Download MPMSU MBBS General Surgery NOVEMBER 2021 General Surgery Paper II Question Paper

Madhya Pradesh Medical Science University, Jabalpur

MBBS Final Part-2 Examination November-2021

Paper Code:- 21BM0107100262

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Subject- General Surgery

Paper -II

Time: 3Hours

Maximum Marks : 60

Instructions:

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1. All questions are compulsory
2. Draw diagrams wherever necessary
3. Answers of Questions and Sub questions must be written strictly according to the serial order of question paper.
4. MCQ has to be answered in theory answer book
5. Please write MCQ answer neatly and in serial order with black or blue pen in brackets for example: 1.(a) 2.(b)

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6. MCQ has to be answered only once; any kind for repetition or cutting or erasing or whitener will be considered malpractice. Such answers will not be counted in the marks and action will be taken according to UFM rules of University.

Q.1 Total MCQs : 20 20 X 1/2 = 10

1. Most common cause of lower GI bleed in India is:
   1. Cancer rectosigmoid
   2. Benign tumour
   3. Hemorrhoids

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   4. Non-specific ulcer
2. Gas under both domes of diaphragm is characteristic of:
   1. Perforation peritonitis
   2. Hydropneumothorax
   3. Diaphragmatic hernia

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   4. Intestinal obstruction
3. The most common malignant tumours of the liver are
   1. Hepatomas
   2. Metastatic deposits
   3. Lymphomas

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   4. Cholangiomas
4. The commonest location of an anal fissure is:
   1. Midline posterior
   2. Midline anterior
   3. Left lateral

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   4. Right lateral
5. Following is not the feature of acute cholecystitis:
   1. It causes pain in the right hypochondrium
   2. If it perforates, gas under diaphragm is detected by percussion
   3. Shoulder pain can occur

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   4. Acalculous cholecystitis is due to hypotension
6. The drug of choice for the treatment of amoebic liver abscess is:
   1. Penicillin
   2. Gentamicin
   3. Metronidazole

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   4. Cotrimoxazole
7. Following hernias are known for high chances of strangulation except:
   1. Femoral hernia
   2. Obturator hernia
   3. Spigelian hernia

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   4. Direct hernia
8. Following are complications of benign prostatic hypertrophy except:
   1. Stones
   2. Renal failure
   3. Recurrent urinary tract infection

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   4. Carcinoma urinary bladder
9. Investigation of choice for dysphagia for solids:
   1. Barium swallow
   2. Endoscopy
   3. X-ray chest

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   4. C.T. Scan
10. Gas most suited for laparoscopy is:
    1. Air
    2. Nitrogen
    3. Oxygen

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    4. Carbon Dioxide
11. Claw sign seen in:
    1. Intussusception
    2. Volvulus
    3. Both

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    4. None
12. Ochsner-Sherren regime is used in management of:
    1. Appendicular abscess
    2. Chronic appendicitis
    3. Appendicular mass

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    4. Acute appendicitis
13. Regarding patients with a rigid abdomen and free air on plain film, which of the following statements is true?
    1. No further radiologic work-up is required.
    2. CT scanning with contrast enhancement is required to confirm the diagnosis.
    3. Preoperative prophylactic steroids are indicated in patients with free air.

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    4. Bedside sonographic imaging is preferred over CT imaging to confirm free air.
14. A 15-year-old girl presents with a mobile, 8 cm mid abdominal mass that moves freely from left to right but does not move superiorly or inferiorly. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
    1. Mesenteric cyst
    2. Appendicular mass
    3. Ovarian cyst

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    4. Omental cyst
15. Which of the following statements about hemorrhoids is/are not true?
    1. Pain is often associated with uncomplicated hemorrhoids
    2. Hemorrhoidectomy is reserved for third- and fourth-grade hemorrhoids
    3. External hemorrhoids are covered by skin whereas internal is covered by mucosa

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    4. Hemorrhoids are specialized “cushions” present in everyone that aid
16. Which initial therapy may be appropriate for a 4 cm anal involving the internal sphincter?
    1. Interstitial radiotherapy
    2. Radiotherapy and chemotherapy
    3. Wide local excision

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    4. Abdominoperineal resection
17. BIRADS score 5 is:
    1. Negative
    2. Probably benign
    3. Suspicious abnormality

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    4. Highly suggestive of malignancy
18. All are risk factors for carcinoma breast except:
    1. Early menarche
    2. Late menopause
    3. Ovarian cancer

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    4. Early full term pregnancy
19. VATS refers to:
    1. Vacuum assisted thoracic surgery
    2. Video assisted thoracoscopic surgery
    3. Video assisted transplant surgery

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    4. None of the above
20. Treatment of breast ductal ectasia:
    1. Hadfield's operation
    2. Patey's mastectomy
    3. MRM

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    4. Local wide excision

Q.2 Long Answer Question 4X5 = 20

1. Discuss the clinical features & management of acute pancreatitis.
2. Clinical Features, Aetiology and Management of Cholelithiasis.

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3. Enumerate Various Causes of Bleeding Per Rectum and its Management.
4. Describe surgical anatomy of thyroid gland. Write down the management of thyroglossal cyst.

Q.3 Short Answer Question 4X3 = 12

1. Intravenous Urography
2. Management of Carcinoma of Stomach

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3. Bariatric surgery
4. Recent advances in the management of cancer breast.

Q.4 Short Answer Question 9X2 = 18

1. Goodsalls rule
2. Differentiate between direct and indirect inguinal hernia?

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3. Describe the GCS score?
4. Torsion of Testis.
5. Fournier's Gangrene.
6. Two indications of colonoscopy.
7. Digital rectal examination.

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8. Pleomorphic adenoma.
9. MRCP