Download MPMSU MBBS 2nd Year Microbiology_Paper_II_June_2023 Question Paper

lOMoARcPSD|55903010
Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination June-2023
Subject- Microbiology
Paper- II (new scheme)

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Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks :100

Instructions:
a)

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All questions are compulsory
b)
Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c)
Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.

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d)
MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e)
Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2. (c)
f)

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MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be considered as malpractice, such answers will not be
counted in marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of university.
g)
Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30 words per marks. For example, if a question having 2 marks should answered in up to 60 marks.

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Q1. Total MCQs: 10
10 x 1 = 10
1. The following are the specific tests for diagnosis of syphilis except.
(a) Treponema Pallidum
(b) Fluorescent

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(c) Rapid Plasma Reagin
(d) T. Pallidum
Immobilization test (TPI)
Treponemal Antibody
Test (RPR)

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Hemagglutination Test
Absorption Test (FTA-ABS)
(TPHA)
2. Which of the following statements regarding interferon-gamma release assays is correct?
(a) They are useful for

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(b) They are performed
(c) They are used as
(d) They detect antigens
evaluating
using molecular probes

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alternatives to the
present in all
immunocompromise d
that detect organism DNA. tuberculin skin test to
Mycobacterium species.

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patients for active
evaluate for latent
tuberculosis.
tuberculosis.
3. Vector for leishmaniasis:

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(a) Sandfly
(b) Reduviid bugs
(c) Tsetse fly
(d) Anopheles mosquito
4. Which bacteria is called as Pfeiffer's bacillus?

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(a) Corynebacterium
(b) Haemophillus
(c) Bacillus anthracis
(d) Pseudomonas
diptheriae

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influenzae
aeruginosa
5. All of the following are true about rhinovirus, except:
(a) More than 100
(b) Acid-labile

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(c) Incubation period is 10-
(d) Transmitted by
antigenic types have been
14 days
respiratory route

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identified
6. Laboratory infections can be acquired when working with viruses unless good laboratory safety practices are
followed. Which of the following is not a good biosafety practice?
(a) Use of biosafety hoods
(b) Use of laboratory coats (c) Avoidance of pipetting

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(d) Flushing experimental
and gloves
by mouth
waste down laboratory
sink

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7. The most effective way of preventing tetanus:
(a) Hyperbaric oxygen
(b) Antibiotics
(c) Tetanus toxoid
(d) Surgical debridement

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and toilet
8. Which of following is correct about prions?
(a) Destroyed by
(b) Long incubation period
(c) Immunogenic

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(d) Nucleic acid present
autoclaving at 121?C

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9. All of the following statements regarding Mycoplasmas are correct except:
(a) They are susceptible to

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(b) They lack a cell wall.
(c) They have an affinity
(d) They can be cultivated
?-lactam agents.
for mammalian cell

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in cell-free media.
membranes.
10. All of the following parasites can cause encephalitis except.
(a) Acanthamocha
(b) Entamoeba histolytica

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(c) Toxoplasma gondii
(d) Naegleria
Q2. Long Answer Questions
2 x 20 = 40
a. 65-year-old female diabetic patient admitted to the hospital with complaints of swelling in the arm with pus

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discharge. On physical examination, the local area was found to be red, warm and tender. The swelling has a
feel of fluid filled when pressed. Pus was aspirated and was sent to microbiology. On microscopic
examination, Gram positive cocci in clusters seen. Based on this history:
1. What is the most probable etiological agent? Enumerate the bacterial agents causing this condition.
2. Discuss morphology & cultural characteristics of above organism.

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3. List the virulence factors of this organism.
4. Briefly discuss the laboratory diagnosis.
b. Enumerate neurotropic viruses. Discuss the morphology, transmission & pathogenecity of Polio virus.
Comment on immunoprophylaxis of Poliomyelitis.
Q3. Brief Answer Questions

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6 x 05 = 30
a. Laboratory diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis.
b. Laboratory diagnosis of leprosy.
c. Nocardiosis.
d. Mucocutaneous Candidiasis

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e. Nonspecific urethritis
f. Nosocomial diarrhoea
Q4. Short Answer Questions
10 x 2 = 20
a. Elek's gel precipitation test

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b. Enumerate Virulence factors of Bordetella pertussis.
c. Draw a well labeled diagram of Influenza virus.
d. Enumerate etiological agents of acute encephalitis syndrome (AES)
e. Give reason why urine samples for culture should be processed as soon as possible after collection.
f. Enumerate culture media used for laboratory diagnosis of bacteremia.

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g. Draw a well labeled diagram of Trophozoite of Trichomonas vaginalis
h. Enumerate the organisms with oncogenic potential.
i. Enumerate infections caused by Herpes Simplex Virus.
j. Enumerate agents of Superficial mycoses

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