Download MPMSU 2nd Year MBBS 2023 June Pathology Paper II (Old Scheme) Question Paper

Time: 3:00 Hours Maximum Marks :40

Instructions:

1. All questions are compulsory
2. Draw diagrams wherever necessary
3. Answers of Questions and Sub questions must be written strictly according to the serial order of question paper.

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4. MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book.
5. Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets for example:- 1. (a) 2. (b)
6. MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind for repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be consider as malpractice. Such answers will not be counted in the marks and action will be taken according to CFM rules of University

Q.1 Total MCQs : 16 [ 16 X ½ = 8 ]

1. Small foci of calcification are frequently seen on x-ray of the following glioma:
   1. Ependymoma

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   2. Choroid Plexus Papilloma.
   3. Astrocytoma.
   4. Alveolar.
2. The most common histologic type of carcinoma of the oral cavity is
   1. Adenocarcinoma

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   2. Clear cell carcinoma
   3. Squamous cell carcinoma
   4. Small cell undifferentiated carcinoma
3. Higher incidence of lymphoma is seen in which of the following:
   1. Grave's disease

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   2. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
   3. Nodular goiter
   4. Riedel's thyroiditis
4. All are true about molluscum contagiosum except:
   1. It is a self-limiting contagious lesion.

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   2. It is caused by pox virus,
   3. Molluscum bodies are composed of keratin.
   4. Intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies (Molluscum bodies) are seen in it.
5. Call Exner bodies are seen in:
   1. Granulosa cell tumor

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   2. Yolk sac tumour
   3. Thecoma
   4. Sertoli-Leydig cell tumour.
6. An electrophoresis machine is used to
   1. Separate DNA

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   2. Separate blood components
   3. Separate the bone components
   4. Separate the muscle fibers
7. A 19-year-old female presents with urticaria that developed after she took aspirin for a headache. She has a history of chronic rhinitis, and physical examination reveals the presence of nasal polyps. This patient is at an increased risk of developing which one of the following pulmonary diseases following the ingestion of aspirin?
   1. Asthma

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   2. Chronic bronchitis
   3. Emphysema
   4. Interstitial fibrosis
8. Histologic sections from a rapidly enlarged cervical lymph node in a 35-year-old female reveal a diffuse, monotonous proliferation of small, noncleaved lymphocytes, which are forming a “starry sky” appearance because numerous tingible-body macrophages are present. A touch prep reveals that many of these cells have cytoplasmic vacuoles, which would most likely react with
   1. Myeloperoxidase

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   2. Oil red O
   3. Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS)
   4. Non-specific esterase
9. Where are glomus tumors most commonly found?
   1. Head and neck

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   2. Axilla and upper arms
   3. Fingers and toes
   4. Grain and upper thigh
10. Source of pulmonary surfactant is:
    1. Alveolar macrophages

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    2. Type I pneumocytes
    3. Type II pneumocytes
    4. Capillary endothelium
11. An 11-year-old boy presents with an enlarging, painful lesion that involves the medullary cavity of his left femur. X-rays reveal an irregular, destructive lesion that produces an “onionskin” periosteal reaction. The lesion is resected surgically, and histologic sections reveal sheets of uniform small, round, “blue” cells. What is the correct diagnosis?
    1. Chondroblastoma

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    2. Ewing's sarcoma
    3. Fibrosarcoma
    4. Osteogenic sarcoma
12. The clinical effects of excess serum cortisol are referred to as
    1. Addison's disease

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    2. Bartter's syndrome
    3. Conn's syndrome
    4. Cushing's syndrome
13. The combination of severe acute flank pain and microscopic hematuria is suggestive of
    1. Cholelithiasis

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    2. Urolithiasis
    3. Kidney tumor
    4. Urinary bladder tumor
14. HER2/neu over expression in breast cancer:
    1. is a good prognostic marker

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    2. Patient responds to perception therapy
    3. Responds to tamoxifen
    4. is a serum marker for carcinoma breast.
15. All are true about CSF except:
    1. Normal cell count is 0-4/ml

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    2. Meningioma cells are frequently found in CSF
    3. CSF is ultrafiltrate of plasma
    4. Leukemia cells may be identified in CSF
16. Normal urine sample on microscopy shows all except:
    1. Epithelial cells

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    2. Crystals
    3. Pus cell
    4. RBC's

Q. 2. Long Answer Question 2 X 5 = 10

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1. Discuss the etiology, pathology, types, complication of the vegetations of heart?
2. Write risk factors, pathogenesis, morphologic features and complications of peptic ulcer disease (PUD).

Q3 Short Answer Question 4 X 3 = 12

1. Differentiate between chronic bronchitis and emphysema.
2. Pathogenesis and complications of diabetes mellitus.

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3. Crohn's disease
4. Discuss evolution of morphological features in a case of alcoholic liver disease.

Q4 Very Short Answer Question 10X 1 = 10

1. Tumour marker used to monitor hydatidiform Mole.
2. Enumerate causes of Male infertility.

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3. Risk factors in causation of gall bladder stones.
4. Enumerate 2 benign & 2 malignant Salivary gland tumours.
5. What is Reid's Index.
6. Name components of tetralogy of Fallot.
7. Asbestosis

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8. Aplastic anaemia
9. Hepatitis C viral infection
10. What's Pap smear.

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