Download PGI PG PGI 2014 November Solved Question Paper

Download PGIMER (Post Graduate Institute of Medical Education & Research, Chandigarh) PGI 2014 November Solved Question Paper

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PGI Chandigarh Last 10 Years 2011-2021 Solved Question Papers (PGIMER Previous Papers)

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Which of the following statement is true about Pinna except:
1. In Treacher-Collins syndrome malformed pinna may be present
2. Made up of elastic cartilage
3. Develop from Ist pharyngeal cleft only
4. Helps in localization of sound
5. May involves in relapsing perichondritis
Correct Answer - C

Ans. c. Develop from Ist pharyngeal cleft only
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- First branchial cleft is the precursor of external auditory canal.
- Around the sixth week of embryonic life, a series of six tubercles appear around the first branchial cleft
- Branchial clefts are ectodermal in origin.
- Pinna develops from 1st and 2nd pharyngeal arch

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Paired laryngeal cartilage (s) is/are:
1. Thyroid
2. Arytenoid
3. Corniculte
4. Cricoid
5. Cuneiform
Correct Answer - B:C:E

Ans. b. Arytenoid; c. Corniculte;e. Cuneiform

Laryngeal cartilages
- Thyroid (unpaired)
- It is the largest of all laryngeal cartilages. It is 'V' shaped with right and left lamina. Both laminae (alae) meet anteriorly forming an angle of 90° in males and 120° in females. Vocal cords are attached to the middle of thyroid angle,
- Cricoid (unpaired)
- It is the only cartilage forming a complete ring, therefore is shaped like a ring. It articulates with arytenoid cartilage to form cricoarytenoid joint, a type of synovial joint .
- Epiglottis (unpaired)
- It is leaf-shaped elastic cartilage (in adults). It is omega shaped in children. It forms the anterior wall of laryngeal inlet.
- Arytenoid cartilage (paired)
- Each Arytenoid cartilage is pyramidal in shape. Base articulates with cricoid cartilage, and apex supports the corniculate cartilage. A vocal process directed anteriorly and gives attachment to vocal cord. A muscular process directed laterally and gives attachment to intrinsic laryngeal muscles.
- Corniculate cartilage (of Santorini) : Paired
- Articulates with apex of Arytenoid cartilage
- Cuneiform cartilage (of Wrisberg) : Paired
- Situated in aryepiglottic fold in front of corniculate cartilage.
All are true about mediastinum except:
1. Heart passes through superior mediastinum
2. Heart passes through middle mediastinum
3. Thymus remnant may present in middle mediastinum
4. Posterior boundary of posterior mediastinum corresponds to Tl-T4 vertebrae
5. Lower border of anterior mediastinum is extended more than posterior mediastinum
Correct Answer - A:C:D:E

Ans. a. Heart passes through superior mediastinum; c. Thymus remnant may present in middle mediastinum; d. Posterior boundary of posterior mediastinum corresponds to TI-T4 vertebrae; e. Lower border of anterior mediastinum is extended more than posterior mediastinum
- Superior mediastinum: The region superior to the sternal angle containing the aortic arch and its three branches, the superior vena cava (SVC) and the brachiocephalic veins, the trachea, the esophagus, and the phrenic and vagus nerves. The superior mediastinum also contains the thymus; however, in an adult, the thymus is usually atrophied and presents as a fatty mass.
- Anterior mediastinum: The region between the sternal angle, the deep sternal surface, the pericardial sac, and the diaphragm. The anterior mediastinum contains fat and areolar tissue and the inferior part of the thymus or its remnant.
- Middle mediastinum: This region contains the pericardial sac and heart.
- Posterior mediastinum: The region containing anatomic structures deep to the pericardial sac, including the thoracic portion of the descending aorta, the azygos system of veins, the thoracic duct, the esophagus, and the vagus and sympathetic nerves.

