Download RGUHS MBBS CBME 3rd Year Part 1 2023 Feb 1033 Marks Ophthalmology Rs 4 Question Paper

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QP CODE : 1033

Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

MBBS Phase – III (PART I) CBME Degree Examination - 14-Feb-2023

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Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100 Marks

OPHTHALMOLOGY - (RS-4)

QP CODE: 1033

(QP contains two pages)

Your answers should be specific to the questions asked

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Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks

1. A 5 yrs old boy suffering from Protein Energy malnutrition weighing 12 Kg came to OPD with mother complains of dry and lusterless eye with white foamy triangular patch on the inter palpebral area of both eyes. What is your Probable diagnosis? What is the differential diagnosis for the above lesion? What are the clinical features and management of this condition?
2. What are the clinical features, types and management of Vernal keratoconjunctivitis?

SHORT ESSAYS 8 x 5 = 40 Marks

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3. Draw a neat labeled diagram of section through the upper eye lid.
4. Classify Hypermetropia and discuss its treatment options?
5. What are the symptoms of congenital dacryocystitis and its treatment options available?
6. Explain pathophysiological stages of Maturation of Cortical type of senile Cataract
7. What is Buphthalmos ? Discuss its clinical features and-treatment.

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8. What are the complications and sequelae of Anterior Uveitis?
9. A 20 yrs old male patient came with defective vision more during evening times from past 1 year which is slowly progressive. Patient elder siblings having similar complaint. What is your diagnosis? What are the signs and symptoms of this condition?
10. Describe the clinical features and management of Orbital cellulitis.

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

11. Rehabilitation of the blind.

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12. Enucleation and its indications
13. Ocular signs in head injury patient.
14. Causes of cherry red spot in the Fundus.
15. Types of lens induced Glaucoma?
16. Clinical features of paralytic squint.

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17. Nodular scleritis.
18. Factors affecting the corneal transparency.
19. Causes for Nutritional optic neuropathy.
20. Functions of the Eye bank.

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Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

Multiple Choice Questions 10 x 1 = 10 Marks

21. i) Retinoscopy is done for
    1. Field of vision
    2. Error of refraction
    3. Curvature of retina

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    4. Retinal examination
22. ii) Which of the following is the best treatment option for gonococcal conjunctivitis
    1. Ethambutol
    2. Ceftriaxone
    3. Tetracycline

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    4. Erythromycin
23. iii) SAFE strategy for trachoma 'S' stands for
    1. Screening
    2. Surgery
    3. Steroids

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    4. Syringing
24. iv) Most common malignant tumour of lid in India is
    1. Squamous cell carcinoma
    2. Sebaceous gland carcinoma
    3. Malignant melanoma of lid

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    4. Hemangioma of Lid
25. v) An Optic nerve injury may result in all except
    1. Loss of vision in that eye
    2. Dilation of pupil
    3. Ptosis

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    4. Loss of light reflex

22. i) Most common cause of visual impairment in children in India is
    1. Refractive error
    2. Ocular injury
    3. Vitamin A deficiency

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    4. Cataract
23. ii) Stye is infection of
    1. Lacrimal gland
    2. Tarsal glands
    3. Zeis glands

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    4. Meibomian gland
24. iii) A patient comes with Superior subluxation of lens in both eyes. The most likely diagnosis is
    1. Marfans syndrome
    2. Weill Marchesani syndrome
    3. Homocystinuria

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    4. Sulfite oxidase deficiency
25. iv) The most common cause for unilateral proptosis is in India
    1. Lacrimal gland tumour
    2. Thyroid associated orbitopathy
    3. Neuroblastoma

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    4. Ewing sarcoma of the sphenoid Bone
26. v) All are causes of proliferative retinopathy except
    1. Central retinal vein occlusion
    2. Eales disease
    3. Diabetic retinopathy

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    4. Rubella retinopathy

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