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Download MPMSU MBBS 2nd Year Microbiology Paper I Jan 2025 mcq Question Paper

Download MPMSU (Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University) MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine, Bachelor of Surgery) 2nd Year Microbiology Paper I Jan 2025 mcq Previous Year Question Paper

This post was last modified on 10 March 2026

Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University,
Jabalpur
MBBS Second Professional Examination
January-2025
Subject- Microbiology

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Paper-I (new scheme)
Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks :100
a) All questions are compulsory
b) Draw diagrams wherever necessary

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c) Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be
written strictly according to serial order of question paper.
d) MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
e) Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order
with black or blue pen in brackets; for example: - 1. (a) 2.

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(c)
f) MCQ has to be answered only once, any kind of
repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be
considered as malpractice, such answers will not be
counted in marks and action will be taken according to

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UFM rules of university.

g) Subjective answer should be answered in up to 30
words per marks. For example, if a question having 2
marks should answered in up to 60 marks.
Q1. Total MCQs: 10 10 x 1 = 10

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1. Culture medium with low redox potential is required
for the growth of:
(a) Clostridium tetani (b) Escherichia coli (c)
Pseudomonas (d) None of the above
aeruginosa

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2. The most important specimen for isolation of
Salmonella Typhi in first week of enteric fever is
(a) Blood (b) Faeces (c) Urine (d) Pus
3. Patch test is done for which type of reaction?
(a) Schwartzman reaction (b) Atopy (c) Arthus reaction

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(d) Contact dermatitis
4. Which of the following are responsible for hyperacute
rejection?
(a) Preformed antibodies (b) In-situ antibody (c)
Lymphokines (d) All of the these

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formation
5. Fasciola hepatica infects
(a) Liver (b) Bile duct (c) Both liver and bile duct (d)
Small intestine
6. Eschar is a pathognomonic feature of -

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(a) Typhus fever (b) Scrub typhus (c) Q fever (d)
Spotted fever

7. The route of administration of measles vaccine is
(a) Intramuscular (b) Intradermal (c) subcutaneous (d)
Oral

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8. Toll-like receptors (TLRs) are
(a) Present on surface of (b) Transmembrane (c)
Molecules that bind to (d) Nucleotide-binding
phagocytes to bind to receptors present on the surface of
microbes oligomerization domain

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mannose rich glycans surface of macrophages like
receptors to recognize
and dendritic cells intracellular bacterial cell
products
9. Passive immunization of hepatitis B infection is good

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for -
(a) Controlling adverse (b) Prevention of carrier (c)
Controlling the spread (d) Prevention of infection
reactions state of disease
10. The following substances can be added to produce an

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anaerobic environment except -
(a) Glutathione (b) Ascorbic acid (c) Cysteine (d)
Glycerol
Q2. Long Answer Questions 2 x 20 = 40
a. A 6-year-old boy came to the pediatric OPD for school

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health check-up. On examination he had pallor. Peripheral
blood examination revealed microcytic, hypochromic
anaemia. Stool microscopy showed round to oval non-bile-
stained egg with segmented ovum (four blastomeres).

I. Identify the etiological agent responsible for this

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condition?
II. Enlist the microorganisms causing iron deficiency
anaemia.
III. Describe the life cycle.
IV. Describe the pathogenesis.

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V. Mention the diagnostic modalities available for this
clinical condition.
b. A 12 years old male child was admitted in the pediatric
ward with a history of remittent fever which increased
gradually over 10 days. He was admitted with complaints

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of loss of appetite, pain in abdomen and general
weakness. On examination he was found to have a
temperature of 102?F with pallor and coated tongue,
relative bradycardia, mild splenomegaly and abdominal
tenderness. His hemogram showed low TLC count,

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leukopenia with relative lymphocytosis. His blood culture
was positive and non-lactose fermenting colonies were
isolated from MacConkey agar. On further identification,
it was found to be oxidase negative, catalase positive,
negative for indole, citrate and urease and H2S gas was

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produced with K/A reaction on TSI agar.
I. What is your probable diagnosis and etiological agent
responsible for this condition?
II. Describe the pathogenesis.
III. Mention the diagnostic modalities available for this

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condition including the sample collection methods.
IV. Add a note on drug resistance for this clinical

condition.
V. Add a note on the treatment and vaccine available
for this clinical condition.

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Q3. Brief Answer Questions 6 x 05 = 30
a. Steam sterilization 05
b. What is full disclosure? Mention the exceptional
conditions where full disclosure is not made. 05
c. Classical complement pathway 05

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d. Mention the methods to demonstrate and functions of
bacterial capsule. 05
e. Describe transferable drug resistance. 05
f. Chikungunya 05
Q4. Short Answer Questions 10 x 2 = 20

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a. Enumerate Diarrheagenic E.coli 02
b. Draw well labelled diagram of IgA 02
c. Enlist two parasitic causes of splenomegaly and
cholangitis. 02
d. NACO Strategic algorithm Ila and IIb for HIV. 02

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e. Laboratory diagnosis of fungal infections. 02
f. Enumerate two advantages of live vaccine. 02
g. Mention four differences between MHC class I and
MHC class II. 02
h. Mention four difference between endotoxin and

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exotoxin. 02

i. Staging of vaccine vial monitor. 02
j. Name the four rules of autonomy 02
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