Download MBBS WBUHS Microbiology Paper I July August 2024 2nd Year Question Paper

The West Bengal University of Health Sciences

MBBS 2nd Professional Examination (New Regulation) July-August 2024

Subject: Microbiology

Paper: I

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Attempt all questions. The figures in the margin indicate full marks.

Full Marks: 100 Time: 3 hours

1. a) An indoor burn patient complaints with bluish green discharge from wound, 14 days after admission in hospital.
   1. What type of infection it is?
   2. Define this type of infection and explain.
   3. What is the most probable organism in this case?

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   4. How will you proceed for lab diagnosis?
   5. Describe the precautions to be taken to prevent such type of infection.

   1+3+1+5+5

   b) A male patient from Bihar attended OPD with fever, anemia and hugely enlarged spleen for last 6 months. He is having blackish discoloration of skin.
   1. What is the most probable diagnosis and which one is the vector?
   2. Which protozoa is responsible for this?

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   3. Describe the immunopathogenesis of the disease.
   4. How will you diagnose the case in the laboratory?

   2+2+6+5

2. a) Describe the immune response unfolds/evolves when a microbial pathogen enters into the body of an immunocompetent host.

   10

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   b) Define biomedical waste (BMW). Give an account on the categorization of them for disposal. Discuss the process of disposal of BMW, generated after collection.

   2+3+5

   c) Classify bacteria on the basis of flagella with examples. Describe the structure of a flagellum. Discuss the common methods used to demonstrate bacterial flagella.

   4+3+3

3. Write short notes on following:

   2 x 5

   1. Management of needle stick injury of a phlebotomist.

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   2. How to communicate a patient diagnosed with chronic Hepatitis C infection regarding probable long-term complications?
4. Explain the following statements:
   1. Sterilization of MacConkey media needs some modification.
   2. Capsule contributes to bacterial virulence.
   3. Enterococci can be vancomycin resistant.

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   4. Superantigen can cause more T cell activation than any antigen.
   5. Free streaming is important step in autoclaving.

   5 x 4

5. Choose the correct option for each of the following:
   1. The smallest virus in size:
      1. Picornavirus

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      2. Parvovirus
      3. Adenovirus
      4. Hepatitis D virus
   2. Generation time for Treponema pallidum is:
      1. 20 min

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      2. 30 min
      3. 33 hrs
      4. 7 days
   3. The percentage of Glutaraldehyde for endoscopic decontamination is:
      1. 1%

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      2. 2%
      3. 1.5%
      4. 4%
   4. Rota virus has got genome with:
      1. 5 segment

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      2. 7 segment
      3. 11 segment
      4. 9 segment
   5. All are vector borne diseases except:
      1. African sleeping sickness

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      2. Dengue fever
      3. Enteric fever
      4. Zika viral disease
   6. Which of the following is cell wall deficient bacterium?
      1. Staphylococcus

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      2. Streptococcus
      3. Mycoplasma
      4. Chlamydia
   7. Definitive host of Echinococcus granulosus:
      1. Dog

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      2. Sheep
      3. Cat
      4. Man
   8. L form of spheroplasts are sensitive to:
      1. Bacitracin

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      2. Cefoperazone
      3. Vancomycin
      4. Tetracycline
   9. Essentially the pathogenesis of Rheumatic fever involves
      1. Type II Hypersensitivity

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      2. Serum sickness
      3. Arthus phenomenon
      4. Exotoxin mediated damage to endocardium
   10. In ELISA technique, the antibodies are labeled by:
       1. Acridine orange

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       2. Neutral Red
       3. Alkaline phosphatase
       4. Bromothymol blue

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