Download PGI PG 2019 May Solved Question Paper

Download PGIMER (Post Graduate Institute of Medical Education & Research, Chandigarh) 2019 May Solved Question Paper

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PGI Chandigarh Last 10 Years 2011-2021 Solved Question Papers (PGIMER Previous Papers)

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PGI CHANDIGARH MAY-2019 [Questions]

ANATOMY/EMBRYOLOGY

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Remnants of omphalomescentric duct include?
1. Urachal sinus
2. Umbilical sinus
3. Meckel's diverticulum
4. Patent vitelline duct
5. Median umbilical ligament
Which of the following structures are attached to the medial condyle of the femur?
1. Tibial collateral ligament
2. Fibular collateral ligament
3. Popliteus
4. Capsular ligament
5. Lateral head of gastronemious muscle
Which of the following vessels supply blood to the pectoralis major muscle?
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1. Superior thoracic artery
2. Lateral thoracic artery
3. Pectoral branch of thoracoacromial artery
4. Thoracodorsal artery
5. Internal mammary artery
Trigeminal nerve supplies all of the following muscles except?
1. Anterior belly of diagastric
2. Mylohyoid
3. Tensor tympani
4. Tensor velli palati
5. Levator velli palate
Tests used to detect ulnar nerve injury are?
1. Card test
2. Egawa test
3. Pen test
4. Pointing index
5. Book test

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PHYSIOLOGY

Action potential in cardiac muscle is generated by?
1. Voltage gated sodium channels
2. Voltage gated potassium channels
3. P type calcium channels
4. Q type calcium channels
5. L type calcium channels
True regarding vitamin D receptor is/are?
1. Dimerises with retinoid X receptors
2. Transcription factors
3. Cytosolic
4. Nuclear
5. Located on the surface of smooth endoplasmic reticulum

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Pulmonary function tests in a normal individual can be affected by following factors?
1. Height
2. Age
3. Weight
4. Gender
5. Genetics
False statement regarding ECG is/are?
1. QT interval corresponds to the initiation of Q wave to the termination of T wave
2. ST interval is measured from the end of QRS complex to the end of T wave & its normal duration is 0.32 sec
3. QRS complex corresponds to the phase 2 of action potential
4. The P wave is produced by atrial depolarization and P wave is absent in atrial fibrillation
5. There is no ECG wave corresponding to atrial repolarization

BIOCHEMISTRY

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Pellagra can be caused by?
1. Niacin deficiency
2. Hartnup disease
3. Tryptophan excess
4. Leucine excess
5. Carcinoid syndrome
Tests used for protein detection are?
1. Western blot
2. ELISA
3. Flow cytometry
4. Sequential polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis
5. Chromatin immunoprecipitation assay
Which of the following protein causes opening of double helix DNA in front of replication fork in DNA synthesis?
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1. DNA polymerase I
2. DNA polymerase II
3. DNA ligase
4. DNA helicase
5. DNA topoisomerase
Normally proteins are the linear polymers of amino acid polypeptide chains resulting from their folding. Sometimes these linear structures combine with each other to form homo and heterodimers. These include?
1. Denatured protein
2. Primary structure
3. Secondary structure
4. Tertiary structure
5. Quaternary structure
True regarding next generation sequencing is/are?
1. Entire human genome can be sequenced within a single day
2. Less sensitive than Sanger sequencing
3. Can detect mosaic mutations
4. More cost-effective for sequencing low numbers of targets
5. Utilize RNA sequencing (RNA-Seq) to discover novel RNA variants

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In future, next generation sequencing can be used for?
1. Detection of synonymous small nuclear protein [SNP]
2. Detection of non-synonymous SNPs
3. Identification of genes with drug resistance
4. Diagnosis of genetic diseases
5. