Download MPMSU MBBS General Surgery NOVEMBER 2021 General Surgery Paper I Question Paper

Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur

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MBBS Final Part-2 Examination November-2021

Paper Code:- 21BM0107100261

Subject- General Surgery

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Paper -I

Time: 3Hours

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Maximum Marks : 60

Instructions:

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1. All questions are compulsory


2. Draw diagrams wherever necessary


3. Answers of Questions and Sub questions must be written strictly according to the serial order of question paper.

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4. MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book


5. Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets for example: 1. (a) 2. (b)



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6. MCQ has to be answered only once; any repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be considered malpractice. Such answers will not be counted in the marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of University.

Q.1 Total MCQs : 20 20 X 1/2 = 10

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1. Content of Sebaceous cyst includes:
   
   
   
   1. Desquamated epithelial debris
   
   

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   2. Keratin
   
   
   3. Sebum
   
   
   4. Pus

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2. Parotid duct opens opposite:
   

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   1. Upper canine tooth
   
   
   2. Lower canine tooth
   
   

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   3. Upper 2nd molar tooth
   
   
   4. Lower 2nd incisor tooth
   
   
   
   

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3. Following are true for split skin graft except:
   
   
   
   1. It is partial thickness graft

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   2. It is called Thiersch graft
   
   
   3. Humby knife is often used
   
   

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   4. Cosmetically it is superior to full thickness graft
   
   
   
   



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4. The widely used first investigation in a lady of 25 yrs with a breast lump is:
   
   
   
   1. USG
   
   
   2. CT scan

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   3. MRI
   
   
   4. FNAC
   
   

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5. Which is the best initial fluid for resuscitation during the shock state:
   
   
   

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   1. Crystalloids
   
   
   2. Colloids
   
   
   3. Blood

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   4. Plasma substitute
   
   
   
   

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6. Most common type of renal transplantation in India is:
   
   
   
   1. Allograft
   
   

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   2. Autograft
   
   
   3. Isograft
   
   
   4. Xenograft

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7. Primary closure of incised wound must be done within:
   

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   1. 2 hrs
   
   
   2. 4 hrs
   
   

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   3. 6 hrs
   
   
   4. 12 hrs
   
   
   
   

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8. Commonest organ injured in blast injury:
   
   
   
   1. Lung

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   2. Liver
   
   
   3. Spleen
   
   

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   4. Pancreas
   
   
   
   



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9. Which of the following is the most common diagnosis for tumor involving the lip?
   
   
   
   1. Squamous cell carcinoma
   
   
   2. Basal cell carcinoma

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   3. Malignant melanoma
   
   
   4. Keratoacanthoma
   
   

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10. Sialolithiasis is common in:
    
    
    

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    1. Sublingual salivary gland
    
    
    2. Parotid gland
    
    
    3. Accessory salivary gland

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    4. Submandibular salivary gland
    
    
    
    

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11. Twenty-four hours after admission to the surgical ICU, a postoperative patient is advised to have bright red blood through the nasogastric tube. All of the following have shown efficacy in preventing stress gastritis except:
    
    
    
    1. Proton pump inhibitors
    
    

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    2. Enteral diet
    
    
    3. Histamine-2 (H2) receptor antagonists
    
    
    4. Antacids

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12. The physiologic parameters used in the definition of SIRS include all of the following except:
    

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    1. Temperature lower than 36°C
    
    
    2. Respiratory rate greater than 20 breaths/min
    
    

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    3. PaO2 less than 32 mm Hg
    
    
    4. Systolic blood pressure lower than 90 mm Hg
    
    
    
    

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13. For which of the following conditions perioperative prophylactic antibiotics are least indicated:
    
    
    
    1. Simple inflamed appendix

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    2. Gastrectomy
    
    
    3. Colonic perforation
    
    

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    4. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy due to acute cholecystitis
    
    
    
    



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Q.2 Long Answer Questions 4X5 = 20

1. Discuss clinical features & management of benign prostatic hyperplasia.

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2. Discuss presentation & management of intestinal tuberculosis.


3. Discuss management of renal carcinoma.



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4. Discuss clinical features & management of acute pancreatitis.

Q.3 Short Answer Questions 4X3 = 12

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1. Tracheo-esophageal fistula


2. Hydatid cyst of liver



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3. Early gastric cancer


4. Vesical calculus

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Q.4 Very Short Answer Questions = 18

1. Hypersplenism



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2. Spinal anaesthesia


3. Tumour markers


4. Goodsall's Rule

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5. Sliding Hernia


6. I.V.P.



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7. Ochsner-Sherren regimen


8. Ladd' procedure


9. Barrett's esophagus

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Section-B (Orthopaedic Surgery) Marks-20

Q.1 Long Answer Questions 2X5 = 10

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1. Discuss clinical features, pathogenesis & management of Tubercular arthritis of Hip.


2. Classify Epiphyseal injuries & their management.

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Q.2 Short Answer Questions 2X3 = 06

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1. Fracture of necessity


2. Club foot

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Q.4 Very Short Answer Questions 4X1 = 04

1. Osteoid Osteoma



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2. Looser's Zone


3. Alendronate


4. Chance fracture

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