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Download NTRUHS 2nd Year MBBS 2022 December Pathology Paper I MCQs Question Paper

Download NTRUHS (Dr.NTR University of Health Sciences) MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine, Bachelor of Surgery) Second Year (2nd Year) 2022 December Pathology Paper I MCQs Previous Year Question Paper || For More Question Papers, Notes and Important Questions Download MBBS Question Bank APP

This post was last modified on 04 April 2025

NTRUHS MBBS 2nd Year 2010-2025 Question Papers (Dr. NTR University of Health Sciences)


Dr YSR UNIVERSITY OF HEALTH SCIENCES: VIJAYAWADA- 520008

MBBS DEGREE EXAMINATION - DECEMBER, 2022

SECOND M.B.B.S. EXAMINATION

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PATHOLOGY - PAPER-I (SET-A)

(Multiple Choice Questions)

Time: 20 Minutes         Max Marks: 20

Note: Answer all questions.

SECTION-I (MCQs - 20 MARKS)         1X2=20

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  1. Psammoma body is a microscopic feature of
    1. Amyloid deposit
    2. Pathological calcification
    3. Hyaline change
    4. Intra-cytoplasmic viral inclusion
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  3. The most definite feature of malignancy is
    1. Haemorrhage and necrosis
    2. Increased mitoses
    3. Capsular and vascular invasion
    4. Increase in size
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  5. The special stain used to demonstrate amyloid is
    1. Periodic Acid Schiff(PAS)
    2. Leishman
    3. Oil red O
    4. Congo red
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  7. Fat embolism is more common in
    1. Fracture femur
    2. Myocardial infarction
    3. Caisson's disease
    4. Ruptured placenta
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  9. Cigar bundle appearance is to describe
    1. Lepra bacilli
    2. Cryptococcus
    3. Actinomycosis
    4. Candida albicans
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  11. The para-neoplastic syndrome associated with Renal cell carcinoma is
    1. Hypercalcemia
    2. Acanthosis nigricans
    3. Myasthenia gravis
    4. Polycythemia
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  13. Coomb's test is used in the diagnosis of
    1. Erythroblastosis fetalis
    2. Beta thalassemia
    3. Megaloblastic anaemia
    4. Chronic myeloid leukemia
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  15. BCR/ABL fusion gene is associated with the pathogenesis of
    1. Acute Myeloid leukaemia
    2. Multiple Myeloma
    3. Acute Lymphoblastic leukaemia
    4. Chronic Myeloid leukaemia
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  17. Caspase 8 and Caspase 9 are important in the pathogenesis of
    1. Fat necrosis
    2. Dry gangrene
    3. Dystrophic calcification
    4. Apoptosis
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  19. Gamma Gandy bodies are classically seen in
    1. Amyloidosis spleen
    2. Alcoholic liver disease
    3. Chronic Venous Congestion spleen
    4. Fat necrosis pancreas
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  21. A dry tap in a bone marrow aspiration is usually seen in cases of
    1. Hemolytic anaemia
    2. Aplastic anaemia
    3. Iron deficiency anaemia
    4. Metastatic deposits in bone
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  23. The percentage of myeloblast in a peripheral smear to diagnose an acute myeloid leukemia should be more than
    1. 10%
    2. 20%
    3. 30%
    4. 40%
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  25. Spoon shaped nails with longitudinal ridges are seen in
    1. Pulmonary osteo-arthropathy
    2. Megaloblastic anaemia
    3. Iron Deficiency anaemia
    4. Sideroblastic anaemia
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  27. A thirty year male with meningococcal infection presented with wide- spread bleeding in the skin and abdominal viscera. The probable diagnosis is
    1. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
    2. Severe peritonitis
    3. Haemophilia
    4. Von Willebrand's disease
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  29. A fifty year male presented with punched out skull lesions on X-ray, rouleaux formation in peripheral blood and an ESR of 100mm/hour. The most probable diagnosis is
    1. Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia
    2. Tuberculous Meningitis
    3. Hodgkin's lymphoma
    4. Multiple Myeloma
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  31. A crumpled tissue paper appearance of the cytoplasm of histiocytes seen in cases of
    1. Infectious mononucleosis
    2. Gaucher's disease
    3. Niemann Pick disease
    4. Chediak Higashi syndrome
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  33. The anti-coagulant used for Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate test by Westergren's method is
    1. EDTA
    2. Double oxalate mixture
    3. Heparin
    4. Tri-sodium citrate
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  35. Which of these conditions is associated with massive proteinuria?
    1. Nephrotic syndrome
    2. Pregnancy
    3. Hypertension
    4. Renal calculi
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  37. The CSF in a patient with tuberculous meningitis presents with
    1. Increased neutrophils
    2. Fibrin strands
    3. Increased glucose
    4. Haemolysis
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  39. Drabkin's solution is used for the estimation of
    1. Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate
    2. Absolute Eosinophil count
    3. Haemoglobin estimation
    4. Packed cell volumes
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