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Download VNSGU MBBS 2206000103030104 Community Medicine Paper II FebruaryMarch2024 Question Paper

We uploaded VNSGU (Veer Narmad South Gujarat University or South Gujarat University) MBBS ?(Bachelor of Medicine, Bachelor of Surgery) First Year (1st Year) 2024 August 2206000103030104 Community Medicine Paper II FebruaryMarch2024 Previous Year Question Paper || Download More Latest Question Papers and Study Materials Please Download Our Latest MBBSQuestion Bank App in Playstore

This post was last modified on 06 April 2025

VNSGU MBBS Last 15 Years 2010-2025 Previous Question Papers (Veer Narmad South Gujarat University)


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2206000103030104

EXAMINATION FEBRUARY-MARCH 2024

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BACHELOR OF MEDICINE AND BACHELOR OF SURGERY

(THIRD PART - I)

COMMUNITY MEDICINE (PAPER - II) (NEW) - LEVEL 3

[Time: As Per Schedule] [Max. Marks: 100]

Instructions:

  1. Fill up strictly the following details on your answer book
    1. Name of the Examination : BACHELOR OF MEDICINE AND BACHELOR OF SURGERY (THIRD PART-1)
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    3. Name of the Subject: COMMUNITY MEDICINE (PAPER - II ) (NEW) - LEVEL 3
    4. Subject Code No : 2206000103030104
  2. Sketch neat and labelled diagram wherever necessary.
  3. Figures to the right indicate full marks of the question.
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  5. All questions are compulsory.
Seat No:


Student's Signature

SECTION - I

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Q.1 Multiple choice questions each carry 1 mark (MCQs). 20

  1. Duration of treatment of multifacillary leprosy is
    1. 6 months
    2. 9 months
    3. 12 months
    4. 24 months
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  2. Corpulence index measures
    1. Blood pressure
    2. Obesity
    3. Coproporphyria
    4. Diabetes
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  3. Pasteurised milk is commonly tested by
    1. Oxidase test
    2. Phosphatase test
    3. Catalase test
    4. Coliform test
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  4. Positive shick's test indicates that the person is:
    1. Immune to diphtheria
    2. Hypersensitive to diphtheria
    3. Susceptible to diphtheria
    4. Susceptible and hypersensitive to diphtheria
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  5. Which is NOT a risk factor for coronary artery disease:
    1. Oral contraceptive
    2. Alcohol
    3. Type A personality
    4. High fibre diet
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  6. The average weight gain for a pregnant woman with BMI 20-23 should be
    1. 4 to 6 kg
    2. 8 to 12 kg
    3. 12 to 14 kg
    4. 15 to 16 kg
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  7. One of the following gestational infections results in congenital anomaly:
    1. Chicken pox
    2. Candidiasis
    3. Taeniasis
    4. Cholera
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  8. Which of the following is not organic dust
    1. Cane fiber
    2. Tobacco
    3. Asbestos
    4. Cotton dust
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  9. Marijuana is derived from which of the following
    1. Mushrooms
    2. Cannabis
    3. Cocoa
    4. Morning glory
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  10. A person aged 40 years, working as a laborer in grain market for the last 25 years presented with a history of repeated attacks of respiratory infections in the last 1 year. X-ray showed pulmonary fibrosis. The likely diagnosis was:
    1. Tuberculosis
    2. Silicosis
    3. Silicotuberculosis
    4. Farmer's lung
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  11. PCPNDT is an act to prevent:
    1. Congenital birth defects
    2. Female suicide
    3. Female foeticide
    4. IVF using sex selection
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  12. Koplik's spot is seen in
    1. Measles
    2. Scrub typhus
    3. Malaria
    4. Dengue
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  13. For early detection of cancer cervix recommended test is
    1. PAP smear
    2. VDRL test
    3. FNAC
    4. Trans vaginal ultrasonography.
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  14. All diseases are under surveillance of WHO except:
    1. Chicken pox
    2. Malaria
    3. Relapsing fever
    4. Paralytic polio
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  15. Incidence of mumps is highest among
    1. 0-5 years
    2. 5-15 years
    3. 15-25 years
    4. Above 25 years
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  16. All are components of ICDS except:
    1. Nutrition
    2. Vaccination
    3. Health education
    4. Admission and treatment of sick children
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  17. Kuppuswamy scale consists of all except
    1. Education
    2. Occupation
    3. Housing
    4. Income
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  18. All are classified as maternal death except
    1. Abortion
    2. Labour
    3. During 3rd month of lactation
    4. Within 1st week of delivery due to sepsis
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  19. Genetic predisposition of cancer is seen in
    1. Colon
    2. Stomach
    3. Pancreas
    4. All of the above
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  20. Birth and death registration act of India was amended in
    1. 1948
    2. 1970
    3. 1967
    4. 1991
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SECTION – II

Q.2 Answer any one of the following questions: 10

  1. Describe epidemiological determinants, prevention and treatment of Vivax malaria.
  2. What is ARI? How would you manage a 3 year old child with ARI as per IMNCI protocol?
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Q.3 Write your comments on the following: (any 2 out of 3) 5*2=10

  1. Social factors related to mental health.
  2. Cost effective analysis in health.
  3. Barriers of communication.

Q.4 Write in one- or two-lines short answers: 2*10=20

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  1. Juvenile delinquency
  2. Drugs used in MDR-TB
  3. Treatment of paucibacillary leprosy
  4. Cause of Bagassosis and Byssinosis
  5. 2 functions of UNICEF
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  7. Non modifiable risk factors of diabetes
  8. Doctor patient relationship
  9. Annual parasite index and its importance
  10. Exclusive breast feedings
  11. JE vaccine-type, dosage, route and site of administration
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SECTION – III

Q.5 Answer any one of the following questions: 10

  1. What are the components of post natal check up? What measures can be taken to improve post natal care at community level?
  2. Discuss the epidemiology of hypertension and the WHO recommendations for its prevention and control.

Q.6 Write short notes on the following: (any 2 out of 3) 5*2=10

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  1. Ergonomics.
  2. Food adulteration.
  3. Disablement benefits under ESI Act, 1948.

Q.7 Write short notes on the following: (any 5 out of 6) 4*5=20

  1. Risk factors for cervical cancer.
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  3. Nikshay poshan yojana.
  4. Genetic counselling.
  5. Integrated Vector Management.
  6. Mass drug administration for filariasis.
  7. Clinical features of severe acute malnutrition.
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