Download RGUHS MBBS 2nd year 1026 Pathology Paper I 2024 December Question Paper

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Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

MBBS Phase – II (CBME) Degree Examination - 02-Dec-2024

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Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100

PATHOLOGY – PAPER I (RS-4)

Q.P. CODE: 1026

(QP contains two pages)

Your answers should be specific to the questions asked

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Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks

1. A 25 years male, with complains of Bee sting on the face, develop severe pain and swelling within 10 minutes; brought to emergency room in confused state, with difficulty in breathing and abdominal cramps.
   1. What is the diagnosis related to this reaction?
   2. Write in detail about the pathogenesis, morphology and evolution of this reaction.

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2. A 2 years female child, presented with moderate pallor and jaundice. Clinical history of multiple blood transfusion and peripheral blood smear show microcytic hypochromic anemia. On examination hepato-splenomegaly present
   1. What is your diagnosis?
   2. Discuss the pathogenesis of this disease with labelled diagram
   3. What relevant investigation is needed to establish the diagnosis?

SHORT ESSAYS 8 x 5 = 40 Marks

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3. Turner's syndrome
4. Difference between Hodgkin's lymphoma and Non Hodgkin's lymphoma
5. Leukemoid reaction
6. Discuss the vascular events in inflammation
7. CSF in Septic meningitis.

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8. Define Paraneoplastic syndromes with an example for each of the underlying neoplasm causing it
9. Hemophilia A
10. Microbial oncogenesis

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

11. Define metaplasia with examples

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12. Fate of a thrombus
13. Define apoptosis with examples
14. Chemotaxis.
15. What is FNAC?
16. Romanowsky Stains

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17. Bombay Blood group
18. Vitamin C deficiency
19. Ghons complex
20. Stains to demonstrate amyloid

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www.FirstRanker.com www.FirstRanker.com QP CODE: 1026

Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

Multiple Choice Questions 10 x 1 = 10 Marks

21. i) Anticoagulant of choice for coagulation studies is
    1. Heparin
    2. EDTA

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    3. Trisodium citrate
    4. Double oxalate
22. ii) Actin and Myosin proteins are found in
    1. Microtubules
    2. Microfilaments

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    3. Intermediate filaments
    4. Ribosomes
23. iii) Which one of the following cytokines is involved in tissue repair and fibrosis
    1. Tissue necrosis factor
    2. Transforming growth factor ?

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    3. Interleukin - 1
    4. Interferon
24. iv) The characteristic feature of Langerhans cell is the presence of
    1. Birbeck granules
    2. Auer rods

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    3. Owl-eye nuclei
    4. CD15 positive histiocytes
25. v) Sickle cell trait is protective against
    1. Filaria
    2. Falciparum Malaria

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    3. Leishmania
    4. Trypanosmiasis

22. i) NK Cell inhibitory receptors recognize
    1. Class I MHC molecules
    2. Class II MHC molecules

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    3. Toll like receptors
    4. IFN-Y
23. ii) Familial hypercholesterolemia is caused by mutations in the gene encoding the receptor for
    1. HDL
    2. VLDL

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    3. LDL
    4. Chylomicrons
24. iii) Immune Hydrops fetalis is due to
    1. Parvovirus B19
    2. Turner syndrome

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    3. Monozygous Twin pregnancies
    4. Rh incompatibility
25. iv) The cells associated with formation of chloroma is
    1. Erythroblast
    2. Immunoblasts

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    3. Myeloblast
    4. Lymphoblasts
26. v) The subtype of Hodgkin lymphoma that shows lacunar cells and collagen bands is
    1. Nodular lymphocyte predominant
    2. Lymphocyte depleted

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    3. Mixed cellularity
    4. Nodular sclerosis

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