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Download MPMSU MBBS 2nd Year Microbiology Paper II June 2023 Question Paper

Download MPMSU (Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University) MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine, Bachelor of Surgery) 2nd Year Microbiology Paper II June 2023 Previous Year Question Paper

This post was last modified on 09 March 2026

Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination June-2023
Subject- Microbiology
Paper- II (new scheme)
Time: 3:00 Hours

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Maximum Marks :100

Instructions:
a) Al questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary

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c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2. (c)
f)
MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener wil be considered as malpractice, such answers wil not be

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counted in marks and action wil be taken according to UFM rules of university.
g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30 words per marks. For example, if a question having 2 marks should answered in up to 60 marks.

Q1. Total MCQs: 10
10 x 1 = 10

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1. The fol owing are the specific tests for diagnosis of syphilis except.
(a) Treponema Pal idum
(b) Fluorescent
(c) Rapid Plasma Reagin
(d) T. Pal idum

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Immobilization test (TPI)
Treponemal Antibody
Test (RPR)
Hemagglutination Test
Absorption Test (FTA-ABS)

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(TPHA)
2. Which of the fol owing statements regarding interferon-gamma release assays is correct?
(a) They are useful for
(b) They are performed
(c) They are used as

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(d) They detect antigens
evaluating
using molecular probes
alternatives to the
present in al

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immunocompromise d
that detect organism DNA. tuberculin skin test to
Mycobacterium species.
patients for active
evaluate for latent

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tuberculosis.
tuberculosis.
3. Vector for leishmaniasis:
(a) Sandfly
(b) Reduvi d bugs

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(c) Tsetse fly
(d) Anopheles mosquito
4. Which bacteria is cal ed as Pfeiffer's bacil us?
(a) Corynebacterium
(b) Haemophil us

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(c) Bacil us anthracis
(d) Pseudomonas
diptheriae
influenzae
aeruginosa

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5. Al of the fol owing are true about rhinovirus, except:
(a) More than 100
(b) Acid-labile
(c) Incubation period is 10- (d) Transmitted by
antigenic types have been

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14 days
respiratory route
identified
6. Laboratory infections can be acquired when working with viruses unless good laboratory safety practices are
fol owed. Which of the fol owing is not a good biosafety practice?

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(a) Use of biosafety hoods (b) Use of laboratory coats (c) Avoidance of pipetting
(d) Flushing experimental
and gloves
by mouth
waste down laboratory

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sink
7. The most effective way of preventing tetanus:
(a) Hyperbaric oxygen
(b) Antibiotics
(c) Tetanus toxoid

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(d) Surgical debridement
and toilet
8. Which of fol owing is correct about prions?
(a) Destroyed by
(b) Long incubation period (c) Immunogenic

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(d) Nucleic acid present
autoclaving at 121?C

9. Al of the fol owing statements regarding Mycoplasmas are correct except:
(a) They are susceptible to (b) They lack a cel wal .
(c) They have an affinity

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(d) They can be cultivated
?-lactam agents.
for mammalian cel
in cel -free media.
membranes.

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10. Al of the fol owing parasites can cause encephalitis except.
(a) Acanthamocha
(b) Entamoeba histolytica
(c) Toxoplasma gondi
(d) Naegleria

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Q2. Long Answer Questions
2 x 20 = 40
a. 65-year-old female diabetic patient admitted to the hospital with complaints of swel ing in the arm with pus
discharge. On physical examination, the local area was found to be red, warm and tender. The swel ing has a
feel of fluid fil ed when pressed. Pus was aspirated and was sent to microbiology. On microscopic

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examination, Gram positive cocci in clusters seen. Based on this history:
1. What is the most probable etiological agent? Enumerate the bacterial agents causing this condition.
2. Discuss morphology & cultural characteristics of above organism.
3. List the virulence factors of this organism.
4. Briefly discuss the laboratory diagnosis.

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b. Enumerate neurotropic viruses. Discuss the morphology, transmission & pathogenecity of Polio virus.
Comment on immunoprophylaxis of Poliomyelitis.
Q3. Brief Answer Questions
6 x 05 = 30
a. Laboratory diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis.

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b. Laboratory diagnosis of leprosy.
c. Nocardiosis.
d. Mucocutaneous Candidiasis
e. Nonspecific urethritis
f. Nosocomial diarrhoea

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Q4. Short Answer Questions
10 x 2 = 20
a. Elek's gel precipitation test
b. Enumerate Virulence factors of Bordetel a pertussis.
c. Draw a wel labeled diagram of Influenza virus.

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d. Enumerate etiological agents of acute encephalitis syndrome (AES)
e. Give reason why urine samples for culture should be processed as soon as possible after col ection.
f. Enumerate culture media used for laboratory diagnosis of bacteremia.
g. Draw a wel labeled diagram of Trophozoite of Trichomonas vaginalis
h. Enumerate the organisms with oncogenic potential.

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i. Enumerate infections caused by Herpes Simplex Virus.
j. Enumerate agents of Superficial mycoses