Download MBBS WBUHS Pathology Paper II July August 2024 2nd Year Question Paper

The West Bengal University of Health Sciences

MBBS 2nd Professional Examination (New Regulation) July-August 2024

Subject: Pathology

Paper: II

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Full Marks: 100

Time: 3 hours

Attempt all questions. The figures in the margin indicate full marks.

1. a) A 14 year old female presents with a painful tender swelling in the right thigh accompanied with fever, leucocytosis and high ESR. Plain X-ray shows osteolytic lesion with onion skin appearance.
   1. What is your provisional diagnosis?
   2. Describe the gross and microscopic features of this lesion. 2+5+5+3

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   3. Enumerate the molecular and genetic abnormalities associated with this disease entity.
   b) A 34 year old male presented with fatigue, loss of appetite, jaundice and mild tender hepatomegaly. 2+7+6
   1. What is the provisional diagnosis?
   2. What is the pathogenesis and fate of this condition?
   3. How will you diagnose the case?

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2. Answer the following: 3x10
   1. Which part of the bone is the commonest site of osteomyelitis in children and why? What is sequestrum? Describe the pathogenesis of formation of involucrum. 3+2+5
   2. Enumerate the risk factors of carcinoma cervix. Describe the role of viruses in the pathogenesis. Which test is used in screening of the disease? What is carcinoma in situ? 3+5+1+1
   3. Discuss the role of FNAC in breast carcinoma. 10
3. Write short notes on: 2x5
   1. Hashimoto's thyroiditis.

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   2. Nodular hyperplasia of prostate.
4. Explain the following statements: 5x4
   1. Cavitary pulmonary tuberculosis may give rise to hemoptysis.
   2. Carcinoma colon is a genetic disorder.
   3. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis does not denote a specific etiologic form of glomerulonephritis.

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   4. In spite of increased pus cells in urine, routine culture may be negative.
   5. Pathogenesis of development of ascites in cirrhosis is complex.
5. Choose the correct option for each of the following: 10×1
   1. Psammoma bodies can be seen in:
      1. Astrocytoma.
      2. Medulloblastoma.

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      3. Meningioma.
      4. Ependymoma.
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   2. Which of the following is true of giant cell tumour?
      1. Osteoclasts are neoplastic.
      2. Neoplastic cells express RANKL.

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      3. Typically arise in metaphysis.
      4. Produces sun-burst appearance in X- ray.
   3. All are precancerous lesion of the skin except:
      1. Actinic keratosis.
      2. Seborrheic keratosis.

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      3. Bowen's disease.
      4. Keratoacanthoma.
   4. All are true for familial adenomatous polyposis except:
      1. Presence of minimum of 500 polyps are required for diagnosis.
      2. APC gene mutation is on chromosome 5q21.

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      3. All untreated FAP patients develop colon carcinoma.
      4. Gardner syndrome and Turcot syndrome share the same genetic defect as FAP.
   5. Which is true for ulcerative colitis?
      1. Skip lesion.
      2. Creeping of fat.

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      3. Presence of granuloma.
      4. Sparing of anal canal.
   6. Germ cell tumor may occur in all the sites except:
      1. Mediastinum.
      2. Ovary.

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      3. Salivary gland.
      4. Brain.
   7. The highest malignant potential is seen in:
      1. Crohn's disease.
      2. Ulcerative colitis.

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      3. Infantile polyp.
      4. Familial polyposis.
   8. Azzopardi effect is seen in:
      1. Renal cell carcinoma.
      2. Small cell carcinoma of lung.

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      3. Seminoma.
      4. Squamous cell carcinoma of lung.
   9. Which statement is false about HPV infection and carcinoma cervix?
      1. HPV infection always leads to CA cervix
      2. High and low risk types are there.

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      3. Superficial squamous epithelial cells are resistant to infection.
      4. Vaccination can prevent the cancer when given at early age.
   10. Gene associated with pancreatic carcinoma is:
       1. RB gene.
       2. KRAS mutation.

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       3. BCL-6.
       4. Loss of E cadherin.

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