Download PGI PG PGI 2016 November Solved Question Paper

Download PGIMER (Post Graduate Institute of Medical Education & Research, Chandigarh) PGI 2016 November Solved Question Paper

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PGI Chandigarh Last 10 Years 2011-2021 Solved Question Papers (PGIMER Previous Papers)

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Posterior interosseous nerve supplies all except:
1. Extensor carpi radialis longus
2. Extensor carpi ulnaris
3. Extensor digitorum
4. Extensor indices
5. Flexor carpi ulnaris
Correct Answer - A:E

Ans. (a) Extensor carpi radialis longus, (e) Flexor carpi ulnaris
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- The posterior interosseous nerve is a pure motor nerve and innervates supinator & extensor carpi radialis.
- It supplies:
  1. Extensor carpi ulnaris
  2. Extensor digitorum
  3. Extensor digitiminimi
  4. Abductor pollicis longus
  5. Extensor pollicis longus and brevis
  6. Extensor indicis
Muscle's of anterior compartment of leg is/are:
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1. Peroneus tertius
2. Peroneus brevis
3. Peroneuslongus
4. Flexordigitorumlongus
5. Flexor hallucis longus
Correct Answer - A

Ans. (a) Peroneus tertius
- The 4 muscles in the anterior compartment of the leg are- the tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus, extensor hallucis longus, and fibularis(Peroneus) tertius
Branches of internal carotid artery directly arising from it:
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1. Posterior communicating artery
2. Superiorhypophysealartery
3. Inferior hypophyseal artery
4. PosteriorcerebralArtery
5. Recurrent artery ofHeubner
Correct Answer - A:B:C

Ans.(a) Posterior communicating artery, (b), Superior hypophyseal artery, (c) Inferior hypophyseal artery

Internal Carotid Artery Branches :
- Ophthalmic artery
- Posterior communicating artery
- Anterior choroidal artery
- Anterior cerebral artery: Orbital; Frontal and Parietal branches
- Middle cerebral artery: Deep or perforating branch; temporal branch; Frontal branch and Parietal branches
All are true about vestibular nerve except:
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1. It has two division- superior and inferior vestibular
2. Vestibular nuclei situated at junction of pons and medulla
3. Nerve fibres relay at scarpa's ganglion
4. Nucleus lies in midbrain near aqueduct
5. None
Correct Answer - D

Ans. (d) Nucleus lies in midbrain near aqueduct

Vestibular nerve:
- The main nerve divides at and within the vestibular(Scarpa's) ganglion into superior and inferior division, which are connected by an isthmus
- Vestibular nuclei is located in floor of 4th ventricle & is supplied by PICA.
- Vestibular ganglion is also k/a Scarpa's ganglion.
- Vestibular nerve anastomose with cochlear and facial nerve.
True about trochlear nerve:
1. Arise from ventral aspect of brainstem
2. Enters orbit through annulus of Zinn
3. Lesion causes diplopia
4. Nucleus of the trochlear nerve is located in the caudal mesencephalon beneath the cerebral aqueduct
5. Damage causes ipsilateral palsy of superior oblique muscle
Correct Answer - C:D
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Ans. (c) Lesion causes diplopia, (d) Nucleus of the trochlear nerve is located in the caudal mesencephalon

The trochlear nerve has certain unique features:
- It is the only cranial nerve whose fibers originate totally from the contralateral nucleus.
- It is the only cranial nerve to emerge from the dorsal surface of the brain stem.
- It is the most slender of all the cranial nerves.
- It has the longest intradural course among the three extraocular motor nerves.
- It supplies only one muscle i.e. superior oblique (Abducent cranial nerve also supplies only one muscle i.e. Lateral rectus).
Content(s) of aortic hiatus?
1. Thoracic duct
2. Aorta
3. Vagus nerve
4. Inferior vena cava
5. Azygos vein
Correct Answer - A:B:E
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Ans. (a) Thoracic duct, (b) Aorta, (e) Azygos vein
- The aortic hiatus situated at the level of T12 vertebra.
- Structures passing through aortic hiatus along with aorta are:
  1. Thoracic duct
  2. Azygos vein
  3. Hemiazygos vein
Which flexor tendon zone in hand is known as No man's land?
1. Zone I
2. Zone II
3. Zone III
4. Zone IV
5. Zone V
Correct Answer - B

