Download NTRUHS 2nd Year MBBS 2022 December Pathology Paper I MCQs Question Paper

Dr YSR UNIVERSITY OF HEALTH SCIENCES: VIJAYAWADA- 520008

MBBS DEGREE EXAMINATION - DECEMBER, 2022

SECOND M.B.B.S. EXAMINATION

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PATHOLOGY - PAPER-I (SET-A)

(Multiple Choice Questions)

Time: 20 Minutes         Max Marks: 20

Note: Answer all questions.

SECTION-I (MCQs - 20 MARKS)         1X2=20

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1. Psammoma body is a microscopic feature of
   1. Amyloid deposit
   2. Pathological calcification
   3. Hyaline change
   4. Intra-cytoplasmic viral inclusion

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2. The most definite feature of malignancy is
   1. Haemorrhage and necrosis
   2. Increased mitoses
   3. Capsular and vascular invasion
   4. Increase in size

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3. The special stain used to demonstrate amyloid is
   1. Periodic Acid Schiff(PAS)
   2. Leishman
   3. Oil red O
   4. Congo red

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4. Fat embolism is more common in
   1. Fracture femur
   2. Myocardial infarction
   3. Caisson's disease
   4. Ruptured placenta

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5. Cigar bundle appearance is to describe
   1. Lepra bacilli
   2. Cryptococcus
   3. Actinomycosis
   4. Candida albicans

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6. The para-neoplastic syndrome associated with Renal cell carcinoma is
   1. Hypercalcemia
   2. Acanthosis nigricans
   3. Myasthenia gravis
   4. Polycythemia

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7. Coomb's test is used in the diagnosis of
   1. Erythroblastosis fetalis
   2. Beta thalassemia
   3. Megaloblastic anaemia
   4. Chronic myeloid leukemia

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8. BCR/ABL fusion gene is associated with the pathogenesis of
   1. Acute Myeloid leukaemia
   2. Multiple Myeloma
   3. Acute Lymphoblastic leukaemia
   4. Chronic Myeloid leukaemia

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9. Caspase 8 and Caspase 9 are important in the pathogenesis of
   1. Fat necrosis
   2. Dry gangrene
   3. Dystrophic calcification
   4. Apoptosis

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10. Gamma Gandy bodies are classically seen in
    1. Amyloidosis spleen
    2. Alcoholic liver disease
    3. Chronic Venous Congestion spleen
    4. Fat necrosis pancreas

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11. A dry tap in a bone marrow aspiration is usually seen in cases of
    1. Hemolytic anaemia
    2. Aplastic anaemia
    3. Iron deficiency anaemia
    4. Metastatic deposits in bone

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12. The percentage of myeloblast in a peripheral smear to diagnose an acute myeloid leukemia should be more than
    1. 10%
    2. 20%
    3. 30%
    4. 40%

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13. Spoon shaped nails with longitudinal ridges are seen in
    1. Pulmonary osteo-arthropathy
    2. Megaloblastic anaemia
    3. Iron Deficiency anaemia
    4. Sideroblastic anaemia

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14. A thirty year male with meningococcal infection presented with wide- spread bleeding in the skin and abdominal viscera. The probable diagnosis is
    1. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
    2. Severe peritonitis
    3. Haemophilia
    4. Von Willebrand's disease

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15. A fifty year male presented with punched out skull lesions on X-ray, rouleaux formation in peripheral blood and an ESR of 100mm/hour. The most probable diagnosis is
    1. Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia
    2. Tuberculous Meningitis
    3. Hodgkin's lymphoma
    4. Multiple Myeloma

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16. A crumpled tissue paper appearance of the cytoplasm of histiocytes seen in cases of
    1. Infectious mononucleosis
    2. Gaucher's disease
    3. Niemann Pick disease
    4. Chediak Higashi syndrome

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17. The anti-coagulant used for Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate test by Westergren's method is
    1. EDTA
    2. Double oxalate mixture
    3. Heparin
    4. Tri-sodium citrate

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18. Which of these conditions is associated with massive proteinuria?
    1. Nephrotic syndrome
    2. Pregnancy
    3. Hypertension
    4. Renal calculi

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19. The CSF in a patient with tuberculous meningitis presents with
    1. Increased neutrophils
    2. Fibrin strands
    3. Increased glucose
    4. Haemolysis

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20. Drabkin's solution is used for the estimation of
    1. Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate
    2. Absolute Eosinophil count
    3. Haemoglobin estimation
    4. Packed cell volumes

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