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Download PGI PG PGI 2014 May Solved Question Paper

Download PGIMER (Post Graduate Institute of Medical Education & Research, Chandigarh) PGI 2014 May Solved Question Paper

This post was last modified on 11 August 2021

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PGI Chandigarh Last 10 Years 2011-2021 Solved Question Papers (PGIMER Previous Papers)

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All are true about ulnar nerve except:
- a) Root value C8TI
- b) Pass through cubital tunnel
- c) Supply flexor digitorum superficialis
- d) Supply flexor carpi ulnaris
- e) Passes behind medial epicondyle

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Branch of internal iliac artery is/are:
- a) Inferiorvesical artery
- b) Inferior epigastric artery
- c) Iliolumbar artery
- d) Internal pudendal artery
- e) Obturator artery
Compression of cervical rib can causes:
- a) Thenar hypertrophy
- b) Neurovascular symptom
- c) Reynaud's phenomenon
- d) C8TI paraesthesia
- e) All
True about attachment of suprapleural membrane:
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- a) Attached to Clavicle
- b) Attached to Ist rib & its costal cartilage
- c) Attached to 2nd rib & its costal cartilage
- d) Attached to junction of manubrium & body of sternum
- e) Attached to tip of the transverse process of the 7th cervical vertebrae
Which of the following sinuses open into middle meatus:
- a) Frontal sinus
- b) Anterior ethmoidal sinus
- c) Posterior ethmoidal sinus
- d) Maxillary sinus
- e) Sphenoid sinus
True about anatomy of Eustachian tube:
- a) Aerate middle ear
- b) Open during swallowing
- c) Lager & wider in adult than children
- d) More horizontal in infant & children
- e) Open in oropharynx

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True about palatine tonsil:
- a) Crypts is lined by squamous epithelium
- b) Supplied by IX CN
- c) Tongue depressor is used for examination
- d) Arterial supply is by tonsillar ascending branch of grater palatine artery
- e) Present in oropharynx
Features of stellate ganglion lesions include:
- a) Miosis
- b) Vasodilation in ipsilateral arm
- c) Mydriasis in contralateral eye
- d) Mydriasis in ipsilateral eye
- e) Visual loss
True about parietal peritoneum:
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- a) Supplied by lower 5 thoracic & 1st lumbar
- b) Supplied by lower 4 thoracic & upper 3 lumbar
- c) Pain is somatic in nature
- d) Stretching of parietal peritoneum cause pain
- e) None
True regarding saphenous vein:
- a) Long saphenous vein-formed as continuation of medial side of deep venous arch
- b) Long saphenous vein- situated posterior to medial malleolus
- c) Long saphenous vein- closely related to saphenous nerve
- d) Short saphenous vein- open into great saphenous vein
- e) Short saphenous vein- associated with sural nerve
True about Hering-Breuer reflex:
- a) Signal initiated through mechanoreceptor receptors of lung
- b) Signal initiated through Chemoreceptor of lung
- c) Signal initiated through Carotid & aortic body
- d) Transmit signals through the vagus nerve
- e) None

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True about blood supply of kidney:
- a) Flow is 600 ml/min each kidney
- b) It receives more blood supply per unit mass than the brain
- c) Renal medulla have more supply than renal cortex
- d) It is under direct sympathetic control
- e) None
All are true about Brunner's gland except:
- a) It lies in duodenum only
- b) It lies in duodenum & ileum
- c) It secretes bicarbonate rich fluid
- d) It secretions neutralizes acidic pH of stomach
- e) Secretes mucus rich fluid
Blood brain barrier is absent in ?
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- a) Adenohypophysis
- b) Neurohypophysis
- c) Hypothalamus
- d) Thalamus
- e) None
Oxygen binding to hemoglobin cause allosteric activation. This allosteric property of Hb results in :
- a) Maintaining iron in ferrous state (Fe2+)
- b) Increase oxygen supply to tissue
- c) Increases oxygen binding
- d) Increases 2,3-DPG in blood
- e) None
Secretion of insulin is increased by:
- a) Fatty acid
- b) Aminoacid
- c) Adrenaline
- d) Acetylcholine
- e) Somatostatin

