Download MPMSU MBBS Final Year JAN FEB 2020 General Medicine Paper I Question Paper

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Q.1 Total MCQs: 20 20 x 1/2 = 10

1. What is the appropriate initial treatment for the symptoms of acute pericarditis?
   1. intravenous glucocorticoids
   2. oral amiodarone
   3. oral aspirin
   4. intravenous morphine

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2. Which of the following is not a feature of Kartagener's syndrome?
   1. Bronchiectasis
   2. Pancreatic insufficiency
   3. Situs inversus
   4. Sinusitis

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3. Systemic miliary tuberculosis spreads via?
   1. Artery
   2. Vein
   3. Bronchus
   4. Lymphatic

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4. Which of the following is a minor manifestation of acute rheumatic fever?
   1. Carditis
   2. Chorea
   3. Raised C-reactive protein
   4. Subcutaneous nodules

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5. CSF glucose level is:
   1. Half the plasma glucose
   2. 2/3 plasma glucose
   3. 1/3 plasma glucose
   4. Same as plasma glucose

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6. All are true about peripheral neuropathy except:
   1. Glove and stocking anaesthesia
   2. Proximal muscle weakness
   3. Nerve-conduction deficit

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7. Which of the following conditions may lead to exudative pleural effusions:
   1. Cirrhosis
   2. Nephrotic syndrome
   3. Congestive heart failure
   4. Bronchogenic carcinoma

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8. Fasciculations are seen in:
   1. UMN type of lesion
   2. LMN type of lesion
   3. Myoneural junction
   4. Peripheral neuropathy

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9. Iron is mainly absorbed in the:
   1. Stomach
   2. Duodenum
   3. Jejunum
   4. Ileum

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10. Most common complication of massive transfusion:
    1. Hyperkalemia
    2. Acidosis
    3. Hypothermia
    4. Hypocalcemia

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11. Hemiballismus is due to lesion in?
    1. Ipsilateral Caudate nucleus
    2. Contralateral sub-thalamic lesion
    3. Contralateral Putamen
    4. Ipsilateral sub-thalamic lesion

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12. Which of the following biomarkers is a structural protein rather than a cardiac enzyme?
    1. Troponin I
    2. Lactate dehydrogenase
    3. Creatine kinase
    4. Aspartate aminotransferase

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13. Sinus bradycardia is seen in all except:
    1. Sick sinus syndrome
    2. Hypothyroidism
    3. Raised intracranial tension
    4. Hypotension

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14. Which organism causes infection after splenectomy:
    1. H. influenza
    2. Staph aureus
    3. E. coli
    4. Klebsiella

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15. Rheumatoid arthritis commonly affects the:
    1. Lumbar spine
    2. Sacroiliac spine
    3. Cervical spine
    4. Thoracolumbar spine

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16. Not transmitted by blood transfusion:
    1. Hepatitis A
    2. Hepatitis B
    3. Hepatitis C
    4. Hepatitis E

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17. Palpable nerves are seen in:
    1. Charcot Marie Tooth disease
    2. Diabetes mellitus
    3. Neurosyphilis
    4. Myotonic dystrophy

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18. The commonest hepatotropic virus causing increased chronic carrier state is:
    1. HEV
    2. HAV
    3. HBV
    4. HCV

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19. Severity of Mitral stenosis is best identified by:
    1. Loud S1
    2. Loud opening snap
    3. Duration of mid-diastolic murmur
    4. Intensity of mid-diastolic murmur

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20. Incorrect about cerebellar disease is:
    1. Romberg sign
    2. Rebound phenomenon
    3. Dysdiadochokinesia
    4. Dysmetria

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Q.2 Long Answer Questions (4 x 5 = 20)

1. Discuss etiology, pathophysiology, clinical features and management of heart failure.
2. Describe diagnostic criteria, clinical features and treatment of Rheumatoid arthritis.
3. Discuss the etiology, pathophysiology and clinical features of Aplastic anemia.
4. Discuss etiology, clinical assessment and treatment of unilateral pleural effusion.

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Q.3 Short Answer Questions (4 x 3 = 12)

1. Diagnostic criteria of SLE.
2. Non alcoholic fatty liver disease.
3. Methanol poisoning.
4. Pulmonary function test.

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Q.4 Very Short Answer Questions (9 x 2 = 18)

1. Name four hepatotoxic drugs.
2. List four causes of hematemesis.
3. Auto antibodies in SLE.
4. Four causes of atrial fibrillation.

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5. Name four indications for bone marrow transplantation.
6. Four complications of seizures.
7. Four clinical features of sarcoidosis.
8. Four clinical features of migraine.
9. Name four anti-epileptic drugs.

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