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Download VNSGU MBBS Third Year Part I 2024 February-March Supplementary 2206000103030104 Community Medicine Paper II Question Paper

Download VNSGU (Veer Narmad South Gujarat University or South Gujarat University) MBBS 3rd Year Part I (Third Year Part I) 2024 February-March Supplementary 2206000103030104 Community Medicine Paper II Previous Question Paper

This post was last modified on 10 December 2024

VNSGU MBBS Last 15 Years 2010-2025 Previous Question Papers (Veer Narmad South Gujarat University)


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2206000103030104

EXAMINATION FEBRUARY-MARCH 2024

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BACHELOR OF MEDICINE AND BACHELOR OF SURGERY

(THIRD PART - I)

COMMUNITY MEDICINE (PAPER - II) (NEW) - LEVEL 3

[Time: As Per Schedule] [Max. Marks: 100]

Instructions:

  1. Fill up strictly the following details on your answer book
    1. Name of the Examination : BACHELOR OF MEDICINE AND BACHELOR OF SURGERY (THIRD PART-1)
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    3. Name of the Subject: COMMUNITY MEDICINE (PAPER - II) (NEW) - LEVEL 3
    4. Subject Code No : 2206000103030104
  2. Sketch neat and labelled diagram wherever necessary.
  3. Figures to the right indicate full marks of the question.
  4. --- Content provided by‌ FirstRanker.com ---

  5. All questions are compulsory.
Seat No:
Student's Signature

SECTION-I

Q.1 Multiple choice questions each carry 1 mark (MCQs). 20

  1. Duration of treatment of multibacillary leprosy is
    1. 6 months
    2. 9 months
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    4. 12 months
    5. 24 months
  2. Corpulence index measures
    1. Blood pressure
    2. Obesity
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    4. Coproporphyria
    5. Diabetes
  3. Pasteurised milk is commonly tested by
    1. Oxidase test
    2. Phosphatase test
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    4. Catalase test
    5. Coliform test
  4. Positive Shick's test indicates that the person is:
    1. Immune to diphtheria
    2. Hypersensitive to diphtheria
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    4. Susceptible to diphtheria
    5. Susceptible and hypersensitive to diphtheria
  5. Which is NOT a risk factor for coronary artery disease:
    1. Oral contraceptive
    2. Alcohol
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    4. Type A personality
    5. High fibre diet
  6. The average weight gain for a pregnant woman with BMI 20-23 should be
    1. 4 to 6 kg
    2. 8 to 12 kg
    3. --- Content provided by​ FirstRanker.com ---

    4. 12 to 14 kg
    5. 15 to 16 kg
  7. One of the following gestational infections results in congenital anomaly:
    1. Chicken pox
    2. Candidiasis
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    4. Taeniasis
    5. Cholera
  8. Which of the following is not organic dust
    1. Cane fiber
    2. Tobacco
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    4. Asbestos
    5. Cotton dust
  9. Marijuana is derived from which of the following
    1. Mushrooms
    2. Cannabis
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    4. Cocoa
    5. Morning glory
  10. A person aged 40 years, working as a laborer in grain market for the last 25 years presented with a history of repeated attacks of respiratory infections in the last 1 year. X-ray showed pulmonary fibrosis. The likely diagnosis was:
    1. Tuberculosis
    2. Silicosis
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    4. Silicotuberculosis
    5. Farmer's lung
  11. PCPNDT is an act to prevent:
    1. Congenital birth defects
    2. Female suicide
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    4. Female foeticide
    5. IVF using sex selection
  12. Koplik's spot is seen in
    1. Measles
    2. Scrub typhus
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    4. Malaria
    5. Dengue
  13. For early detection of cancer cervix recommended test is
    1. PAP smear
    2. VDRL test
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    4. FNAC
    5. Trans vaginal ultrasonography.
  14. All diseases are under surveillance of WHO except:
    1. Chicken pox
    2. Malaria
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    4. Relapsing fever
    5. Paralytic polio
  15. Incidence of mumps is highest among
    1. 0-5 years
    2. 5-15 years
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    4. 15-25 years
    5. Above 25 years
  16. All are components of ICDS except:
    1. Nutrition
    2. Vaccination
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    4. Health education
    5. Admission and treatment of sick children
  17. Kuppuswamy scale consists of all except
    1. Education
    2. Occupation
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    4. Housing
    5. Income
  18. All are classified as maternal death except
    1. Abortion
    2. Labour
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    4. During 3rd month of lactation
    5. Within 1st week of delivery due to sepsis
  19. Genetic predisposition of cancer is seen in
    1. Colon
    2. Stomach
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    4. Pancreas
    5. All of the above
  20. Birth and death registration act of India was amended in
    1. 1948
    2. 1970
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    4. 1967
    5. 1991

SECTION-II

Q.2 Answer any one of the following questions: 10

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  1. Describe epidemiological determinants, prevention and treatment of Vivax malaria.
  2. What is ARI? How would you manage a 3 year old child with ARI as per IMNCI protocol?

Q.3 Write your comments on the following: (any 2 out of 3) 5*2=10

  1. Social factors related to mental health.
  2. Cost effective analysis in health.
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  4. Barriers of communication.

Q.4 Write in one- or two-lines short answers: 2*10=20

  1. Juvenile delinquency
  2. Drugs used in MDR-TB
  3. Treatment of paucibacillary leprosy
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  5. Cause of Bagassosis and Byssinosis
  6. 2 functions of UNICEF
  7. Non modifiable risk factors of diabetes
  8. Doctor patient relationship
  9. Annual parasite index and its importance
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  11. Exclusive breast feeding
  12. JE vaccine-type, dosage, route and site of administration

SECTION – III

Q.5 Answer any one of the following questions: 10

  1. What are the components of post natal check up? What measures can be taken to improve post natal care at community level?
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  3. Discuss the epidemiology of hypertension and the WHO recommendations for its prevention and control.

Q.6 Write short notes on the following: (any 2 out of 3) 5*2=10

  1. Ergonomics.
  2. Food adulteration.
  3. Disablement benefits under ESI Act, 1948.
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Q.7 Write short notes on the following: (any 5 out of 6) 4*5=20

  1. Risk factors for cervical cancer.
  2. Nikshay poshan yojana.
  3. Genetic counselling.
  4. Integrated Vector Management.
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  6. Mass drug administration for filariasis.
  7. Clinical features of severe acute malnutrition.


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