Ans. (b) Zone II
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- Zone II extends from the middle of the middle phalanx to distal palmar crease. It contains both flexor tendon superficialis and flexor tendon profundus.
- It has been called No Man's Land or "No Man's Zone because repair in this zone is very difficult.
Correct statement about meiosis:
1. Somatic cells not divide by meiosis because number of chromosomes reduces to half
2. Occur in germ cell which result in haploid cells
3. One spermatocyte produces one sperm and one oocyte produces one ovum
4. Germ cell undergoes division to form diploid cell and increase their number
5. Body needs meiosis to produce large no. of eggs and sperms
Correct Answer - A:B:E
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Ans. (a) Somatic cells not divide by meiosis (b) Occur in germ cell which result (e) Body needs meiosis to produce .

Meiosis:
- Meiosis is a type of cell division that reduces the number of chromosomes In the parent cell by half and produces four gamete cells.
- This process is required to produce egg and, sperm cell for sexual reproduction
- Meiosis begins with a parent cell that Is diploid and forms four daughter cells that are haploid, which have half the number of chromosomes of the diploid cells.
Cross-section of medulla at the level of mid-olivary section through the floor of fourth ventricle contains which of the following structure?
1. Trapezoid body
2. Dorsal nucleus of vagus
3. Nucleus of tractus solitarius
4. Nucleus ambigus
5. Superior vestibular nucleus
Correct Answer - B:C:D

Ans. (b) Dorsal nucleus of vagus, (c) Nucleus of tractus solitarius, (d) Nucleus ambiguus

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True stateinent (s) about Olfactory system:
1. Olfactory mucosa cover upper 1/3 of nasal cavity
2. Olfactory pathway passes via thalamus to orbitofrontal cortex
3. Adaptation to odour develop only after 1-2 minutes
4. Olfactory receptors act via cAMP
5. Rate of olfactory nerve impulses change approximately in proportion to the logarithm of stimulus strength
Correct Answer - A:B:D:E

Ans. (A) Olfactory mucosa cover upper 1/3 of nasal cavity (B) Olfactory pathway passes via thalamus to orbitofrontal cortex (D) Olfactory receptors act via cAMP (E) Rate of olfactory nerve impulses change approximately in proportion to the logarithm of stimulus strength
- Rate of olfactory nerve impulses change approximately in proportion to the logarithm oF stimulus strength.
- The olfactory receptors adapt about 50% inthe first second or so after stimulatlan. Thereafter, they adapt very little and very slowly.
- Adaptation: It develops within seconds on minutes, depending on the nature of the substance.
- Weber-Fechner Law states that the subjective sensation(ofodor, sound or light intensity) is proportional to the logarithm of! the stimulus intensity"
- The receptor in the olfactory mucous membrane are coupled to G-proteins.
- Olfactory regions: the Upper 1/3 of lateral walls (upto superior concha), corresponding part of the nasal septum and the roof of the nasal cavity from the olfactory region' Here, mucous membrane Is paler in color

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True about special anatomy and Physiology of lung:
1. Surfactant prevent collapse of small alveoli into larger one
2. Larger alveoli has more tendency to collapse than smaller alveoli in absence of surfactant
3. Surfactant decrease chance of collapse
4. Surfactant increases surface tension
5. With surfactant, large alveoli tend to become smaller and smaller ones tend to become larger
Correct Answer - A:C:E

Ans. (A) Surfactant prevent collapse of small alveoli into larger one (C) Surfactant decrease chance of collapse (E) With surfactant, large alveoli tend to become smaller and smaller ones tend to become larger
- Upper region alveoli have larger volumes.
- Already filled with air and are less compliant compared to those to dependent regions
- Low surFace tension alveoli are small - due to the presence in the fluid lining the alveoli of surfactant, a lipid surface-tension-lowering agent.
- Surfactant deficiency is an important cause of infant respiratory distress syndrome (IRDS, also known as hyaline membrane disease.
- Surface tension in the lungs of these infants is higher, and the alveoli are collapsed In matry areas (atelectasis).
All are true about acromegaly except:
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1. Increased IGF-1 levels
2. Excessive growth occurs before fusion of the epiphyses of the long bones
3. Somatostatin analogues can be used
4. Growth hormone levels increased
5. Transsphenoidal surgical resection is the preferred primary treatment for pituitary adenoma
Correct Answer - B