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Nerve velocity is increased by:
- a) Myelination
- b) Smaller axon diameter
- c) Decreased temperature
- d) Increase in intracellular calcium
- e) Increase in extracelluar sodium
True about carbohydrate metabolism:
- a) It supplies 4 kcals per gram
- b) It increases insulin secretion
- c) Stored in liver
- d) In starvation glycogen in liver is exhausted only after 24-48 hr
- e) It provide 80% calorie need of body
Calcitriol in children is formed in:
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- a) Glomerulus
- b) Bowmann capsule
- c) PCT
- d) DCT
- e) Collecting duct
Which of the following is/are Pain scale:
- a) McGill Pain Questionnaire
- b) Visual analogue scale
- c) Coloured Analogue Scale
- d) All of the above
- e) None of the above
Terminal product(s) of phenylalanine is :
- a) Fumarate
- b) Acetyl CoA
- c) Oxaloacetate
- d) Acetoacetate
- e) None

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NADPH is produced by:
- a) Pyruvate dehydrogense
- b) Isocitrate dehydrogense
- c) a-ketoglutaryl Dehydrogense
- d) Succinate Dehydrogense
- e) Malate dehydrogense
Optically inactive amino acid is/are:
- a) Threonine
- b) Thyronine
- c) Valine
- d) Glycine
- e) Serine
In forming 3D structure of protein following components help:
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- a) Hydrogen bonds
- b) Amino acid sequence
- c) Interaction between amino acid side chains
- d) Chaperon
- e) all of these
Test used for protein is/are:
- a) Western blot
- b) Southern blot
- c) ELISA
- d) CHIP essay
- e) Dot blotting
Full form of LCAT is:
- a) Lecithin cholesterol acyltransferase
- b) Lecithin choline acyl transferase
- c) Lecithin cholesterol alkyl transferase
- d) Lecithin choline alcohol transferase
- e) Lecithin CoA transferase

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Which vitamin deficiency cause dementia:
- a) Vitamin A
- b) Vitamin C
- c) Vitamin B12
- d) Vitamin B1
- e) Nicotinic acid
Which of the following organ can not use ketone body:
- a) Brain
- b) RBC
- c) Muscle
- d) Heart
- e) Liver
All of the following are part of innate immunity except:
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- a) Complement
- b) NK cells
- c) Macrophages
- d) T cells
- e) None
Which of the following disease occurs due to DNA molecule repair defect:
- a) Krabe's disease
- b) Angelmann syndrome
- c) Xeroderma pigmentosum
- d) Marfan syndrome
- e) Ataxia telangiectasia
cDNA is used in gene amplification in bacteria instead of genomic DNA because:
- a) Easy to replicate because of small size
- b) cDNA lacks intron whereas this is present in genomic DNA
- c) Promotor are not found in bacteria
- d) Complete genome can not easily replicated in bacteria
- e) None

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Function of miRNA is/are:
- a) Gene silencing
- b) Gene activation
- c) Transcription inhibition
- d) Translation repression
- e) Breaking of messenger RNA
Which of the following is CD 15 & CD30 positive:
- a) Lymphocyte predominance Hodgkin's lymphoma
- b) Mantle cell lymphoma
- c) Burkit's lymphoma
- d) Mixed cellularity Hodgkin's lymphoma
- e) Diffuse large B cell lymphoma
B cell antigens are:
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- a) CD 1
- b) CD 2
- c) CD 3
- d) CD 19
- e) CD 20
True about proto oncogene :
- a) Only found in virus
- b) Only found in malignant cell
- c) Normally involved in cell cycle proliferation
- d) Can be converted to oncogene
- e) On mutation it causes cancer
Thrombosis is predisposed by:
- a) Protein S deficiency
- b) Complement deficiency
- c) Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome
- d) Homocysteinuria
- e) All