True about medial meniscus:

Made up of hyaline cartilage
Injury of lateral meniscus is more frequent than medial meniscus

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C shaped
Fixed to medial collateral ligament
Inner part is more avascular

Correct Answer - C:D:E

Ans. c. C shaped; d. Fixed to medial collateral ligament ; e. Inner part is more avascular

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Medial Meniscus	Lateral Meniscus
Semilunar (c) shaped (less circular)	Semicircular (C) shaped (more circular)
Larger in radius /diameter but narrower in body & thinner in periphery	Smaller in radius /diameter but wider in body & thicker in periphery
Posterior horn is larger than anterior horn	Anterior & posterior horn are uniform in size
Covers lesser (-65%) of tibial articular surface	Covers more (-85%) of tibial articular surface
Entire periphery is attached to joint capsule (medial capsular ligament)	Peripheral area where popliteus tendon crosses the joint through popliteus hiatus is not attached
Attached to medial collateral ligament	Not attached to lateral collateral ligament
Does not attach to either cruciate ligaments	Attached to both cruciate ligaments, and posterior horn receives anchorage to medial femoral condyles by either the ligament of Humphry or ligament of Wrisberg, depending on which is present. It is also attached posteriorly to the fascia covering popliteus muscle and the arcuate complex at posterolateral corner of knee.
Less mobile because of its attachment	More mobile b/o its attachments
More prone to injury	Less prone to injury

Which of the following statement is/are true about oculomotor nerve:
1. Arise from pons
2. Edinger-Westphal nucleus gives rise to parasympathetic supply of oculomotor nerve
3. Arise from medulla
4. Passes through interpeduncular fossa
5. Related to medial wall of cavernous sinus
Correct Answer - B:D

Ans. b. Edinger-Westphal nucleus gives rise to parasympathetic supply of oculomotor nerve ;d. Passes through interpeduncular fossa

NUCLEI:
1. General somatic efferent:
2. Through oculomotor nucleus for movement of eyeball supplying all extraocular muscles except Superior Oblique (SO) and Lateral Rectus (LR).
3. General visceral efferent (parasymapthetic):
4. Through Edinger- Westphal nucleus for pupillary contraction and accomodation.
5. General somatic afferent:
6. Carries proprioceptive fibres from the extraocular muscles to mesencephalic nucleus of trigeminal.
7. Occulomotor nucleus (for general somatic efferent) and Edinger- Westphal nucleus together form oculomotor nuclear complex.
STRUCTURE:

Midbrain
- Third nerve nucleus( at the level of the superior colliculus ventral to the cerebral aqueduct, on the pre-aqueductal grey matter)
- Red Nucleus
- Substantia Nigra
- Exit through Interpeduncular fossa
- Invested with a sheath of pia mater
- Passes between the superior cerebellar & posterior cerebral arteries (Nerve compressed by aneurysm of posterior communicating artery)
- Pierces the dura mater
- Pass b/w free and attached borders of tentorium cerebelli
- Cavernous sinus
- Receives filaments from the cavernous plexus of the sympathetic nervous system and communicating branch from V1
- Superior orbital fissure
- Orbit
- Superior and Inferior Branch
Derivative (s) of mesonephric duct includes:
1. Some part ofprostatic Urethra
2. Seminal vesicle
3. Round ligament of uterus
4. Vas deferens
5. Ductusdeferens
Correct Answer - A:B:D:E

Ans. a. Some part ofprostatic Urethra; b. Seminal vesicle; d. Vas deferens; e. Ductusdeferens
- The Wolffian duct or mesonephric duct forms the epididymis, vas deferens and seminal vesicles. Testosterone directs the development of Wolffian duct.
- Trigone of the bladder develop from the caudal end of the mesonephric duct.
- A pair of ureteric bud grow upwards from the distal mesonephric duct near its insertion into the cloaca to form the renal pelvis, calyces and collecting ducts.
- Most of the prostate gland develop from the same primordial area of urogenital sinus that forms the vaginal plate in females.
- The Mullerian or paramesonephric duct forms the fallopian tubes, uterus and upper third of the vagina.

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All are true regarding Uterus except:
1. Lymph vessels from fundus drain to para-aortic lymph nodes
2. Broad ligament provides primary support to uterus
3. Mainly supplied by uterine arteries
4. Posterior surface is related to intestine
5. All
Correct Answer - B

Ans.b. Broad ligament provides primary support to uterus

BLOOD SUPPLY AND LYMPHATICS:
- Uterine and ovarian artery
- Venous drainage is via a plexus in the broad ligament that drains into the uterine veins.
- Lymphatic drainage : iliac, sacral, Paraaortic and inguinal lymph nodes.
LIGAMENTS:
- Pelvic diaphragm, Uterosacral ligament & Transverse cervical ligament are primary support of uterus
- The tone of the pelvic floor provides the primary support for the uterus. Some ligaments provide further support, securing the uterus in place. They are:
- Broad Ligament: This is a double layer of peritoneum attaching the sides of the uterus to the pelvis. It acts as a mesentery for the uterus and contributes to maintaining it in position.It do not provide primary support.
Which of the following statement is/are true regarding Fick principle of measurement of cardiac output:
1. Cardiac output is calculated by amount of oxygen consumed by whole body per unit mass divided by A-V Oxygen difference across the lung
2. Oxygen concentration in artery is measured by passing catheter to Pulmonary artery
3. Mixed venous blood is measured by inserting catheter into pulmonary artery
4. Rate of oxygen absorption by the lungs is measured by spirometry
5. For oxygen content of artery, any artery of body can be chosen
Correct Answer - A:C:D:E

