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Download MPMSU MBBS 2nd Year Microbiology Paper I Apr 2024 Question Paper

Download MPMSU (Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University) MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine, Bachelor of Surgery) 2nd Year Microbiology Paper I Apr 2024 Previous Year Question Paper

This post was last modified on 10 March 2026

Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University,
Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination April-
2024
Subject-Microbiology

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Paper-I (new scheme)
Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks :100
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary

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c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be
written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order
with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2.

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(c)
f) MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of
repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be
considered as malpractice, such answers will not be
counted in marks and action will be taken according to

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UFM rules of university.
g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30
words per marks. For example, if a question having 2
marks should answered in up to 60 marks.
Q1. Total MCQs: 10

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1) India ink staining is used to demonstrate: -

10 x 1 = 10
(a) Cell wall
(b) Bacterial capsule
(c) Bacterial flagella

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(d) Bacterial spore
2) Active immunity is not acquired by: -
(a) Infection
(b) Vaccination
(c) Transplacental

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Immunoglobulin Transfer
(d) Sub-clinical infection
3) Which of the following confirms the isolate of V.
cholera as Ogawa serotype: -
(a) If agglutinated with

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Ogawa antiserum
(b) If agglutinated with
Inaba antiserum
(c) If agglutinated with
Hikojima antiserum

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(d) If agglutinated with
both Ogawa and Inaba
antiserum
4) Culture media for transport of stool sample in
suspected case of Shigellosis: -

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(a) Deoxycholate medium (b) Blood agar
(c) Nutrient broth
(d) Buffered glycerol saline

5) HIV RNA detection (by RT-PCR) reduces the window
period to,

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(a) 1-14 days
(b) 3 weeks
(c) 4 weeks
(d) 8 weeks
6) In revised Jones criteria for acute rheumatic fever, the

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major manifestations include all except:
(a) Subcutaneous nodules
(b) Pan carditis
(c) Arthritis (migrating
polyarthritis)

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(d) Increased ASO
antibodies
7) Maltese cross form is seen in:-
(a) Plasmodium vivax
(b) Babesiosis

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(c) Brucellosis
(d) Bartonellosis
8) All the following pathogenic bacteria fulfill Koch's
postulates, except: -
(a) Treponema pallidum (b) Yersinia pestis

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(c) Bacillus anthracis
(d) Helicobacter pylori
9) Which of the following is associated with
cholangiocarcinoma: -
(a) Ascaris

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(b) Ancylostoma
(c) Enterobius
(d) Strongyloides
10) Which of the following is associated with
cholangiocarcinoma: -

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(a) Clonorchis sinensis
(b) Fasciola hepatica
(c) Fasciolopsis buski
(d) Toxocara canis
Q2. Long Answer Questions

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a) A 14-year-old boy presented with a history of fever
with headache, malaise, and abdominal discomfort for the
last
8 days. Fever was of the remittent type, with a gradual
rise in a step-ladder fashion. On examination, he was

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febrile & temperature of 101 ?C, along with relative
bradycardia, a coated tongue, & soft, palpable spleen.
(3+5+8+4) 2 x 20 = 40
I. What will be the most common probable diagnosis &
etiological agent?

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II. Describe the pathogenesis of this condition in detail.
III. Make a plan for sample collection & laboratory
diagnosis of this disease.
IV. Add a note on prophylactic measures for this
disease.

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b) Define antimicrobial resistance & its types. Discuss in
detail the mechanism of antimicrobial drug resistance in
bacteria. Add a note on the various methods used for
antimicrobial susceptibility testing. (5+7+8)
Q3. Brief Answer Questions

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a) Write about the pathogenesis and lab diagnosis of
Shigellosis. 6 x 05 = 30
b) Explain blood culture method for detection of Infective
Endocarditis.
c) Discuss the laboratory diagnosis of HIV with a special

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mention of strategies for diagnosis during the window
period.
d) Describe life cycle of Echinococcus granulosus.
Discuss pathogenesis & laboratory diagnosis of
Echinococcosis.

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e) Discuss pathogenesis, clinical features and laboratory
diagnosis of Histoplasmosis.
f) Describe and discuss the role of beneficence &
autonomy as guiding principles in patient care. List a few
scenarios

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in which conflict between beneficence & autonomy may
arise.
Q4. Short Answer Questions

a) Enumerate 4 differences between exotoxins &
endotoxins. 10 x 2 = 20

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b) Name 4 live attenuated vaccine.
c) Enumerate any 4 examples of Type III hypersensitivity
reactions.
d) Passive agglutination test.
e) Bacterial growth curve.

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C. Name 4 trematodes.
b. Enumerate HACEK group of microorganisms.
d. Name 4 cardinal principle of Bioethics.
e. Draw life cycle of Entamoeba histolytica.
f. Enlist complications of Plasmodium falciparum

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infection.
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