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Pancytopenia can occur in:
- a) CML
- b) Kala-azar
- c) Typhoid
- d) Hairy cell leukemia
- e) None
Non-small cell lung carcinoma is/are associated:
- a) K-ras
- b) EGFR
- c) WT1
- d) P53
- e) All
True about carotid body tumor:
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- a) Slow growing tumour
- b) Uncapsulated
- c) Mostly Bilateral
- d) Mostly benign
- e) All
Which of the following is/are true about autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease except:
- a) Many patients may be asymptomatic till 3rd or 4th decade
- b) Pancreatic cyst
- c) Associated with hypertension
- d) Subarachnoid haemorrhage is most common extra renal complication
- e) None
Which of the following is not a feature of reversible cell injury?
- a) Diminished generation of adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
- b) Formation of amorphous densities in the mitochondrial matrix
- c) Formation of blebs in the plasma membrane
- d) Detachment of ribosomes from the granular endoplasmic reticulum
- e) Creation of myelin figures

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Red infarct occur in:
- a) In tissues with dual circulations
- b) Occur only when both arterial & venous obstruction occurs simultaneously
- c) Organs which are previously congested
- d) Organs with loose tissue
- e) All
True about fibrolamellar carcinoma of liver:
- a) Better prognosis than typical hepatocellular carcinoma
- b) Associated with cirrhosis
- c) AFP-positive
- d) Occur in younger adults
- e) More common in females
Which of the following is/are true about Prothrombin time:
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- a) Assess extrinsic pathways
- b) T in Liver disease
- c) L in Vit. K deficiency
- d) Normal value is 2-4 minute
- e) None
True about Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura:
- a) Indirect hyperbilirubemia
- b) Spherocytosis with thrombocytopenia
- c) Scistocytosis with thrombocytopenia
- d) Thrombi formation
- e) All
In which of the following diseases antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies(ANCA) are not found:
- a) Polyarteritis nodosa
- b) Microscopic polyangitis
- c) Wegener granulomatosis
- d) Bechet syndrome
- e) Churg-Strauss syndrome

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Anti-nuclear antibodies are not found in:
- a) SLE
- b) Diffuse Scleroderma
- c) Drug induced lupus
- d) Limited sceleroderma
- e) Sarcoidosis
at 30 yr of age, blood forming bone marrow are found in
- a) Sternum
- b) Sacrum
- c) Pelvis
- d) Upper end tibia
- e) Upper end humerus
Pericardial effusion is/are seen in all except:
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- a) Uraemia
- b) SLE
- c) Rheumatic fever
- d) Myxedema
- e) Hyperthyroidism
Epidermal growth factor is/are formed by:
- a) Platelet
- b) Fibroblast
- c) Mast cell
- d) Endothelial cell
- e) Keratinocyte
Cyclin dependent kinase-2 (CDK-2) acts via:
- a) Cyclin A
- b) Cyclin B
- c) Cyclin C
- d) Cyclin D
- e) Cyclin E

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Which of the following pair of G receptor is correctly matched with its action:
- a) Gi- Activation of calcium channel
- b) Gq- T cytoplasmic calcium
- c) Gs- Opening of calcium channel
- d) Go- Opening of potassium channel
- e) Gt- Activation of potassium channel
Mineralocorticoid receptors antagonist(s) is/are:
- a) Spironolactone
- b) Triamterene
- c) Epleroenone
- d) Amiloride
- e) Acetazolamide
All of the following are actions of muscarinic antogonists, except :
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- a) Decrease gastric secretions
- b) Decrease respiratory secretions
- c) Contract radial muscles of iris
- d) Fascilitates AV conduction
- e) None
Unwanted interactions of MAO inhibitors occur with:
- a) Levodopa
- b) Hydrochlorothiazide
- c) Reserpine
- d) Pethidine
- e) None
Which of the following is/are true about Sulfonylurea except:
- a) Increase insulin secretion
- b) Cause hypoglycemia
- c) Cause weight loss
- d) Disulfiram-like reaction after alcohol intake
- e) Safe in pregnancy

