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Download RGUHS MBBS 2nd Year 2022 Feb 1026 Pathology Paper I Rs 4 Previous Question Paper

Download RGUHS (Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences) MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery) 2nd Year (Second Year) 2022 Feb 1026 Pathology Paper I Rs 4 Previous Question Paper

This post was last modified on 02 December 2024

RGUHS MBBS 2nd Year Last 15 Years 2010-2025 Previous Question Papers (Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences)


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Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase - II (CBME) Degree Examination - 23- Feb 2022

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Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks
PATHOLOGY - PAPER I (RS-4)
Q.P. CODE: 1026
(QP contains two pages)
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked

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Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks

  1. 20 year female was admitted with high grade fever and hypotension. Blood culture showed gram negative bacteria. She died due to multi-organ failure.
    1. What is the diagnosis?
    2. Discuss the etiopathogenesis of the condition
    3. Describe the morphological changes of lung and kidney in this disease
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  2. 45 year old female presents to OPD with easy fatigability and breathlessness from two months. She complains of menorrhagia since 6 months. On examination she has pallor and koilonychia
    1. What is your diagnosis?
    2. Describe the pheripheral smear and bone marrow findings in this case
    3. Discuss RBC indices with reference to this case
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SHORT ESSAYS 8 x 5 = 40 Marks

  1. Microbial carcinogenesis.
  2. Mechanism of metastasis.
  3. Classification of amyloidosis.
  4. Pathological calcification.
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  6. Pigments in health and disease
  7. Microscopy of Tuberculoid and Lepromatous leprosy.
  8. Multiple myeloma
  9. Describe the wound healing by primary intention.

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

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  1. Discuss any two tests for proteinuria.
  2. Blood transfusion transmitted diseases.
  3. Opportunistic infections in AIDS
  4. Bone marrow findings in megaloblastic anemia
  5. Type I hypersensitivity reaction.
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  7. Advantages of fine needle aspiration cytology.
  8. Write about any three red blood indices
  9. Draw a labelled diagram of an example of acute inflammation.
  10. Fate of thrombus
  11. Difference between transudate and exudate.
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Multiple Choice Questions 10 x 1 = 10 Marks

  1. Venous emboli most often lodge in
    A. Intestine
    B. Lungs

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    C. Kidney
    D. Heart
  2. Hepar Lobatum is seen in
    A. Primary syphilis
    B. Tertiary syphilis

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    C. Secondary syphilis
    D. Congenital syphilis
  3. Mucormycosis is caused by
    A. Fungus
    B. Anaerobic bacteria

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    C. Gram negative bacteria
    D. Acid fast bacteria
  4. Plasmodium Falciparum causes
    A. Cerebral malaria
    B. Babesiosis

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    C. Leshmaniasis
    D. Dengue fever
  5. Basement membrane consists of
    A. Type I collagen
    B. Type II collagen

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    C. Type III collagen
    D. Type IV collagen
  6. Basophilia is most likely to be seen in
    A. Bronchial asthma
    B. CML

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    C. Angioneurotic edema
    D. Corticosteroid therapy
  7. Rate of sickling in sickle cell anemia is increased-in all EXCEPT
    A. Higher concentration of HbS
    B. A decrease in intracellular pH

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    C. Higher concentration of HbF
    D. Higher deoxygenation
  8. Denatured globin chains are known as
    A. Heinz bodies
    B. Gamma gandy bodies

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    C. Pappenheimer bodies
    D. Russel bodies
  9. Atrophic glossitis is seen in
    A. Sideroblastic anemia
    B. Megaloblastic anemia

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    C. Sickle cell anemia
    D. Thalassemia
  10. Philadelphia chromosome is
    A. T (8:14)
    B. T (22:9)

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    C. T(9:22)
    D. T (14:8)

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