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Download MPMSU MBBS 2nd Year Microbiology Paper II June 2023 mcq Question Paper

Download MPMSU (Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University) MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine, Bachelor of Surgery) 2nd Year Microbiology Paper II June 2023 mcq Previous Year Question Paper

This post was last modified on 10 March 2026

Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University,
Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination June-
2023
Subject- Microbiology

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Paper- II (new scheme)
Time: 3:00 Hours
Maximum Marks :100
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary

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c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be
written strictly according to serial order of question
paper.
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order

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with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1.
(a) 2. (c)
f) MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of
repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be
considered as malpractice, such answers will not be

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counted in marks and action will be taken according to
UFM rules of university.
g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30
words per marks. For example, if a question having 2
marks should answered in up to 60 marks.

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Q1. Total MCQs: 10

1. The following are the specific tests for diagnosis of
syphilis except. 10 x 1 = 10
(a) Treponema Pallidum Fluorescent Immobilization
test (TPI)

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(b) Rapid Plasma Reagin Test (RPR)
(c) Treponemal Antibody Absorption Test (FTA-ABS)
(d) T. Pallidum Hemagglutination Test (TPHA)
2. Which of the following statements regarding
interferon-gamma release assays is correct?

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(a) They are useful for evaluating immunocompromised
patients for active tuberculosis.
(b) They are performed using molecular probes that
detect organism DNA.
(c) They are used as alternatives to the tuberculin skin

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test to evaluate for latent tuberculosis.
(d) They detect antigens present in all Mycobacterium
species.
3. Vector for leishmaniasis:
(a) Sandfly

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(b) Reduviid bugs
(c) Tsetse fly
(d) Anopheles mosquito
4. Which bacteria is called as Pfeiffer's bacillus?
(a) Corynebacterium diptheriae

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(b) Haemophillus influenzae
(c) Bacillus anthracis
(d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

5. All of the following are true about rhinovirus, except:
(a) More than 100 antigenic types have been identified

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(b) Acid-labile
(c) Incubation period is 10-14 days
(d) Transmitted by respiratory route
6. Laboratory infections can be acquired when working
with viruses unless good laboratory safety practices are

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followed. Which of the following is not a good biosafety
practice?
(a) Use of biosafety hoods
(b) Use of laboratory coats and gloves
(c) Avoidance of pipetting by mouth

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(d) Flushing experimental waste down laboratory sink
7. The most effective way of preventing tetanus:
(a) Hyperbaric oxygen
(b) Antibiotics
(c) Tetanus toxoid

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(d) Surgical debridement and toilet
8. Which of following is correct about prions?
(a) Destroyed by autoclaving at 121?C
(b) Long incubation period
(c) Immunogenic

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(d) Nucleic acid present
9. All of the following statements regarding Mycoplasmas
are correct except:
(a) They are susceptible to B-lactam agents.
(b) They lack a cell wall.

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(c) They have an affinity for mammalian cell
membranes.
(d) They can be cultivated in cell-free media.
10. All of the following parasites can cause encephalitis
except.

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(a) Acanthamocha
(b) Entamoeba histolytica
(c) Toxoplasma gondii
(d) Naegleria
Q2. Long Answer Questions

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a. 65-year-old female diabetic patient admitted to the
hospital with complaints of swelling in the arm with pus
discharge. On physical examination, the local area was
found to be red, warm and tender. The swelling has a feel
of fluid filled when pressed. Pus was aspirated and was

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sent to microbiology. On microscopic examination, Gram
positive cocci in clusters seen. Based on this history:
1. What is the most probable etiological agent?
Enumerate the bacterial agents causing this condition.
2. Discuss morphology & cultural characteristics of

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above organism.
3. List the virulence factors of this organism.
4. Briefly discuss the laboratory diagnosis. 2 x 20 = 40

b. Enumerate neurotropic viruses. Discuss the
morphology, transmission & pathogenecity of Polio virus.

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Comment on immunoprophylaxis of Poliomyelitis.
Q3. Brief Answer Questions
a. Laboratory diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis.
10 x 2 = 20
b. Laboratory diagnosis of leprosy.

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c. Nocardiosis.
d. Mucocutaneous Candidiasis
e. Nonspecific urethritis
f. Nosocomial diarrhoea
Q4. Short Answer Questions

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a. Elek's gel precipitation test 6 x 05 = 30
b. Enumerate Virulence factors of Bordetella pertussis.
c. Draw a well labeled diagram of Influenza virus.
d. Enumerate etiological agents of acute encephalitis
syndrome (AES)

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e. Give reason why urine samples for culture should be
processed as soon as possible after collection.
f. Enumerate culture media used for laboratory diagnosis
of bacteremia.
g. Draw a well labeled diagram of Trophozoite of

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Trichomonas vaginalis
h. Enumerate the organisms with oncogenic potential.

i. Enumerate infections caused by Herpes Simplex Virus.
j. Enumerate agents of Superficial mycoses
***

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