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Weight gain is not seen with:
- a) Clozapine
- b) Risperidone
- c) Olanzapine
- d) SSRI
- e) Zotepine
Which of the following is/are true about dobutamine:
- a) Selective (3 2 receptor agonist
- b) T ventricular filling pressure
- c) Half life is about 2 min
- d) Dopamine receptor agonist
- e) None
A person has given 0.175 gm oral digoxin with bioavailabilty 70%. The amount of drug reaching in systemic circulation is:
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- a) 0.175
- b) 0.175 x 0.7
- c) 0.175/7
- d) 0.175 + 0.7
- e) 0.175 + 1/0.7
True about Placebo:
- a) It works only in psychiatric person
- b) Response is both objective & subjective
- c) Effect also seen in normal person
- d) It is an inert substance
- e) None
Treatment of nocardia infection includes:
- a) Ampicillin
- b) Floroquinolones
- c) Azithromycin
- d) Cotrimoxazole
- e) Amikacin

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True about morphine:
- a) Act as antagonist on IA receptor with no agonist action
- b) Activation in liver
- c) Half life 4 hr
- d) Cause miosis
- e) Clearance time is around 20 hr
Which of the following is/are true about phenytoin -
- a) Inactivation by Liver enzyme
- b) Causes Vit B12 deficiency
- c) Causes thiamine deficiency
- d) Gum hypertrophy is commonest side-effect
- e) Inhibitor of CYP3A4/5
Drugs active against MRSA:
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- a) Vancomycin
- b) Ceftriaxone
- c) Linezolid
- d) Piperacillin-tazobactam
- e) Meropenam
True about daptomycin:
- a) Causes diarrhea as side-effect
- b) It is a glycopeptide antibiotic
- c) Cause myopathy
- d) It can be used orally
- e) Excretion through kidney
True about doxorubicin:
- a) Antineoplastic drug
- b) Alkylating agent
- c) Topoisomerase III inhibitor
- d) Anthracycline antibiotic
- e) Cardiotoxic

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TNF-a inhibitors are:
- a) Bevacizumab
- b) Ranibizumab
- c) Adalimumab
- d) Infliximab
- e) Etanercept
Which of the following is a common side-effect of Cisplatin -
- a) Diarrhea
- b) Vomiting
- c) Pulmonary fibrosis
- d) Alopecia
- e) None
Which of the following CLASP human experiment:
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- a) Main center for the experiment was Geneva
- b) Main center for the experiment was Tokoyo
- c) Main center for the experiment was in United kingdom
- d) Heparin low dose given
- e) Drug used in experiment significantly reduces eclampsia in subjects
True about euthanasia are all, except:
- a) Passive euthanasia is legal in India
- b) Active euthanasia is allowed in the UK
- c) Physician assisted suicide is legal in some States of the US
- d) Active euthanasia is legal in Netherlands and Belgium
- e) None
Early onset rigor mortis is/are seen in:
- a) TB
- b) Cholera
- c) Asphyxia
- d) Arseni
- e) Aconite

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True about organophosphorus poisoning:
- a) Atropine is best for early treatment & maintenance
- b) Pralidoxime is important for restoring neuromuscular transmission
- c) Phenytoin is the primary drug used for seizure control
- d) Mydriasis present
- e) Pralidoxime & atropine works synergistically
Pinpoint pupil not seen in:
- a) Aconite
- b) Opium
- c) Alcohol
- d) Cannabis
- e) Organophosphorus
Which of the following is not niacin positive:
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- a) Mycobacterium bovis
- b) Mycobacterium sonei
- c) Mycobacterium chelonae
- d) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
- e) Mycobacterium simiae
Feed oral transmission occur in :
- a) Hepatitis A
- b) Hepatitis B
- c) Hepatitis E
- d) Rotavirus
- e) Herpes simplex
Oroya fever is caused by:
- a) B. bacilliformis
- b) B. henselae
- c) B. quintana
- d) B. elizabethae
- e) B. clarridgeiae