Ans, (A) Cardiac output is calculated by amount of oxygen consumed by whole body per unit mass divided by A-V Oxygen difference across the lung (C) Mixed venous blood is measured by inserting catheter into pulmonary artery (D) Rate of oxygen absorption by the lungs is measured by spirometry (E) For oxygen content of artery, any artery of body can be chosen

[Ref: Ganong 25th/543-44, 24th/546-47; A.K. lain 5th/356; Guyton1 Ith /244]

Cardiac Output Measurement:
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- Fick principle states that the amount of a substance taken up by an organ (or by the whole body) per unit of time is equal to the arterial level of the substance minus the venous level (A-V difference) times the blood flow.
- Principle can be used to determine cardiac output by measuring the amount of O, consumed by the body in a given period and dividing this value by the A-V difference across the lungs.
- In applying this Fick procedure for measuring cardiac output in the human being, mixed venous blood is usually obtained through a catheter inserted up the brachial vein of the forearm, through the subclavian vein, down to the right atrium, and, finally, into the right ventricle or pulmonary artery.
- Rate of oxygen absorption by the lungs is measured by the rate of disappearance of orygen from the respired air, using any type of oxygen meter (e.gclose circuit spirometry)
- Because systemic arterial blood has the same O2 content in all parts of the body, the arterial O2 content can be measured in a sample obtained from any convenient artery.
Feature (s) of hyperprolactinemia is/are all except:
1. Amenorrhoea
2. Decrease milk production
3. Galactorrhoea
4. Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism
5. Hypothyroidism may cause hyperprolactinemia
Correct Answer - B

Ans. B. Decrease milk production

[Ref: Ganong 25th/331-33, 24th/334-35; A.K. Iain 5th/695-96; Guyton 11 th / 907, 9 1 8-92 1, 1039-40;CMDT 20 1 6/ 1 096-97, 06/ 1113- 14]

Hyperprolactinemia:
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- Due to any cause may result in hypogonadotropic hypogonadism.
- Hypogonadotropic hyPogonadism often develops in patients with hyperprolactinemia; it may be reversed with treatment of hyperprolactinemia.
- Women may note oligomenorrhoea or amenorrhoea.
- Galactorrhoea, defined as Lactation in absence of nursing, is common.
- Prolactin deficiency inhibits postpartum lactation.
- Primary hypothyroidism is associated with mild hyperprolactinemia, probably because of compensatory TRH secretion
True about Oxytocin:
1. Secreted from anterior pituitary
2. Secreted by posterior pituitary
3. Decapeptide
4. Gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) stimulate its secretion
5. Cause milk ejection by contraction of myoepithelium of breast
Correct Answer - B:E

Ans. (B) Secreted by posterior pituitary (E) Cause milk ejection by contraction of myoepithelium of breast

[Ref: Ganong 25th/311-13, 24th/311-l3; Guyton p918, 1040-41, 928]
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Oxytocin:
- Stimulates postpartum milk let down in response to suckling.
- Nonapeptide (9 amino acids).
- Differs from AVP only at positions 3 and 8.
- Relatively little antidiuretic effect and seems to act mainly on mammary ducts to faci-litate milk let down during nursing.
- May help initiate or facilitate labor by stimulating contraction of uterine smooth muscle, but it is not clear if this action is physiologic or necessary for normal delivery.
- Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH): It is secreted from hypothalamus & stimulates secretion of FSH & LH.
True statement relating to compliance of lung:
1. Increased by surfactant
2. Decreased in emphysema
3. At height of inspiration compliance is less
4. It can be measured by measuring intrapleural pressure at different lung volume
5. None
Correct Answer - A:C:D

Ans. (A) Increased by surfactant (C) At height of inspiration compliance is less (D) It can be measured by measuring intrapleural pressure at different lung volume
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[Ref: Ganong 25th/629-32,24th/629-33; Guyton Ilth /473-75; ?. ?. Jain 5th/437]

