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Download MBBS 2nd Year 2024 Feb 526062 Pharmacology Paper II Mcqs MCQs Question Paper

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This post was last modified on 30 November 2024

MBBS 2008-2025 Question Papers (1st, 2nd, 3rd And 4th year) - Last 16 years papers


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THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY

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[MBBS 0224] FEBRUARY 2024 Sub. Code :6062

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020)

SECOND PROFESSIONAL YEAR - (CBME)

PAPER II - PHARMACOLOGY

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O.P. Code: 526062

Time: 30 Minutes Maximum : 20 Marks

Answer All Questions

Choose one correct answer in the box provided in the Answer Script.

No overwriting should be done. Choice should be given in Capital Letters.

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II1. Multiple Choice Questions: 20x1=20)

  1. Somatostatin inhibits the release of:
    A) Growth hormone B) Insulin C) Thyrotropin D) All of the above
  2. Gynaecomastia can be treated with:
    A) Chlorpromazine B) Cimetidine C) Bromocriptine D) Metoclopramide
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  4. Prolonged testosterone therapy can cause:
    A) Hypertrophy of seminiferous tubules of testes
    B) Hypertrophy of interstitial cells of testes
    C) Atrophy of interstitial cells of testes
    D) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ are correct
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  6. Carbimazole differs from propylthiouracil in that:
    A) It is dose to dose less potent
    B) It has a shorter plasma half life
    C) It does not produce an active metabolite
    D) It does not inhibit peripheral conversion of thyroxine to Triiodothyronine
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  8. The following androgen does not produce cholestatic jaundice as an adverse effect:
    A) Testosterone propionate B) Methyl testosterone
    C) Fluoxymesterone D) Stanozolol
  9. The primary mechanism of action of the combined estrogen-progestin oral contraceptive
    pill is:

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    A) Production of cervical mucus hostile to sperm penetration
    B) Suppression of FSH and LH release
    C) Making endometrium unsuitable for implantation
    D) Enhancing uterine contractions to dislodge the fertilized ovum
  10. Choose the antimicrobial which acts by interfering with DNA function in the bacteria:

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    A) Chloramphenicol B) Ciprofloxacin C) Streptomycin D) Vancomycin
  11. Which antibiotic is primarily bacteriostatic but becomes bactericidal at higher concentrations:
    A) Erythromycin B) Tetracycline C) Chloramphenicol D) Ampicillin
  12. Which antimicrobial should be avoided in patients of liver disease:
    A) Tetracycline B) Cotrimoxazole C) Cephalexin D) Ethambutol
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  14. The following antibiotics exerts a long postantibiotic effect:
    A) Fluoroquinolones B) Beta lactams
    C) Aminoglycosides D) All of the above
  15. Methicillin resistant staphylococci do not respond to Beta lactam antibiotics because:
    A) They produce a -lactamase which destroys methicillin and related drugs

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    B) They elaborate an amidase which destroys methicillin and related drugs
    C) They have acquired penicillin binding protein which has low affinity for f-lactam antibiotics
    D) They are less permeable to B-lactam antibiotics
  16. The most frequent side effect of oral ampicillin is:
    A) Nausea and vomiting B) Diarrhoea C) Constipation D) Urticaria
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  18. Immunosuppressant most commonly associated with nephrotoxicity
    A) Mycophenolate Mofetil B) Sirolimus C) Tacrolimus D) Prednisone
  19. Which anti-amoebic drug is associated with the potential side effects of peripheral
    neuropathy and bone marrow suppression?
    A) Metronidazole B) Diloxanide furoate C) Paromomycin D) Tinidazole
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  21. Whitfield ointment is used in
    A) Scabies B) Pediculosis C) Impetigo D) Fungal infections
  22. Albendazole is commonly used for the treatment of infections caused by
    A) Ascaris lumbricoides B) Schistosoma haematobium
    C) Taenia solium D) Strongyloides Stercoralis
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  24. What is the main advantage of using primaquine compared to other antimalarial drugs
    A) It is more effective againstresistant strains of parasites
    B) It has fewer side effects
    C) It can eradicate the dormant liver stages of Plasmodium parasites, preventing relapses
    D) It can be administered as a single dose
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  26. Voriconazole is often used as a first-line treatment for which type of fungal infection
    A) Candidiasis B) Aspergillosis C) Cryptococcosis D) Dermatophytosis
  27. Which antiviral drug interferes with the release of new virions from infected cells and is
    used for the treatment of influenza.
    A) Amantadine B) Oseltamivir C) Acyclovir D) Remdesvir
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  29. Which drug out of the following is a nutraceutical?
    A) Polyphenols B) Penicillamine
    C) Paromomycin D) Para-Amino Salicylic acid (PAS)

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