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Download VNSGU MBBS 2106000102010102 Pathology Paper II FebruaryMarch2024 Question Paper

We uploaded VNSGU (Veer Narmad South Gujarat University or South Gujarat University) MBBS ?(Bachelor of Medicine, Bachelor of Surgery) First Year (1st Year) 2024 August 2106000102010102 Pathology Paper II FebruaryMarch2024 Previous Year Question Paper || Download More Latest Question Papers and Study Materials Please Download Our Latest MBBSQuestion Bank App in Playstore

This post was last modified on 06 April 2025

VNSGU MBBS Last 15 Years 2010-2025 Previous Question Papers (Veer Narmad South Gujarat University)


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2106000102010102

Examination February – March 2024

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SECOND MBBS

PATHOLOGY (PAPER - II ) - LEVEL 1

[Time: Three Hours]

[Max. Marks:100 ]

Instructions:

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  1. Fill up strictly the following details on your answer book
    1. Name of the Examination : SECOND MBBS
    2. Name of the Subject : PATHOLOGY ( PAPER - II ) - LEVEL 1 (OMR)
    3. Subject Code No : 2106000102010102
  2. Sketch neat and labelled diagram wherever necessary.
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  4. Figures to the right indicate full marks of the question.
  5. All questions are compulsory.
  6. No negative marks

Seat No:

Student's Signature

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SECTION-I

Q.1 Multiple choice questions (MCQs). 20*1=20

(Instruction: Encircle the correct answer)

  1. Erythropoietin is produced by
    1. Liver
    2. Lungs
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    4. Bone marrow
    5. Kidney
  2. Which is NOT SEEN in Megaloblastic anaemia?
    1. Hyper segmented neutrophil
    2. MCV < 80
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    4. Evidence of dyserythropoesis
    5. Giant metamyelocytes
  3. Howell Jolly bodies in red cells seen in:
    1. Hereditary Spherocytosis
    2. Lead Poisoning
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    4. Post Splenectomy
    5. Iron deficiency anemia
  4. Thepathognomic abnormality in ß-thalassaemia minor is:
    1. marked rise in HbA2
    2. marked rise in HbF
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    4. marked unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia
    5. marked anaemia
  5. Small warty vegetations along the lines of closure of Valves on mitral and aortic valves are observed in :
    1. Infective endocarditis
    2. Rheumatic fever
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    4. Libman -Sach's endocarditis
    5. Non-Bacterial thrombotic endocarditis
  6. The commonest vessel involved in Myocardial Infarction:
    1. Right Coronary artery
    2. Left Circumflex artery
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    4. Left Anterior Descending artery
    5. Posterior Descending artery
  7. Which of the following is associated with the development of bronchogenic carcinoma and mesothelioma?
    1. Silicosis
    2. Asbestosis
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    4. Siderosilicosis
    5. Anthracosis
  8. Patients are designated as pink puffers in:
    1. Chronic Bronchitis
    2. Bronchiectasis
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    4. Emphysema
    5. Pneumoconiosis
  9. Essential diagnostic criteria for nephrotic syndrome in adults is :
    1. Anasarca with orbital puffiness
    2. 24hrs urinary excretion of protein 3.5 gm or greater
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    4. Hypoalbuminemia
    5. A constellation of hypertension, hyperlipedemia and lipiduria
  10. Typical "Grain Leather" appearance of kidney is seen in :
    1. Benign nephrosclerosis
    2. Malignant nephrosclerosis
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    4. Nephrocalcinosis
    5. Necrotising Papillitis
  11. Toxic Megacolon is complication of:
    1. Crohn's Disease
    2. Ulcerative Colitis
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    4. Necrotising Enterocolitis
    5. Pseudomembranous Colitis
  12. The most common site for hydatid cyst is
    1. Liver
    2. Lungs
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    4. Spleen
    5. Brain
  13. The most common mechanism in pathogenesis of chronic pyelonephritis is
    1. Ascending infection
    2. Reflux nephropathy
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    4. Obstructive nephropathy
    5. Haematogenous infection
  14. Cirrhosis in Wilson's disease is related to:
    1. Zinc
    2. Copper
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    4. Mercury
    5. Iron
  15. Ovarian tumour arising from Stromal cells is :
    1. Dysgerminoma
    2. Brenner tumour
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    4. Granulosa theca cell tumour
    5. Krukenberg Tumour
  16. Giant cell tumour arises from:
    1. Diaphysis
    2. Metaphysis
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    4. Articular cartilage
    5. Epiphysis
  17. Gout is characterised by deposition of crystals of
    1. Uric acid
    2. Hydroxy apatite
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    4. Pyrophosphate
    5. Urate
  18. Mutation characteristic of polycythaemia vera
    1. JAK2
    2. Bcr-abl
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    4. p53
    5. RAS
  19. Medullary carcinoma of thyroid arises from:
    1. C-cells of thyroid
    2. Follicular cells
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    4. Parathyroid cells
    5. Primitive pluripotent cell of thyroid
  20. Which type of Nevus most commonly progresses to Malignant Melanoma:
    1. Blue cell Nevus
    2. Spindle cell Nevus
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    4. Dysplastic Nevus
    5. Compound Nevus

SECTION - II

Q.2 Case based Question (Compulsory to attempt ) 13

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  1. A 50year male with history of chronic alcohol consumption presented with distended abdomen .ultrasound scan show reduced size of liver.
    1. What is the probable diagnosis? 1
    2. Describe the pathogenesis of this condition 5
    3. Describe gross and microscopic findings. 4
    4. Enumerate three Complications of the condition. 3
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Q.3 Long Essay Questions: (Attempt any 3 out of 4) 9*3=27

  1. Describe the Clinical features, pathogenesis and Lab findings in ß Thalassemia Major. 3+3+3
  2. Describe etiopathogenesis, gross and microscopy & complications of ulcerative colitis. 4+3+2
  3. Describe the Pathogenesis and stages of lobar pneumonia. 3+6
  4. Describe etiopathogenesis of Hypertension vascular Disease. Write About Benign and Malignant Nephrosclerosis. 4+5
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SECTION – III

Q.4 (Attempt any 8 out of 10) (5 marks each ) 40

  1. Describe clinical findings, inheritance in von Willebrand disease.
  2. Classify germ cell Tumour. Describe Morphological features of Seminoma.
  3. Describe Major and Minor criteria to diagnose Rheumatic Heart disease.
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  5. Write the staging Classification of Hodgkin Lymphoma.
  6. Giant cell Tumour of Bone
  7. Atherosclerosis
  8. Squamous cell carcinoma
  9. Lab findings in Megaloblastic Anaemia
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  11. Describe morphologic features of Fibroadenoma.
  12. Describe the Pathogenesis and morphology Of Bronchiectasis.

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