Download MPMSU MBBS Final Year Feb 2024 Subject General Medicine New Scheme Paper I Question Paper

Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks : 100

Instructions:

1. All questions are compulsory.
2. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.
3. Answers of Questions and Sub-questions must be written strictly according to the serial order of question paper.

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4. MCQs have to be answered in theory answer book.
5. Please write MCQ answers neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets, e.g. 1.(a) 2.(b).
6. MCQs answered only once; cutting, erasing or whitener is malpractice.
7. Subjective answers should be answered in up to 30 words per mark.

Q.1 Total MCQs : 10 10 × 1 = 10

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1. SAAG is > 1.1 g/dL in all except:
   1. TB peritonitis
   2. CCF
   3. Cirrhosis
   4. Budd-Chiari

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2. Stroke is characterised by:
   1. UMN facial nerve palsy
   2. LMN facial nerve palsy
   3. Ptosis
   4. Wasting of thenar muscles

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3. Which hormonal agent is used as chemotherapy for breast cancer?
   1. Tamoxifen
   2. Rivoxaban
   3. Methotrexate
   4. Ifosfamide

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4. What is a recognized complication of methyl alcohol poisoning?
   1. Blindness
   2. Convulsion
   3. Respiratory distress
   4. Metabolic alkalosis

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5. Drug of choice in acute management of PSVT is:
   1. Amiodarone
   2. Adenosine
   3. Verapamil
   4. Metoprolol

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6. HLA-B27 is associated with which of the following?
   1. Ankylosing spondylitis
   2. Reiter's syndrome
   3. Psoriasis
   4. Behçet's disease

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7. A 40 yr-old female with skip lesions on colonoscopy, chronic diarrhoea and weight loss is suffering from:
   1. Ulcerative colitis
   2. Crohn's disease
   3. Koch's abdomen
   4. Colorectal cancer

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8. A 65 yr-old male developed right-sided hemiplegia with impaired naming, decreased fluency but preserved comprehension. What type of speech disorder is he suffering from?
   1. Wernicke's aphasia
   2. Broca's aphasia
   3. Global aphasia
   4. Conduction aphasia

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9. Which of the following is not a cause of mid-diastolic murmur?
   1. Mitral stenosis
   2. Carey Coombs murmur
   3. Austin Flint murmur
   4. VSD

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10. Palpable purpura is seen in:
    1. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
    2. Quinine therapy
    3. Heparin-associated thrombocytopenia
    4. Leucocytoclastic vasculitis

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Q.2 Long Answer Questions 2 × 20 = 40

1. Describe etio-pathogenesis, clinical features, diagnosis and management of acute rheumatic fever.
2. Write in brief the etiology, clinical features, complications and management of tubercular meningitis.

Q.3 Brief Answer Questions 6 × 5 = 30

1. Describe pancytopenia and its management.

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2. Management of organo-phosphorous poisoning.
3. Clinical features and management of acute severe asthma.
4. Distinguishing features of hemorrhagic vs non-hemorrhagic stroke.
5. Clinical features and complications of cirrhosis of liver.
6. Diagnosis and management of rheumatoid arthritis.

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Q.4 Short Answer Questions 10 × 2 = 20

1. Treatment of status epilepticus.
2. Clinical features of Plummer–Wilson syndrome.
3. Duke's criteria for diagnosis of infective endocarditis.
4. Four causes of spastic paraplegia.

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5. Diagnostic criteria for SLE.
6. DMARDs.
7. Child-Pugh score.
8. Drugs used in management of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF).
9. Enumerate four occupational diseases.

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10. Types of heart block.

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