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Download MPMSU MBBS 2nd Year Microbiology Paper I Feb 2023 mcq Question Paper

Download MPMSU (Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University) MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine, Bachelor of Surgery) 2nd Year Microbiology Paper I Feb 2023 mcq Previous Year Question Paper

This post was last modified on 09 March 2026

Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination Feb-2023
Subject- Microbiology
Time: 3:00 Hours
Paper- I (old scheme)

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Maximum Marks :40

Instructions:
a) Al questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary

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c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2. (c)
f)
MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener wil be considered as malpractice, such answers wil not be

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counted in marks and action wil be taken according to UFM rules of university.
g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30 words per marks. For example, if a question having 2 marks should answered in up to 60 marks.

Q1. Total MCQs: 16
16 x 1/2 = 8

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1. Which Microscope is based on the principle that differences in the refractive indices of bacterial cel s and the
surrounding medium make them clearly visible:
(a) Dark Ground
(b) Phase contrast
(c) Electron microscope

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(d) Confocal microscope
microscope
microscope
2. During which of the fol owing phase bacteria are most susceptible to antibiotics:
(a) Lag Phase

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(b) Log Phase
(c) Stationary Phase
(d) Phase of decline
3. Which of the fol owing statement does not apply to ethyl alcohol:
(a) it is used mainly as skin (b) it acts by denaturing

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(c) it is used in
(d) it is sporicidal
antiseptic
bacterial proteins
concentrations of 60-90%

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in water
4. Acute phase proteins are non specific proteins produced during an infection. Which of those mentioned below is
not an acute phase reactants:
(a) CRP
(b) Heat shock protein

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(c) Alpha-1 acid
(d) Bence-Jones proteins
glycoprotein
5. Which of the fol owing is a pro inflammatory marker:
(a) IL-4

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(b) IL-9
(c) IL-11
(d) IL-17
6. Diphtheria toxin has affinity for the fol owing tissue:
(a) Cardiac muscle

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(b) Adrenals
(c) Nerve endings
(d) Al of the above
7. Which of the fol owing characteristics can differentiate B. cereus from B. anthracis:
(a) Non-Capsulated

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(b) Motile
(c) Non susceptible to
(d) Al of the above
gamma phage
8. Multidrug resistant tuberculosis (MDR-TB) is due to M. tuberculosis strain resistant to:

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(a) Rifampicin only
(b) Isoniazid and
(c) Isoniazid only
(d) None of the above
Rifampicin

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9. Anton test is associated with:
(a) L. monocytogenes
(b) Proteus vulgaris
(c) E. cloacae
(d) Hafnia alvei

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10. MacConkey's medium with sorbitol instead of lactose is used for detection of E. coli strains:
(a) O55
(b) O15
(c) O8
(d) O157

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11. Which one of the fol owing bacteria is included in HACEK group bacteria:
(a) E. coli
(b) Enterobacter
(c) Eikenella corrodens
(d) Edwardsiel a

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12. Which of the fol owing bacteria can cause rat bite fever:
(a) Streptobacil us
(b) L. monocytogenes
(c) Chromobacterium
(d) Flavobacterium

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moniliformis
violaceum
meningosepticum
13. Generation time for most of the pathogenic bacteria is:
(a) 20 sec

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(b) 20 min
(c) 20 hours
(d) 20 days
14. Transport medium for Vibrio cholerae is:
(a) Selenite -F

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(b) Amies
(c) V-R medium
(d) Stuart's
15. Malta fever is also cal ed as:
(a) Undulating fever

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(b) Relapsing fever
(c) Rat bite fever
(d) Cat scratch fever
16. Which of the fol owing is an example of type I hypersensitivity?
(a) Lepromin test

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(b) Casoni test
(c) Tuberculin test
(d) Arthus reaction
Q2. Long Answer Questions
2 x 5 = 10

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a. Discuss in details the structure and functions of bacterial cel wal . Discuss difference in cel wal of gram
positive & gram-negative bacteria.
b. Classify Rickettsia. Write in detail about pathogenesis and lab diagnosis of typhus fever.
Q3. Brief Answer Questions
4 x 3 = 12

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a. Laboratory diagnosis of Gas gangrene.
b. Heterophile agglutination reactions.
c. Drug resistant tuberculosis.
d. Monoclonal antibodies.
Q4. Short Answer Questions 10 x 1 = 10

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a. Mention four toxins of Streptococcus pyogenes.
b. Name four zoonotic diseases caused by bacteria.
c. Satel itism.
d. Enumerate the primary mediators of anaphylaxis.
e. Significant bacteriuria.

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f. Why Biological false positive reaction occurs in VDRL test.
g. Which sugar fermentation test is used for differentiation of Gonococci from Meningococci?
h. Name the most common causative agent of scrofula.
i. Enumerate Sterilization controls used for Autoclave.
j. What is the working principle of Light microscope?

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