits the reports relating to the accounts of the State to the President of India. [Option ID = 2024]
Correct Answer :-
CAG submits the reports relating to the accounts of the State to the President of India. [Option ID = 2024]
Which of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India? [Question ID = 509]
1. There shall be a Special Officer for linguistic minorities to be appointed by the President. [Option ID = 2035]
2. All proceedings in the Supreme Court and every High Court shall be in the English language. [Option ID = 2034]
3. The official language of the Union shall be Hindi in Devanagari script. [Option ID = 2033]
4. Every person shall submit the representation for redress of grievances to the Union in the language of English or Hindi. [Option ID = 2036]
Correct Answer :-
Which of the following presumptions/reasons best justify the validity of laws on hate speech?
1. Equality means uniformity.
2. Equality and liberty may sometimes become contradictory values.
3. Law should always prioritize equality over liberty.
4. Equality and liberty must be harmoniously construed.
Choose the correct option from below: [Question ID = 482]
1. 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1927]
2. 1, 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1926]
3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1925]
4. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1928]
Correct Answer :-
2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1927]
Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India provides for the constitution of Panchayats? [Question ID = 504]
1. Article 243-F [Option ID = 2014]
2. Article 243-H [Option ID = 2016]
3. Article 243-B [Option ID = 2015]
4. Article 243-E [Option ID = 2013]
Correct Answer :-
Article 243-B [Option ID = 2015]
Which of the following is true about the test of directness to determine remoteness of damage? [Question ID = 460]
1. If some harm is foreseeable, the defendant is liable for all direct consequences of his act, even if the actual damage is of a different kind than what was
foreseeable. [Option ID = 1838]
2. If some harm is foreseeable, the defendant is liable for all direct consequences of his act, only if the actual damage is of the same kind as was
foreseeable. [Option ID = 1839]
3. The defendant is liable for all direct consequences of his act. [Option ID = 1837]
4. The defendant is liable only for those consequences that are foreseeable by a reasonable man. [Option ID = 1840]
Correct Answer :-
If some harm is foreseeable, the defendant is liable for all direct consequences of his act, even if the actual damage is of a different kind than what
was foreseeable. [Option ID = 1838]
88)
89)
Match the following correctly:
[Question ID = 429]
1. [Option ID = 1714]
2. [Option ID = 1716]
3. [Option ID = 1715]
4. [Option ID = 1713]
Correct Answer :-
[Option ID = 1716]
Assertion (A): A Governor is always supposed to act on the advice of the Council of Ministers in matter of appointment of the Chief
Minister.
Reason (R): Like Article 74(1), Article 163(1) of the Constitution of India make it mandatory for the Governor to act in accordance with
the advice tendered by the Council of Ministers.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 513]
1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct reason for (A). [Option ID = 2049]
90)
91)
2. Both (A) and (R) are incorrect. [Option ID = 2052]
3. (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct. [Option ID = 2051]
4. (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect. [Option ID = 2050]
Correct Answer :-
Both (A) and (R) are incorrect. [Option ID = 2052]
X Ltd. is an Indian company, other than a company referred to in sub rule (2) of Rule 2 of the Companies (Restriction on number of
layers) Rules, 2017 which relates to the ?Restriction on number of layers for certain classes of holding companies?. X Ltd. has a wholly
owned Indian subsidiary Y Ltd. Y Ltd. has another Indian subsidiary Z Ltd. and it owns 60% of its total share capital. Y Ltd. now seeks to
form another Indian subsidiary K Ltd. Which of the following is correct? [Question ID = 441]
1. Y Ltd. is permitted to have K Ltd. only as its wholly owned subsidiary and not otherwise. [Option ID = 1763]
2. Y Ltd. is permitted to have K Ltd. as its subsidiary. [Option ID = 1761]
3. Y Ltd. is not permitted to have K Ltd. as its subsidiary as this investment will be beyond the maximum permissible layers. [Option ID = 1762]
4. Y Ltd. is not permitted to have K Ltd. as its subsidiary as X Ltd. is not covered by the abovementioned sub rule (2). [Option ID = 1764]
Correct Answer :-
Y Ltd. is permitted to have K Ltd. as its subsidiary. [Option ID = 1761]
Match List I and List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
[Question ID = 455]
1. [Option ID = 1819]
2. [Option ID = 1820]
3. [Option ID = 1818]
4. [Option ID = 1817]
Correct Answer :-
92)
93)
94)
95)
96)
[Option ID = 1819]
Santosh, a jailor has charge of a prisoner Virender. Santosh with an intention to cause death, illegally omits to supply Virender with
food. However, Virender does not die, though his strength is considerably reduced. Santosh is dismissed from the office and replaced by
Geeta. Geeta, without collusion with Santosh, illegally omits to supply Virender with food, knowing fully well that she is likely thereby to
cause Virender?s death. Virender dies of starvation.
