Download RGUHS MBBS 2nd Year 2022 Feb 1026 Pathology Paper I Rs 4 Previous Question Paper

Download RGUHS (Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences) MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery) 2nd Year (Second Year) 2022 Feb 1026 Pathology Paper I Rs 4 Previous Question Paper

Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase ? II (CBME) Degree Examination - 23-Feb-2022

Time: Three Hours




Max. Marks: 100 Marks
PATHOLOGY ? PAPER I (RS-4)
Q.P. CODE: 1026
(QP contains two pages)
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
LONG ESSAYS
2 x 10 = 20 Marks

1.
20 year female was admitted with high grade fever and hypotension. Blood culture showed
gram negative bacteria. She died due to multi-organ failure.
a) What is the diagnosis?
b) Discuss the etiopathogenesis of the condition
c) Describe the morphological changes of lung and kidney in this disease
2.
45 year old female presents to OPD with easy fatigability and breathlessness from two
months. She complains of menorrhagia since 6 months. On examination she has pallor
and koilonychia
a) What is your diagnosis?
b) Describe the pheripheral smear and bone marrow findings in this case
c) Discuss RBC indices with reference to this case
SHORT ESSAYS
8 x 5 = 40 Marks
3. 1. Microbial carcinogenesis.
4. 2. Mechanism of metastasis.
5. 3. Classification of amyloidosis.
6.
Pathological calcification.
7.
Pigments in health and disease
8.
Microscopy of Tuberculoid and Lepromatous leprosy.
9.
Multiple myeloma
10. Describe the wound healing by primary intention.
SHORT ANSWERS
10 x 3 = 30 Marks
11. Discuss any two tests for proteinuria.
12. Blood transfusion transmitted diseases.
13. Opportunistic infections in AIDS
14. Bone marrow findings in megaloblastic anemia
15. Type I hypersensitivity reaction.
16. Advantages of fine needle aspiration cytology.
17. Write about any three red blood indices
18. Draw a labelled diagram of an example of acute inflammation.
19. Fate of thrombus
20. Difference between transudate and exudate.
Page 1 of 2

---

Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
Multiple Choice Questions
10 x 1 = 10 Marks
21 i) Venous emboli most often lodge in
A. Intestine
B. Lungs
C. Kidney
D. Heart
21 ii
) Hepar Lobatum is seen in
A. Primary syphilis
B. Tertiary syphilis
C. Secondary syphilis
D. Congenital
syphilis
21 ii
i) Mucormycosis is caused by
A. Fungus
B. Anaerobic bacteria
C. Gram negative bacteria
D. Acid
fast bacteria
21 iv)
Plasmodium Falciparum causes
A. Cerebral malaria
B. Babesiosis
C. Leshmaniasis
D. De
ngue fever
21 v)
Basement membrane consists of
A. Type I collagen
B. Type II collagen
C. Type III collagen
D. Type IV collagen
22 i) Basophilia is most likely to be seen in
A. Bronchial asthma
B. CML
C. Angioneurotic edema
D. Corticosteroid
therapy
22
ii) Rate of sickling in sickle cell anemia is increased in all EXCEPT
A. Higher concentration of HbS
B. A decrease in intracellular pH
C. Higher concentration of HbF
D. Hi
gher deoxygenation
22 iii) Denatured globin chains are known as
A. Heinz bodes
B. Gamma gandy bodies
C. Pappenheimer bodies
D. Russel
bodies
22 iv)
Atrophic glossitis is seen in
A. Sideroblastic anemia
B. Megaloblastic anemia
C. Sickle cell anemia
D. Thalasse
mia
22 v)
Phildelphia chromosome is
A. T (8:14)
B. T (22:9)
C. T (9:22)
D.
T (14:8)
******
Page 2 of 2

---