Ans. B. Excessive growth occurs before fusion of the epiphyses of the long bones
- In acromegaly, IGF-I levels are invariably high and reflect a Log-Linear relationship with clrculating GH concentrations.
- For acromegaly, somatostatin analogues and GH receptor antagonists are indicated
- Age-matched serum IGF-I levels are elevated in acromegaly.
- Somatostatin analogues are used as adjuvant treatment for preoperative shrinkage of large invasive macroadenomas.
- Transsphenoidal surgical resection by an experienced. surgeon is the preferred primary treatment.
- Tumors of the somatotrophs of the anterior pituitary (pituitary adenomas) secrete large amounts of growth hormone, leading to glgantbm In chlUren and acromegaly in adults.
- Hypersecretion of growth hormone is accompanied by hypersecretion of prolactin in 20-40% of patients with acromegaly.

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True statement (S) is/are:
1. Vasopressin increase only water reabsorption, not solute reabsorption
2. Aldosterone increase Na+ reabsorption from tubules
3. Glomerular filtrate of PCT has similar osmolarity as of plasma
4. Urine is hyperosmolar in early DCT
5. Generally urine osmolarity equals to plasma osmolarity
Correct Answer - A:B:C

Ans (A) Vasopressin increase only water reabsorption, not solute reabsorption (B) Aldosterone increase Na+ reabsorption from tubules (C) Glomerular filtrate of PCT has similar osmolarity as of plasma
- Antidiuretic hormone(ADH, Vasopressin) increases permeability of distal tubules(mild action) and collecting ducts(mainly) to water)increases water reabsorption.
- Aldosterone causes retentlon of sodlumtrom the kidney and increased urinary excretion of potassium; it has little effect on water excretion.
- PCT:The osmolality of fluids tn tubule is unchanged at approx. 3(X)mosm ie, isotonicity is maintained.
- The tubular fluid entering the DCT is always hypotonic to plasma.
- The fluid in the descending limb of the loop of Henle becomes hypertonic as water moves out of the tubule into the hypertonic interstitium.
- In the ascending limb It becomes more dilute because of the movement of Na+ and Cl- out of the tubular lumen, and. when fluid reaches the top of the ascending It.
- Adrenal mineralocorticoids such as aLDosterone increased tubular reabsorption of Na+ in association with secretion of K+ and H+ and also Na+ reabsorption with Cl-.
Rapidly adapting receptor(s) is/are:
1. Pain receptor
2. Pacinian corpuscles
3. Muscle spindle
4. Golgi tendon organs
5. Meissner corpuscles
Correct Answer - B:D:E

Ans. (B) Pacinian corpuscles (D) Golgi tendon organs (E) Meissner corpuscles
- Rapidly adapting: Rapidly adapting mechanoreceptors include Meissner corpuscle end-organs, Pacinian corpuscle end-organs, hair follicles receptors and some free nerve endings.
- Merkel's discs and Melssner's corpuscles are tactile receptors.
- They are rapidly adapting receptors.
- Pacinian corpuscles: They respond to deformation caused by firm pressure and are quietly adapting.
Which of the following is/are true about normal level:
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1. Total Calcium: 8.5-10.5 mg/dL
2. Sodium:135-145 mmol/L
3. Potassium: 3.5-5.1 mmol/L
4. Creatinine: 0.6-2.6 mg/dL
5. TSH level: 0.1-3.1 mIU/L
Correct Answer - A:B:C