Lung compliance:
- Measured by measuring intrapleural pressure at different lung volume.
- An important factor affecting the compliance of the lungs is the surface tension of the film of fluid that lines the alveoli.
- Deficiency of surfactant-less compliance; more surfactant-more compliance.
- Compliance decreases with the inflation of the lungs as more pressure is required to distend the already distended lung.
- The curve is shifted downward and to the right (compliance is decreased) by pulmonary congestion and interstitial pulmonary fibrosis; pulmonary fibrosis is a progressive disease of unknown cause in which there is stiffening and scarring of the lung.
- The curve is shifted upward and to the left (compliance is increased) in emphysema.
Which of the following is true regarding GLUT-5:
1. Present in brain
2. Present in Adipose tissue, skeletal muscle & skin
3. Insulin mediated transporter
4. Sodium independent transport
5. Present in RBC
Correct Answer - D
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Ans. (D) Sodium independent transport

[Ref: Ganong 25th/435, 24th/435; Harper 30th/ 19 1, 28th/ 17 1; Lippincott Biochemistry 4th/97]
- GLUT-5 is unusual in that it is the primary transporter for fructose (instead of glucose) in the small intestine & the testes.
- Has sodium independent facilitated diffusion mechanism.

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True about hormone sensitive lipase:
1. Activity is increased by insulin
2. Found intracellular
3. Activated by Epinephrine
4. Located in wall blood capillaries
5. None
Correct Answer - B:C

Ans. B,Found intracellular & C, Activated by Epinephrine

[Harper 30th/ 261 -62, 28th/ 220]

Hormone-sensitive lipase:
- Hormone-sensitive lipase is activated by ACTH, TSH, glucagon, epinephrine, norepinephrine, and vasopressin and inhibited by insulin, prostaglandin E1, and nicotinic acid
- Triacylglycerol undergoes hydrolysis by a hormone- sensitive lipase to form free fatty acids and glycerol.
- This lipase is distinct from lipoprotein lipase, which catalyzes lipoprotein triacylglycerol hydrolysis before its uptake into extrahepatic tissues.
Which of the following is/are Pain scale:
1. McGill Pain Questionnaire
2. Visual analogue scale
3. Coloured Analogue Scale
4. All of the above
5. None of the above
Correct Answer - D

Ans. A,McGill Pain Questionnaire B, Visual analogue scale & C, Coloured Analogue Scale
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List of Pain Measurement Scales:
- Wong-Baker FACES Pain Rating Scale
- Visual analog scale (VAS)
- McGill Pain Questionnaire (MPQ)
- Neck Pain and Disability Scale -NPAD
- Lequesne algofunctional index.
- Behavioral Pain Scale (BPS)
- Brief Pain Inventory (BPI)
- Clinical Global Impression (CGI)
- Critical-Care Pain Observation Tool (CPOT)
- COMFORT scale
- Faces Pain Scale -Revised (FPS-R)
True statement regarding Lactate dehydrogenase deficiency:
1. Fumarate level increases
2. Exercise intolerance
3. Muscle cramps may occur
4. It operates in anaerobic condition
5. It is the key enzyme of Kreb cycle
Correct Answer - B:C:D

Ans: b. Exercise ..., c. Muscle ..., d. It operate...[Ref Harper 30th/171, 69, 28th/149-151; Harrison 19th/433e2; Lippincott 4th/103, 111; Chatterjea & Shinde 7th/313]1
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- Fumarate is converted to malate by fumarase enzyme in Kreb cycle (so fumarate level increases in defective enzyme functioning in Krebs cycle, not in abnormality of glycolysis i.e., lactate dehydrogenase deficiency, Lactate dehydrogenase catalyse conversion of pyruvic acid to lactic acid .
- Lactate dehydrogenase deficiency is a condition that affects how the body breaks down sugar to use as energy in cells, primarily muscle cells.
- There are two types of this condition: lactate dehydrogenase-A deficiency (sometimes called glycogen storage disease XI) and lactate dehydrogenase-B deficiency.
- People with lactate dehydrogenase-A deficiency experience fatigue, muscle pain, and cramps during exercise (exercise intolerance).