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Vector for O.tsugami is/are :
- a) Chigger
- b) L.deliensis larva
- c) Xenopsylla cheopis
- d) Pediculus humanus corporis
- e) None
Weil felix reaction in scrub typhus is/are positive for:
- a) OX -19
- b) OX-2
- c) Both OX -19 & OX-2
- d) OX -K
- e) OX -19, OX-2 & OX -K
Minimum infective dose of shigella is :
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- a) 1-10
- b) 10-100
- c) 103-106
- d) Same as enteric fever
- e) Same as V.cholera
Acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis is/are caused by:
- a) Coxsackie virus type A 24
- b) Corona virus
- c) Enterovirus-70
- d) Herpes simplex
- e) Adeno virus
Zones of operation theatre includes all except:
- a) Septic zone
- b) clean zone
- c) Protective zone
- d) Sterile zone
- e) Disposal zone

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True about acanthamoeba infection :
- a) Causes keratitis
- b) Contact lens increases risk of keratitis
- c) Cause keratitis in contact lens wearer
- d) Also causes encephalitis
- e) Immunodeficiency is a risk fact
H.parainfluenzae requires factor:
- a) V
- b) VI
- c) VII
- d) X
- e) XII
Meningococcal infection is predisposed by which of the following deficiency of complement factor
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- a) C1-C3
- b) C3-C4
- c) C5-C9
- d) C1-C4
- e) Properdin
True about 8th pandemic of cholera:
- a) Caused by serotype 0 classical
- b) Caused by serotype 0 Eltor
- c) Caused by serotype 0 139
- d) It spread in Indonesia in 1961
- e) It spread in Bangladesh in 1992-93
Which is not spirochetes:
- a) Borrelia
- b) Leptospira
- c) Fusobacterium
- d) Lactobacillus
- e) Varicella

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Which of the following is/are true regarding population growth in India:
- a) During 1921-1971: It become more than double
- b) In 1971, population was more than 500 million
- c) In 1991, population was around 1 billion
- d) Between 1971-2011, the decadal growth rate was > 20%
- e) 1921-2011, the decadal growth rate was in double digit
True about Pasteurization of milk is all except
- a) Does not kill thermoduric bacteria
- b) Does not kill spores
- c) Cause > 95% decrease in bacterial count
- d) Kills tubercle bacillus
- e) None
True about anopheles mosquito ?
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- a) Larvae have siphon tube
- b) Larvae are surface feeder
- c) Larvae are bottom feeder
- d) Larvae tie at an angle to water surface
- e) None
Which of the following is/are source of mortality related data:
- a) Sample registration system
- b) Death certificate
- c) Central births & deaths registration act
- d) All of the above
- e) None
Mean, Median and mode all are zero. The type of distribution is ?
- a) Standard normal
- b) Negatively skewed
- c) Positively skewed
- d) J shaped
- e) None

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Which of the following is/are probability sampling :
- a) Judge sampling
- b) Cluster sampling
- c) Simple random sampling
- d) Snowball sampling
- e) Stratified sampling
Catheter placed in which type of colour coded bag :
- a) Black
- b) Blue
- c) Yellow
- d) Red
- e) Transprent white
WHO conditioned guidelines for treatment of MDR TB 2016, includes 4 core drugs and add on drugs. Add on drugs are?
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- a) Bedaquiline
- b) Linzolide
- c) Delamnaid
- d) Capreomycin
- e) Moxifloxacin
Which of the following is true regarding frost bite :
- a) Occurs at temperature above freezing point
- b) Reperfusion injury is more dangerous than frostbite
- c) Rewarming should be gradual & spontaneous
- d) Occurs at temperature below freezing point
- e) Intake of hot fluids promotes general rewarming
Which of the following is/are true about Revised National Tuberculosis Control Programme (RNTCP)-
- a) T.B. is mandatory to notify
- b) Suspicious TB patients are screened through 2 sputum smear examinations
- c) MDR-TB is not included in RNTCP
- d) Case finding is active
- e) Covered the whole country since March 2006

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According to WHO, recommended treatment for uncomplicated plasmodium falciparum is/are :
- a) Mefloquine
- b) Chloroquine
- c) Artemether + lumefantrine
- d) Artemesin only
- e) Lumefantrine only
Which of the following is/are true about posterior epistaxis:
- a) Posterior packing is done
- b) Often due to chronic hypertension
- c) Persistent case- ligation of anterior ethmoidal artery
- d) Severe bleeding in comparison with
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This post was last modified on 11 August 2021