Ans. (A) Total Calcium: 8.5-10.5 mg/dL (B) Sodium:135-145 mmol/L (C) Potassium: 3.5-5.1 mmol/L
- Davidson 22ed / 1308, Harrison L9rh/2762, 2763,
- TSH -.2-4.5mU / L
- Calcium(total):8.5 - 10.5 mg/dL
- Potassium - 3.5-5.0 meq/L
- Sodium - 136-146 meq/L
- Serum creatinine - 0.6-1.6mg/dl
True about Action Potential in skeletal muscle fibers and nerve fibres:
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1. Skeletal muscle fibres conduction velocity is 1/4 of thick myelinated nerve fiber
2. Action potential of both qualitatively similar
3. Resting membrane potential almost same
4. Duration of action potential same in both
5. Action potential of both quantitively similar
Correct Answer - B:C

Ans. (B) Action potential of both qualitatively similar (C) Resting membrane potential almost same
- Muscle Action Potential-Comparison with Nerve Action Potential Guyton I Ith/89
- Resting membrane potential: about -80 to -90 millivolts to skeletal fibers-the same as In large myelinated nerve fibers.
- Duration of action potential 1 to 5 milliseconds tn skeletal muscle about five times as long as in large myelinated fibers..
- Velocity of conduction:3 to 5m/sec-about 1/13th the velocity of conduction in large myelinated terae fibers that excite skeletal muscle.
Tissue elevation of which of the following cause vasoconstriction:
1. Na+
2. K+
3. Mg
4. Ca2+
5. H+
Correct Answer - D

Ans. D. Ca2+
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- Vascular Control by lons and Other Chemical Factors Guyton 12th(SAE)/269
- An increase in calcium ion concentration causes vasoconstriction.
- An increase in potassium iol ion concentration,.within the physiological range, causes vasodilation.
- An increase in magnesium ion concentration causes powerful vasodilation.
- An increase in hydrogen ion concentration (decrease in pH) causes dilation of the arterioles.
- Anions that have significant effects on blood vessels are acetate and citrate.An Increase in carbon dioxide concentration causes moderate vasodilation in most tissues but marked vasodilation in the brain.
Which of the following statement (s)is/are true changes at time of ovulation:
1. GnRH level decreases
2. Gonadotropin hormone surge
3. hCG surge
4. 1' Prostaglandins
5. Activation of proteolytic enzymes
Correct Answer - B:D:E

Ans. B,Gonadotropin hormone surge D,1' Prostaglandins & E,Activation of proteolytic enzymes
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Ovulation:
- The midcycle LH surge is responsible for a dramatic increase in local concentrations of prostaglandins and proteolytic enzymes in the follicular wall.
- These substances progressively weaken the follicular wall and ultimately allow a perforation to form.
- If pregnancy does occur, placental hCG will mimic LH action and continually stimulate the corpus luteum to secrete progesterone.
- Feedback Effects:
- At 36-48 h before ovulation, the estrogen feedback effect becomes positive, and this initiates the burst of LH secretion (LH surge) that produces ovulation.
- Ovulation occurs about 9 after LH peak- FSH secretion also peaks, despite a small rise in inhibin, probably because of. the strong stimulation of gonadotropes by GnRH.
- During the luteal phase, the secretion of LH and FSH is low because

Comprehension preserved in which of the follwing aphasia

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Broca's aphasia
Conduction aphasia
Wernicke's aphasia
Gobal aphasia
Anomic aphasia

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Correct Answer - A:B:E

Ans. A,Broca's aphasia B,Conduction aphasia & E,Anomic aphasia

	Comprehension of Spoken Language	Repetition	Naming	Fluency
Wernicke's	Impaired	Impaired	Impaired	Preserved or increased
Broca's	Preserved (except grammar)	Impaired	Impaired	Decreased
Global	Impaired	Impaired	Impaired	Decreased
Conduction	Preserved	Impaired	Impaired	Preserved
Nonfluent (motor) transcortical	Preserved	Preserved	Impaired	Impaired
Fluent (sensory) transcortical	Impaired	Preserved	Impaired	Preserved
Isolation	Impaired	Echolalia	Impaired	purposeful speech
Anomic	Preserved	Preserved	Impaired	Preserved except for word-finding pauses
Pure word deafness	Impaired only for spoken language	Impaired	Preserved	Preserved
Pure alexia	Impaired only for reading	Preserved	Preserved	Preserved

