Download RGUHS MBBS 2nd Year 1027 Pathology Paper II Nov 2025 Question Paper

QP CODE : 1027
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase ? II (CBME) Degree Examination - 21-Nov-2025
Time: Three Hours
Max. Marks: 100

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PATHOLOGY ? PAPER II (RS-4, RS-5 & RS-6)
Q.P. CODE: 1027
(QP contains two pages)
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

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LONG ESSAYS
2 x 10 = 20 Marks
1.
A middle-aged female presented with migratory polyarthritis, weak heart sound,
tachycardia, pericardial friction rub following recurrent attacks of Pharyngitis.

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a) What is your diagnosis?
b) Describe the pathophysiology and morphology of this condition.
c) List the complications associated with this condition
2.
A 50-year-old postmenopausal woman presented with hard lump of 8x8 cm in the lower

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outer quadrant of left breast. Fine needle aspiration cytology showed groups and clusters
of ductal epithelial cells with cellular and nuclear atypia.
a) What is your diagnosis?
b) Discuss the morphology and list the types of the above condition.
c) Enumerate the prognostic factors of the disease.

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SHORT ESSAYS
8 x 5 = 40 Marks
3.
Differences between Ulcerative colitis and Crohn's disease
4.

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Discuss the gross, microscopy, X ray appearance of Osteoclastoma
5.
Describe the etiopathogenesis and morphological types of Emphysema
6.
Describe the pathogenesis and morphological findings in Hashimoto's thyroiditis

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7.
Describe the etiopathogenesis and complications of Acute Pyelonephritis
8.
Describe the morphology of acute and chronic hepatitis. Add a note on outcome of chronic
hepatitis

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9.
Cryptorchidism
10.
Endometriosis
SHORT ANSWERS

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10 x 3 = 30 Marks
11.
Krukenberg tumor
12.
Gout

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13.
Pheochromocytoma
14.
Basal cell carcinoma
15.

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Enumerate the glial neoplasms of brain
16.
Warthin's tumour
17.
Diabetic kidney

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18.
List the complications associated with lung cancer
19.
Types of Reed Sternberg Cells
20.

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Complications of cirrhosis
Multiple Choice Questions
10 x 1 = 10 Marks
21 i)
Which of the following is most reliable feature of malignant transformation of

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pheochromocytoma?
A. Presence of mitotic figures
B. Presence of metastasis to other organs
C. Vascular/ capsular invasion
D. All of the above

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Page 1 of 2

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QP CODE : 1027
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
21 ii)
A pediatrician performing an ophthalmoscopic examination on a four-year-old boy, notices

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several small pigmented nodules in his irises. He also notices six light brown macules on
the trunk of the child of variable sizes. This boy may have a propensity to develop tumors
in which of the following structures?
A. Bladder
B. Colon

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C. Peripheral nerve
D. Skin
21 iii)
Paget's disease of the bone is also called
A. Osteitis deformans

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B. Brittle bone disease
C. Fibrous dysplasia
D. Osteomalacia
21 iv)
Hematuria with red cell cast and dysmorphic RBC are seen in:

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A. Acute glomerulonephritis
B. Renal TB
C. Renal Calculi
D. Chronic renal failure
21 v)

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Inflammatory Causes of pleural effusion include all EXCEPT
A. Tuberculosis
B. Bronchiectasis
C. Lung infarct
D. Renal failure

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22 i)
Choriocarcinoma is characterized by all EXCEPT
A. Primarily trophoblastic tumor
B. It can occur following hydatidiform mole
C. Villi present

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D. It can metastasize to lungs
22 ii)
In an individual with suspected myocardial infarction of 24 hours duration, the serum
enzyme estimation of choice is
A. Lactate dehydrogenase

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B. Myoglobin
C. Creatine phosphokinase-MB
D. Oxaloacetate transaminase
22 iii)
Myasthenia gravis is associated with

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A. Hypergammaglobulinemia
B. Thymoma
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
D. Hepatic adenoma
22 iv)

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Chronic ulcerative colitis usually starts in the:
A. Hepatic or splenic flexure
B. Rectosigmoid area
C. Transverse colon
D. Terminal ileum

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22 v)
Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia results from
A. Gilberts jaundice
B. Dubin Johnson syndrome
C. Physiological jaundice

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D. Decreased hepatic uptake
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