Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
MBBS Phase ? II (CBME) Degree Examination - 25-Aug-2025
Time: Three Hours
Max. Marks: 100
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MICROBIOLOGY ? PAPER II (RS-4, RS-5 & RS-6)Q.P. CODE: 1031
(QP contains two pages)
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
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LONG ESSAYS2 x 10 = 20 Marks
1.
A farmer presented to outpatient department with history of papulovesicular lesions over the
neck region, which later on developed into a coal-black, necrotic wound for the past 3 to 4
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days. Gram stain of a tissue from that necrotic area revealed Gram positive bacilli arrangedin chains.
a) What is clinical diagnosis and causative agent?
b) Describe the pathogenesis and various forms of clinical presentation of this infection.
c) Describe laboratory investigations to confirm the diagnosis.
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2.A 20-year young boy presents to STI Clinic, with history of painful ulcers over genitalia. On
examination they were vesicular ulcers with enlarged tender inguinal lymphadenopathy. The
Tzanck preparation from the scrapings collected from the base of the lesions showed giant
cells with intra nuclear inclusions.
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a) What is the clinical diagnosis and causative agent?b) Enumerate the organisms causing genital ulcers and briefly mention the differentiating
features?
c) Add a note on other infections caused by this agent?
SHORT ESSAYS
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8 x 5 = 40 Marks3.
Write briefly about clinical manifestations and laboratory diagnosis of Tubercular meningitis
4.
Post exposure prophylaxis of Rabies
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5.Primary amoebic encephalitis
6.
Ventilator Associated Pneumonia
7.
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Enumerate the viruses causing respiratory tract infections. Describe the laboratory diagnosisof Influenza Virus
8.
Discuss the pathogenesis and laboratory diagnosis of bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis.
9.
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Bacterial vaginosis10.
Congenital Rubella syndrome
SHORT ANSWERS
10 x 3 = 30 Marks
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11.Enumerate three bacterial agents of acute pyogenic meningitis
12.
Expand the following with respect to tuberculosis:
a) CBNAAT b) MGIT c) LPA
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13.Nipah virus
14.
Infective and diagnostic forms of Paragonimiasis
15.
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Morphology of Trichomonas vaginalis16.
Risk factors for Vulvovaginal Candidiasis
17.
Mention the vectors of the following diseases
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a) Dengue b) Kyasanur Forest Disease c) Scrub typhus18.
Prophylaxis of Japanese Encephalitis
19.
Enumerate the dimorphic fungi
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20.Otomycosis
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QP CODE : 1031
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
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Multiple Choice Questions10 x 1 = 10 Marks
21 i)
Neonatal meningitis acquired through infected birth canal is due to:
A. S.pyogenes
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B. Viridians streptococciC. S.agalactiae
D. S.pneumoniae
21 ii)
Zero dose of OPV is given
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A. At BirthB. At one month
C. When child is having diarrhea
D. At the age of 2 years
21 iii) Which of the following is the most effective way of preventing tetanus?
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A. Hyperbaric oxygenB. Antibiotics
C. Tetanus Toxoid
D. Surgical debridement and toilet
21 iv) Drug resistance in Mycobacterium tuberculosis is due to:
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A. Point MutationB. Enzymatic action
C. Efflux pumps
D. Modification of binding Protein
21 v)
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Giant cell pneumonia is a complication of infection with which of the following virusesA. Measles virus
B. Rubella Virus
C. Mumps virus
D. Respiratory syncytial virus
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22 i)"Malignant pustule" is a term used for:
A. An infected malignant melanoma
B. A carbuncle
C. A rapidly spreading rodent ulcer
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D. Cutaneous Anthrax22 ii)
The best protection will be achieved if first dose of Post Exposure Prophylaxis for HIV is
taken within
A. 2 hours of exposure
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B. 6 hours of exposureC. 12 hours of exposure
D. 72 hours of exposure
22 iii) In a post-operative ward, five patients developed wound infection with the same organism.
The best method to prevent cross infection in the same ward is
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A. Give antibiotics to all other patients in the wardB. Fumigate the ward
C. Disinfect the ward with sodium hypochlorite
D. Practice hand hygiene measures
22 iv) Metal sharp waste should be segregated in which color box?
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A. YellowB. Red
C. Blue
D. White
22 v)
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All the following are Opportunistic fungi EXCEPTA. Cryptococcus neoformans
B. Rhizopus arrhizus
C. Candida albicans
D. Histoplasma capsulatum
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