Vomiting centre (s) involved in post - operative vomiting
1. Area postrema
2. Chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ)
3. Reticular formation located in medulla
4. Nucleus tractus solitarius
5. Basal ganglia
Correct Answer - A:B:D
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Ans. A,Area postrema B,Chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) & D,Nucleus tractus solitarius

Postoperative Nausea and Vomiting (PONV):
- PONV is defined as any nausea, retching, or vomiting occurring during the first 24-48 h after surgery in patients.
- According to our current model, the brain structures involved in the pathophysiology of vomiting are distributed throughout the medulla oblongata of the brainstem, not centralized, In an anatomically defined 'vomiting centre'.
- Such structures include the chemoreceptor trigger zone (cRTZ), Located at the caudal end of the fourth ventricle in the area postrema, and the nucleus tractus solitarius (NTS), located in the area postrema and lower pons.
- PONV can be triggered by several perioperative stimuli, including opioids, volatile anaesthetics, anxiety, adverse drug reactions, and motion.
HGPRT are involve, and gout can be a feature.
1. HGPRT deficiency
2. HGPRT overactivity
3. PRPP synthetase deficiency
4. Glucose 6- phosphatase deficiency
5. Glucose phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency
Correct Answer - A:D

Answer. (a) HGPRT deficiency, (d) Glucose 6- phosphatase deficiency
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[Ref: Harper 30th/354-56; Satyanarayan 4th/269-70,394-951
- Von Gierke's disease (Type 1 glycogen storage disease): Hyperuricemia occurs due to Glucose 6-phosphatase enzyme defect.
- HGPRT deficiency(as seen in Lesch-Nyhan syndrome): Increased production of purines
- Glucose 6-phosphatase deficiency:Purine overproduction.
- Gout is usually preceded and accompanied by hyperurlcemta (plasma uric acid level >0.41 mmol/L).
- Hlperuricemia is caused by dacreased renal extretlon, Increased productlon" or increased intake oturlc acid
Hyperphenylalaninemia occurs due to:
1. Phenylalanine hydroxylase deficiency
2. Phenylalanine hydroxylase overactivity
3. Dihydrobiopterin reductase deficiency
4. Tyrosine hydroxylase deficiency
5. Defect in dihydrobiopterin biosynthesis
Correct Answer - A:C:E

Answer: (a) Phenylalanine hydroxylase..., (c) Dihydrobiopterin reductase..., (e) Defect in dihydrobiopterin biosynthesis
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- Hyperphenylalaninemias arise from defects in phenylalanine hydroxylase itself (type I, classic phenylketonuria or PKU), in dihydrobiopterin reductase (types II and III), or in dihydrobiopterin biosynthesis (types IV and V). Alternative catabolites are excreted.
- PKU is caused by a dcficiency otphenylalanine hydroxyl.as e, is the most common clinicallv encountered inborn error of amino acidmetabolism.
- Hyperphenylalaninemia may also be caused by deficiencies in any of the several enzymes required to synthesize BH4, or in dihydropteridine reductase, which regenerates BH4 from BH2.
- BH4 is also required for tyrosine hydroxylase and tryptophan hydroxylase, which catalyze reactions leading to the synthesis of neurotransmitters, such as serotonin and reverse the central nervous system (CNS) effects due to deficiencies in neurotransmitters.

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Oxidative phoephoryletlon not inhiblted by:
1. Fluoride
2. 2, 4-dinitrophenol (DNP)
3. Oligomycin
4. Carboxin
5. Ouabin
Correct Answer - A:D:E

Answer: (a) Fluoride, (d) Carboxin, (e) Ouabin [Ref: Harper 30th/132-33; Lippincott 6th/79; Satyanarayan 4th/233-34; Chatterjea 7th/132-341
- There are three sites in respiratory chain where ATP is formed by oxidative phosphorylation. Three sites are- Site I(Complex-l), Site II(Complex III) and Site III(Complex IV). Complex II(Succinate dehyfuogenase FAD) is not involved in oxidative phosphorylation.
- 2,4-dinitrophenol(DNP)Dinitrocresol, Trifluorocarbonylcyanide phenylhydrazone, Pentachlorophenol
- Aspirin(in high dose), High concentration of thermogenin, thyroxine and long chain free fatty acids, Antibiotics- valinomycin, gramicidin A and nigercin are inhibitores of oxidative phosphorylation
- Carboxin inhibit complex II, which is not involved in oxidative phosphorylation(so not included in answer)"? Chatterjea 7h/134
- "Ouabain is a cardiac glycoside that acts by inhibiting the NW/IC - ATPase sodium-potassium ion pump"-Harper 30th/491
- Fluoride: It inhibits the activities of certain enzymes. Sodium fluoride inhibits enolase(of glycolysis) while fluoroacetate inhibits aconitase(of citric acid cycle)"- Satyanarayan 4th/420.

