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Download MBBS 2nd Year 2024 Feb 526063 Pathology Paper I Mcqs MCQs Question Paper

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This post was last modified on 30 November 2024

MBBS 2008-2025 Question Papers (1st, 2nd, 3rd And 4th year) - Last 16 years papers


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THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY

[MBBS 0224] FEBRUARY 2024 Sub. Code : 6063

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M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020)

SECOND PROFESSIONAL YEAR - (CBME)

PAPER I - PATHOLOGY

O.P. Code: 526063

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Time: 30 Minutes Maximum : 20 Marks

Answer All Questions

Choose one correct answer in the box provided in the Answer Script.

No overwriting should be done. Choice should be given in Capital Letters.

II1. Multiple Choice Questions: (20x1=20)

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  1. Pap smear used for screening of Carcinoma of cervix is

    A) Fine needle aspiration cytology B) Fluid cytology

    C) Exfoliative cytology D) Immunocytochemistry

  2. The technique which detects multiple cellular antigens on an individual cell simultaneously

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    A) Immunohistochemistry B) Immunocytochemistry

    C) Flow cytometry D) Frozen section

  3. CASPASES involved in execution pathway

    A) CASPASE 8 B) CASPASE 9 C) CASPASE S D) CASPASE 6

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  4. Chronic granulomatous inflammation is seen in

    A) Sarcoidosis B) Diptheria C) Typhoid D) Atherosclerosis

  5. The cell involved in allergies and parasitic infections

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    A) Lymphocytes B) Monocytes C) Eosinophils D) Plasma cells

  6. The primary function of the following gene is to promote Epithelial Mesenchymal Transition (EMT)

    A) P53 B) TWIST C) APC D) CEA

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  8. Colour of group sera ‘B’

    A) Blue B) Yellow C) Red D) Colourless

  9. Mantle cell lymphoma is commonly associated with the following translocation

    A) t(11:14) B) t(14:18) C) t(9:22) D) t(8:14)

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  10. Red cell distribution width (RDW) is used for estimation of

    A) Poikilocytosis B) Anisocytosis C) Hypochromasia D) Macrocytosis

  11. If the patient is on parenteral heparin therapy the following test is used to monitor the administration

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    A) Whole blood coagulation time B) Prothrombin time

    C) Thrombin time D) Activated Partial Thromboplastin time

  12. Eosinophils are activated by

    A) IL-1 B) IL-4 C) IL-5 D) IL-6

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  13. D-Dimer is the most sensitive diagnostic test for

    A) Pulmonary embolism B) Acute pulmonary Oedema

    C) Cardiac tamponade D) Acute myocardial infarction

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  15. Trisomy 13 is identified as

    A) Edward syndrome B) Patau syndrome

    C) Down syndrome D) Klinfelter syndrome

  16. In Marfan syndrome the defect is in

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    A) Fibrillin I B) Fibrillin II C) Collagen D) Elastin

  17. Harmartoma is

    A) Proliferation of cells in foreign site B) Proliferation of native cells in tissue

    C) Malignant conditions D) Acquired conditions

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  18. Sure sign of malignancy is

    A) Metastasis B) Hyperplasia C) Metaplasia D) Hypertrophy

  19. Krukenberg tumour is associated with which malignancy

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    A) Stomach B) Liver C) Pancreas D) Kidney

  20. Acute graft rejection occurs within

    A) 3 minute B) 3 hours C) 3 days D) 3 months

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  22. LE cell phenomenon is seen in

    A) Lymphocyte B) Monocyte C) Neutrophils D) Eosinophils

  23. Anaemia in humans can be caused by which of the following worms

    A) Round worm B) Hook worm C) Tape worm D) Pork worm

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