Choose the correct option: [Question ID = 473]
1. Both Geeta and Santosh are guilty of murder. [Option ID = 1889]
2. Only Geeta is guilty of murder and Santosh is not guilty of any offence. [Option ID = 1890]
3. Both Santosh and Geeta are guilty of attempt to murder. [Option ID = 1892]
4. Geeta is guilty of murder and Santosh is guilty of attempt to murder. [Option ID = 1891]
Correct Answer :-
Geeta is guilty of murder and Santosh is guilty of attempt to murder. [Option ID = 1891]
The egg shell skull principle was applied in:
[Question ID = 466]
1. Page v. Smith [Option ID = 1862]
2. Watson v. Buckley and Osborne, Garrett and Co. Ltd [Option ID = 1864]
3. Smith v. Leech Brain and Company [Option ID = 1861]
4. Dulieu v. White [Option ID = 1863]
Correct Answer :-
Smith v. Leech Brain and Company [Option ID = 1861]
The term of copyright in cinematograph films shall subsist
[Question ID = 432]
1. twenty five years from the beginning of the calendar year next following the year in which the film is published. [Option ID = 1727]
2. sixty years from the beginning of the calendar year next following the year in which the author dies. [Option ID = 1726]
3. sixty years from the beginning of the calendar year next following the year in which the film is published. [Option ID = 1725]
4. None of these [Option ID = 1728]
Correct Answer :-
sixty years from the beginning of the calendar year next following the year in which the film is published. [Option ID = 1725]
The word ?reasonable? was added in clause 2 of Article 19 of the Constitution of India through:
[Question ID = 515]
1. Twenty-fourth Constitutional Amendment [Option ID = 2059]
2. First Constitutional Amendment [Option ID = 2057]
3. Sixteenth Constitutional Amendment [Option ID = 2058]
4. None of these [Option ID = 2060]
Correct Answer :-
First Constitutional Amendment [Option ID = 2057]
The maxim de minimis non curatlex incorporated in which section of the Indian Penal Code, 1860?
[Question ID = 470]
1. Section 95 [Option ID = 1877]
2. Section 84 [Option ID = 1878]
3. Section 94 [Option ID = 1879]
4. Section 86 [Option ID = 1880]
Correct Answer :-
Section 95 [Option ID = 1877]
97)
98)
99)
100)
The Haryana Panchayat Raj (Amendment) Act, 2015 included some categories which rendered persons falling in any of them,
incapable of contesting Panchayat elections in the State of Haryana. This Amendment was declared constitutionally valid by the Supreme
Court in Rajbala v. State of Haryana (2015). Who amongst the following are not included in those categories?
[Question ID = 502]
1. All contestants must be matriculate. [Option ID = 2006]
2. Persons against whom charges are framed in cases punishable not less than 10 years. [Option ID = 2005]
3. Persons who have arrears of electricity bill. [Option ID = 2008]
4. Persons who do not have functional toilet at their home. [Option ID = 2007]
Correct Answer :-
All contestants must be matriculate. [Option ID = 2006]
The Constitutional validity of Section 497 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 has been challenged in which of the following cases:
[Question ID = 469]
1. Shakti Vahini v. Union of India [Option ID = 1875]
2. Binda Prasad v. State of M.P. [Option ID = 1874]
3. Joseph Shine v. Union of India [Option ID = 1873]
4. Dr. Subhash Kashinath Mahajan v. State of Maharashtra [Option ID = 1876]
Correct Answer :-
Joseph Shine v. Union of India [Option ID = 1873]
The matrimonial guilt of desertion under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
1. commences when the fact of separation and the animus deserendi co-exist.
2. is a valid ground for divorce if the period of desertion is one year.
3. requires withdrawal from state of things as well as from place of residence.
4. is not complete but inchoate, until a suit is instituted.
Choose the correct option from below:
[Question ID = 451]
1. 2 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1803]
2. 2 and 3 are correct. [Option ID = 1801]
3. Only 4 is correct. [Option ID = 1804]
4. 1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1802]
Correct Answer :-
1 and 4 are correct. [Option ID = 1802]
The Information Technology Act, 2000 applies to which of the following transactions/documents?
[Question ID = 440]
1. Trust [Option ID = 1759]
2. Promissory note [Option ID = 1758]
3. Electronic cheque [Option ID = 1757]
4. All these [Option ID = 1760]
Correct Answer :-
Electronic cheque [Option ID = 1757]
FirstRanker.com - FirstRanker's Choice
This post was last modified on 29 January 2020