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Download MPMSU 2nd Year MBBS 2023 June Microbiology Paper II (New Scheme) Question Paper

Download MPMSU (Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University) MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine, Bachelor of Surgery) Second Year (2nd Year) 2023 June Microbiology Paper II (New Scheme) Previous Year Question Paper || For More Question Papers, Notes and Important Questions Download MBBS Question Bank APP

This post was last modified on 05 April 2025

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Time: 3:00 Hours Maximum Marks :100

Instructions:

  1. All questions are compulsory
  2. Draw diagrams wherever necessary
  3. Answers of Questions and Sub questions must be written strictly according to the serial order of question paper.
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  5. MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
  6. Please write MCQ answer nearly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets for example:- 1. (a) 2. (b)
  7. MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind for repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be consider as malpractice. Such answers will not be counted in the marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of University

Q.1 MCQs 10x1=10

  1. The following are the specific tests for diagnosis of syphilis except.
    1. Treponema Pallidum Immobilization test (TPI)
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    3. Fluorescent Treponemal Antibody Absorption Test (FTA-ABS)
    4. Rapid Plasma Reagin Test (RPR)
    5. T. Pallidum Hemagglutination Test (TPHA)
  2. Which of the following statements regarding interferon-gamma release assays is correct?
    1. They are useful for evaluating immunocompromised patients for active tuberculosis.
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    3. They are performed using molecular probes that detect organism DNA.
    4. They are used as alternatives to the tuberculin skin test to evaluate for latent tuberculosis.
    5. They detect antigens present in all Mycobacterium species.
  3. Vector for leishmaniasis:
    1. Sandfly
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    3. Reduviid bugs
    4. Tsetse fly
    5. Anopheles mosquito
  4. Which bacteria is called as Pfeiffer's bacillus.
    1. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
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    3. Haemophilus influenzae
    4. Bacillus anthracis
    5. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  5. All of the following are true about rhinovirus, except:
    1. More than 100 antigenic types have been identified
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    3. Acid-labile
    4. Incubation period is 10–14 days
    5. Transmitted by respiratory route
  6. Laboratory infections can be acquired when working with viruses unless practices are followed. Which of the following is not a good biosafety practice?
    1. Use of biosafety hoods
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    3. Use of laboratory coats and gloves
    4. Avoidance of pipetting by mouth
    5. Flushing experimental waste down laboratory sink
  7. The most effective way of preventing tetanus:
    1. Hyperbaric oxygen
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    3. Antibiotics
    4. Tetanus toxoid
    5. Surgical debridement and toilet
  8. Which of following is correct about prions?
    1. Destroyed by autoclaving at 121°C
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    3. Long incubation period
    4. Immunogenic
    5. Nucleic acid present
  9. All of the following statements regarding Mycoplasmas are correct except:
    1. They are susceptible to ẞ-lactam agents.
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    3. They lack a cell wall.
    4. They have an affinity for mammalian cell membranes.
    5. They can be cultivated in cell-free media.
  10. All of the following parasites can cause encephalitis except.
    1. Acanthamoeba
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    3. Entamoeba histolytica
    4. Toxoplasma gondii
    5. Naegleria

Q.2 Long Answer Questions 2x20=40

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  1. 65-year-old female diabetic patient admitted to the hospital with complaints of swelling in the arm with pus discharge. On physical examination, the local area was found to be red, warm and tender. The swelling has a feel of fluid filled when pressed. Pus was aspirated and was sent to microbiology. On microscopic examination, Gram positive cocci in clusters seen. Based on this history
    1. What is the most probable etiological agent? Enumerate the bacterial agents causing this condition.
    2. Discuss morphology & cultural characteristics of above organism.
    3. List the virulence factors of this organism
    4. Briefly discuss the laboratory diagnosis
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  3. Enumerate neurotropic viruses. Discuss the morphology, transmission & pathogenecity of Polio virus. Comment on immunoprophylaxis of Poliomyelitis.

Q.3 Brief Answer Questions 6x5=30

  1. Laboratory diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis.
  2. Laboratory diagnosis of leprosy.
  3. Nocardiosis.
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  5. Mucocutaneous Candidiasis
  6. Nonspecific urethritis
  7. Nosocomial diarrhoea

Q.4 Short Answer Questions 10x2=20

  1. Elek's gel precipitation test
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  3. Enumerate Virulence factors of Bordetella pertussis.
  4. Draw a well labeled diagram of Influenza virus.
  5. Enumerate etiological agents of acute encephalitis syndrome (AES)
  6. Give reason why urine samples for culture should be processed as soon as possible after collection.
  7. Enumerate culture media used for laboratory diagnosis of bacteremia.
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  9. Draw a well labeled diagram of Trophozoite of Trichomonas vaginalis.
  10. Enumerate the organisms with oncogenic potential.
  11. Enumerate infections caused by Herpes Simplex Virus.
  12. Enumerate agents of Superficial mycoses

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