Download RGUHS MBBS Final Year 2024 March 1043 Obstetrics And Gynaecology Paper II Rs 4 Previous Question Paper

Download RGUHS (Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences) MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery) 4th Year (Third Year Part II) 2024 March 1043 Obstetrics And Gynaecology Paper II Rs 4 Previous Question Paper

QP CODE : 1043
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase ? III (PART II) (CBME) Degree Examination - 11-Mar-2024

Time: Three Hours




Max. Marks: 100
OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY ? PAPER ? II (RS-4)
QP CODE: 1043
(QP Contains two pages)
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
LONG ESSAYS
2 x 10 = 20 Marks

1.
60 year old post menopausal lady with BMI of 30, admitted with history of postmenopausal
bleeding since one month. How will you evaluate and manage the above patient?
2.
Discuss the risk factors, staging of Carcinoma Cervix. Discuss the management of
Carcinoma cervix Type II A
SHORT ESSAYS
8 x 5 = 40 Marks
3.
Discuss the medical management of Heavy Menstrual bleeding
4.
Discuss the approach to secondary amenorrhoea
5.
Discuss the secondary changes in fibroid uterus
6.
List the indications and complications of abdominal hysterectomy
7.
Discuss the various theories that explain endometriosis.
8.
Describe the various tests for tubal patency
9.
Describe the management of acute pelvic inflammatory disease
10. Role of ultrasonography in gynaecology
SHORT ANSWERS
10 x 3 = 30 Marks
11. List the criteria for diagnosis of PCOS
12. Describe the criteria for Bacterial vaginosis.
13. Expand PALM-COEIN
14. Discuss utility of CA-125 in gynaecology
15. List the causes of urinary retention
16. Define decubitus ulcer. Discuss its management.
17. List various risk factors for Ca Ovary
18. Describe types of dysmenorrhea.
19. Discuss management of Bartholins abscess
20. Define Cryptomenorrhea.
Multiple Choice Questions
10 x 1 = 10 Marks
21 i) Laboratory test which helps to diagnose menopause............................
A. FSH >40mIU/L
B. LH <20mIU/L
C. Progesterone 25 ng/ml
D. Oestrone(E1)-<20pg/ml
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QP CODE : 1043
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
21 ii
) Maximum dose of clomiphene citrate is......................
A. 100mg
B. 200mg
C. 50mg
D. 150mg
21 ii
i) For creation of Pneumoperitonium, Veress needle is introduced into the peritoneal cavity
through ...................
A. Infraumbilical fold
B. Left iliac fossa
C. McBurneys point
D. Right subcostal point
21 iv)
Which of the following drugs can cause endometrial hyperplasia
A. Progesterone
B. Tamoxifen
C. Clomiphene citrate
D. Danazol
21 v)
Following Drugs causes Hirsutism EXCEPT
A. Cyproterone acetate
B. Androgens
C. Danazol
D. Minoxidil
22 i) To identify malignancy in a case of suspected cervix, ideal method would be
A. Vaginal cytology
B. Visual inspection with acetic acid
C. Colposcopic guided biopsy
D. PAP smear
22
ii) Tumour marker used to diagnose Dysgerminoma of the ovary......................
A. LDH
B. FSH
C. CEA
D. CA 125
22 iii) Drug to treat HYperprolactenimia is
A. Cabergoline
B. Oral contraceptive pills
C. Estrogen
D. Prednisolone
22 iv)
Turners Syndrome is (45XO) is characterized by.........................
A. Absent vagina
B. Low serum Gonadotrophin levels
C. Delayed menarche
D. Normal gonads on ultrasound
22 v)
Uterine artery is a branch of
A. Posterior division of internal iliac artery
B. Lateral division of internal iliac artery
C. Medial division of internal iliac artery
D. Anterior division of internal iliac artery
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