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True about Apolipoproteii.
1. Constitute peripheral region of plasma lipoproteins
2. Divided into A, B, C only
3. Apo A-I is the major protein component of high density lipoprotein (HDL)
4. Apo A,B and C are further divided
5. Role in enzyme activation
Correct Answer - A:C:D:E

Answer. (a) Constitute peripheral region of..., (c) Apo A-I is the major protein..., (d) Apo A,B and C are..., (e) Role in enzyme ... [Ref: Harper 30th/254-55; Satyanarayan 4th/318; http://noprniscairres.in/bitstream; onlinelibrary.wiley.com]
- Apolipoproteins (apo) play very important roles in the synthesis and catabolism of plasma lipoproteins, in lipid transport, and as activators of certain enzymes associated with lipid and lipoprotein metabolism
- Apolipoproteins are the protein component of plasma lipoproteins which consist of a core of triglycerides and cholesterol esters and a peripheral region of phospholipid, sphingolipid and protein.
- Apo A-I is the major protein component of high density lipoprotein (HDL) and a minor component of chylomicrons and very low density lipoprotein (VLDL).
- Apolipo proteins are divided by structure and function into five major classes, A through E, with most classes having subclasses, for example, apolipoprotein (or apo) A-I and apo C-II.
Amino acids containing hydroxyl group:
1. Threonine
2. Tyrosine
3. Serine
4. Tryptophan
5. Valine
Correct Answer - A:B:C
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Answer: (a) Threon ine, (b) Tyrosine, (c) Serine Lippincott 6th/4
- Serine, threonine, and tyrosine each contain a polar hydroxyl group that can participate in hydrogen bond formation.
- The side chains of asparagine and glutamine each contain a carbon-yl group and an amide group, both of which can also participate in hydrogen bonds"-
Cytochrome P450 is/are involved In:
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1. Hydroxylation of xenobiotics
2. Methylation of xenobiotics
3. Deamination reaction
4. Involved in hydroxylation of steroids
5. Drug interaction
Correct Answer - A:C:D:E

Ans. (a) Hydroxylation of xenobiotics, (c) Deamination reaction, (d) Involved in hydroxylation of steroids, (e) Drug interaction [Ref: Harper 30th/584-85; KDT 7th/23-26;Lippincott 6th/; Satyanarayan 4th/639-40]
- Cytochrome P450s are involved in phase I(hydroxulation) of the metabolism of xenobiotics, not in phase II. Methylation of xenobiotics occur in phase II by methyltransferase
True about role of phospholipids:
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1. Cell to cell recognition
2. Cell signaling
3. Precursor of Second Messengers
4. Mediators of inflammation
5. Regulate membrane permeability
Correct Answer - B:C:D:E

Answer: (b) Cell signaling, (c) Precursor of Second Messengers, (d) Mediators of inflammation, (e) Regulate membrane permeability (Ref: Harper 30th/212,216,253-54; Robbins 9th/83-84; Satyanarayan 4th/36-37)
- Glycoprotein(fibronectin, laminin) is involve in cell-cell recognition and adhesion.
- The inositol is present in phosphatidylinositol as the stereoisomer, myoinositol. Phosphorylated phosphatidylinositols (phosphoinositides) are minor components of cell membranes, but play an important part in cell signaling and membrane trafficking.
- Sphingomyelins are also found in large quantities in the myelin sheath that surrounds nerve fibers. They are believed to play a role in cell signaling and in apoptosis.
- Phosphatidylinositol is the source of second messengers-inositol triphosphate and diacylglyceol
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This post was last modified on 11 August 2021

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