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Hyaloronic acid is composed of:
1. N-acetyl glucosamine
2. N-acetyl galactosamine
3. Glucuronic acid
4. N-acetylneuramic acid
5. Iduronic acid
Correct Answer - A:C

Ans: a. N-acetyl and c. Glucuronic[Ref Harper 30th/156, 159, 637, 640, 28th/119, 534-39; Lippincott 4th/159, 163; Chatterjea er Shinde 7th/38]
- Composition of Hyaluronic Acid: It is composed of repeating units of N-acetyl glucosamine & D-Glucuronic acid. On hydrolysis, it yields equimolecular quantities of D-Glucosamine, D-Glucuronic acid & acetic acid.
- Hyaluronic acid is present in bacteria and is widely distributed among various animals and tissues, including synovial fluid, the vitreous body of the eye, cartilage, and loose connective tissues.
- Hyaluronic acid is especially high in concentration in embryonic tissues and is thought to play an important role in permitting cell migration during morphogenesis and wound repair. Its ability to attract water into the extracellular matrix and thereby "loosen it up" may be important in this regard.
All are feature of Refsum disease except:
1. Deficiency of a-hydroxylase
2. Defect in p oxidation
3. Accumulation of phytanic acid
4. Peripheral neuropathy
5. Treated by removing phytanic acid precursors from diet
Correct Answer - B

Ans: b. Defect in p oxidation [Ref Harper 30th/231, 614, 28th/l91, 493; Lippincott 4th/195; Harrison 19th/2681, 18th/3456, 236]
- Refsum disease is a rare autosomal recessive disorder caused by a deficiency of a-hydroxylase" (Lippincott 4th/195)
- "Refsum's disease: Alpha oxidation does not occur. Alpha oxidation is mainly used for fatty acids that have a methyl group at beta- carbon, which block beta-oxidation. This process occur mainly in endoplasmic reticulum & some also in peroxisomes.
- Refsum's disease is a rare neurologic disorder due to a metabolic defect that results in the accumulation of phytanic acid, which is found in dairy products and ruminant fat and meat. Phytanic acid is thought to have pathological effects on membrane function, protein prenylation, and gene expression" (Harper 30th/231, 28th/191)
- Refsum disease can manifest in infancy to early adulthood with the classic tetrad of (1) peripheral neuropathy, (2) retinitis pigmentosa, (3) cerebellar ataxia, and (4) elevated CSF protein concentration .
- Refsum disease is genetically heterogeneous but autosomal recessive in nature. Classical Refsum disease with childhood or early adult onset is caused by mutations in the gene that encodes for phytanoyl-CoA a-hydroxylase (PAHX).
- Refsum disease is treated by removing phytanic precursors (phytols: fish oils, dairy products, and ruminant fats) from the diet.

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Which of the following enzyme (s) participate in protein synthesis:

DNA ligase
DNA Helicase
Peptidase
Peptidyl transferase
DNA polymerase

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Correct Answer - D

Ans: d. Peptidyl transferase

[Ref Harper 30th/422-24, 28th/359-66, 323; Lippincott 4th/438-42; Chatterjea & Shinde 7th/248-501

Enzyme Required for Translation

Amino-acyl-t-RNA synthetase: Enzyme required for activation of amino acids, Peptide synthetase (peptidyl transferase)

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The NH2 of new aminoacyl t - RNA (A1) in 'A' site combine with the - COOH group of Met - t -RNA occupying the 'P' site. The reaction is catalyzed by peptidyl transferase". "Peptidases degrades proteins to amino acids
The NH2 of new aminoacyl t - RNA (A1) in 'A' site combine with the - COOH group of Met - t -RNA occupying the 'P' site. The reaction is catalyzed by peptidyl transferase . `` peptidases degrades proteins to amino acids.

Protein	function
DNA polymerases	Deoxynucleotide polymerization
Helicases	Processive unwinding of DNA
Topoisomerases	Relieve torsional strain that results from helicase-induced unwinding
DNA primase	Initiates synthesis of RNA primers
Single-strand binding proteins	Prevent premature reannealing of dsDNA
DNA ligase	Seals the single strand nick between the nascent Okazaki chain and fragments on tagging strand

True about peptide bond formation:
1. The NH2 group of new aminoacyl t -RNA at A site combine with the - COOH group of Met-t -RNA occupying the 'P' site
2. The NH2 group of new aminoacyl t - RNA at 'P' site combine with the - COOH group of Met-t-RNA occupying the 'A site
3. Reaction is catalyzed by peptidyl transferase
4. Peptide bond formation require energy
5. None
Correct Answer - A:C

