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Download MPMSU MBBS 2nd Year Pathology_Paper_II_Feb_2023 Question Paper

Download MPMSU (Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University) MBBS 2nd year (Second Year) Pathology_Paper_II_Feb_2023 Previous Question Paper

This post was last modified on 04 October 2025

lOMoARcPSD|55903010
Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination Feb-2023
Subject- Pathology
Time: 3:00 Hours

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Paper- II(old scheme)
Maximum Marks :40
Instructions:
a)
All questions are compulsory

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b)
Draw diagrams wherever necessary
c)
Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d)

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MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e)
Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2. (c)
f)
MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be considered as malpractice, such answers will not be

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counted in marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of university.

g)
Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30 words per marks. For example, if a question having 2 marks should answered in up to 60 marks.
Q1. Total MCQs: 16
16 x 1/2 = 8

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1. Small foci of calcification are frequently seen on x ray of the following glioma
(a) ependymoma
(b) fat oligodendroglioma
(c) astrocytoma
(d) choroid plexus

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papilloma
2. The most common histologic type of carcinoma of the oral cavity is
(a) adenocarcinoma
(b) clear cell carcinoma
(c) squamous cell

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(d) small cell
carcinoma
undifferentiated
carcinoma
3. Higher incidence of lymphoma is seen in which of the following

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(a) Grave's disease
(b) Hashimoto thyroiditis
(c) nodular goiter
(d) riedel's thyroiditis
4. All are true about molluscum contagiosum except

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(a) It is a self-limiting
(b) It is caused by pox
(c) molluscum bodies are
(d) intracytoplasmic
contagious lesion.

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virus
composed of keratin.
inclusion bodies
5. Call exner bodies are seen in
(a) granulosa cell tumour

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(b) yolk sac tumour
(c) thecoma
(d) Sertoli-Leydig cell
tumour
6. An electrophoresis machine is used to

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(a) separate DNA
(b) separate blood
(c) separate bone
(d) separate muscle fibers
components

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components
7. A 19-year-old female presents with urticaria that developed after she took aspirin for a headache. She has
a history of chronic rhinitis. and physical examination reveals the presence of nasal polyps. This patient is
at an increased risk of developing which one of the following pulmonary diseases following the ingestion of
aspirin?

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(a) Asthma
(b) chronic bronchitis
(c) emphysema
(d) interstitial fibrosis
8. Histologic sections from a rapidly enlarged cervical lymph node in a 35-year-old female reveal a diffuse,

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monotonous proliferation of small, noncleaved lymphocytes, which are forming a ""starry sky" appearance
because numerous tingible-body macrophages are present. A touch prep reveals that many of these cells
have cytoplasmic vacuoles, which would most likely react with
(a) myeloperoxidase
(b) oil red O

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(c) Periodic acid Schiff
(d) nonspecific esterase
9. Where are glomus tumours most commonly found
(a) head and neck
(b) axilla and upper arms

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(c) fingers and toes
(d) groin and upper thigh

lOMoARcPSD|55903010
10. Source of pulmonary surfactant is
(a) alveolar macrophages

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(b) type I pneumocytes
(c) type II pneumocytes
(d) capillary endothelium
11. An 11-year-old boy presents with an enlarging, painful lesion that involves the medullary cavity of his left
femur. X-rays reveal an i1Tegular. destructive lesion that produces an "onionskin' periosteal reaction. The

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lesion is resected surgically, and histologic sections reveal sheets of uniform, small, round and blue cells.
What is the correct diagnosis?
(a) chondroblastoma
(b) Ewings sarcoma
(c) fibrosarcoma

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(d) osteogenic sarcoma
12. The clinical effects of excess serum cortisol are referred to as
(a) addison's disease
(b) barter syndrome
(c) conn syndrome

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(d) cushing syndrome
13. The combination of severe acute flank pain and microscopic hematuria is suggestive of
(a) cholelithiasis
(b) urolithiasis
(c) kidney tumour

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(d) urinary bladder tumour
14. HER2/neu over expression in breast cancer:
(a) is a good prognostic
(b) patient responds to
(c) responds to tamoxifen

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(d) is a serum marker for
marker
radiation therapy
carcinoma of breast
15. All true about CSF except

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(a) normal cell count is 0-
(b) meningioma cells are
(c) CSF is ultrafiltrate of
(d) leukemia cells maybe
4/ml

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frequently found in CSF
plasma
identified in CSF
16. Normal urine sample on microscopy shows all except
(a) epithelial cells

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(b) crystals
(c) pus cells
(d) RBCs
Q2. Long Answer Questions
2 x 5 = 10

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a. Discuss the etiology, pathology, types, complications of the vegetations of heart
b. Write risk factors, pathogenesis, morphologic features and complications of peptic ulcer disease
Q3. Brief Answer Questions
4 x 3 = 12
a. Differentiate between chronic bronchitis and emphysema.

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b. Pathogenesis and complications of diabetes mellitus.
c. Crohn's disease
d. Discuss evolution of morphological features in a case of alcoholic liver disease
Q4. Short Answer Questions
10 x 1 = 10

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a. Tumour marker used to monitor hydatidiform Mole.
b. Enumerate causes of Male infertility.
c. Risk factors in causation of gall bladder stones.
d. Enumerate 2 benign & 2 malignant salivary gland tumors.
e. What is Reid's Index.

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f. Name components of tetralogy of Fallot.
g. Asbestosis
h. Aplastic anemia
i. Hepatitis C viral infection
j. What's pap smear.

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