Ans: a. The NH2 and c. Reaction..[Ref Harper 30th/422-25, 28th/359-66; Lippincott 4th/438-42; Chatterjea te• Shinde 7th/248- 501]
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- The a-amino group of the new aminoacyl-tRNA in the A site carries out a nucleophilic attack on the esterified carboxyl group of the peptidyl-tRNA occupying the P site (peptidyl or polypeptide site). At initiation, this site is occupied by aminoacyl-tRNA met'.
- This reaction is catalyzed by a peptidyltransferase, a component of the 28S RNA of the 60S ribosomal subunit. This is another example of ribozyme activity and indicates an important—and previously unsuspected—direct role for RNA in protein synthesis.
- Because the amino acid on the aminoacyl-tRNA is already "activator no further energy source is required for this reaction. The reaction results in attachment of the growing peptide chain to the tRNA in the A site.
All are true regarding Urea cycle except:
1. Urea formed from ammonia
2. Rate limiting enzyme is ornithine transcarbamoylase
3. Require Energy expenditure
4. Malate is byproduct of urea cycle
5. One nitrogen of urea comes from for aspartate
Correct Answer - B:D
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Ans: b. Rate limiting .... d. Malate... [Ref Harrison 19th/434e3-5, 18th/3216, 3219;17th/2472-74; Harper 30th/290-96, 28th/243;Shinde 7th/450-51; Vasudevan 5th/180-81]
- Urea has two amino groups, one derived from ammonia & other from aspartate. Carbon atom is supplied from carbon dioxide.
- Rate-limiting enzyme (pacemaker enzyme) of Urea cycle: Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I (CPS II is involved in pyrimidine synthesis)"(Harper 28th/245).
- Rate-limiting enzyme of Glycogen Synthesis: Glycogen synthase (not too hard there)
- Rate-limiting enzyme of Glycogenlysis: Glycogen phophorylase (phophorylase breaks phosphate bond, which means activated glycogen releases a lot of energy)
- Rate-limiting enzyme of HMP Shunt: Glucose-6Phosphate dehydrogenase (bad to lose this in RBCs)
- Rate-limiting enzyme of de novo pyrimidine synthesis: Carbamoyl phosphate synthase II (CPS I is involved in urea cycle)
Which of the following is true regarding phenylketonuria:
1. Dietary phenylalanine restriction is used in treatment
2. Occur due to deficiency of Phenyalanine hydroxylase enzyme
3. Occur due to increase activity of phenyalanine hydroxylase enzyme
4. Tyrosine must be supplied in diet
5. Diet should contain high phenylalanine containing food items
Correct Answer - A:B:D

Ans: a. Dietary ..., b. Occur ..., d. Tyrosine... [Ref Harrison 19th/434e1-3, 18th/3217-18; Harper 30h/304-306, 28th/254; Lippincott 4th/270-72]
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- In patients with PKU, tyrosine cannot be synthesized from phenylalanine & therefore, it becomes an essential amino acid that must be supplied in the diet
- Dietary phenylalanine restriction is usually instituted if blood phenylalanine levels are >300 umol/L (5 mg/dL).
- Treatment consists of a special diet low in phenylalanine and supplemented with tyrosine, since tyrosine becomes an essential amino acid in phenylalanine hydroxylase deficiency.
- About one-third of all patients with phenylketonuria and the majority of those with milder forms (phenylalanine <1200 umol/L at presentation) show increased tolerance to dietary proteins and improved metabolic control when treated with tetrahydrobiopterin (5- 20 mg/kg per day), an essential cofactor of phenylalanine hydroxylase. This drug should be used in addition to dietary therapy.
- Pregnancy risks can be minimized by continuing lifelong phenylalanine-restricted diets and assuring strict phenylalanine restriction 2 months prior to conception and throughout gestation.
In Benedict test, red colour is/are produced by:
1. Sucrose
2. Inositol
3. Fructose
4. Lactose
5. Maltose
Correct Answer - C:D:E

Ans: c. Fructose, d. Lactose, e. Maltose [Ref Lippincott 4th/84- 85; Chatterjea Fr Shinde 7th/31; Satyanarayan 3rd/16 ]
- Inositol is also called as muscle sugar. Chemically it is hexa hydroxyl cyclohexane" (Chatterjea d Shinde 7th/190)
- Reducing sugars can react with chromogenic agents (for e.g, Benedict's reagent or Fehling's solution or Barfoed's test) causing the reagent
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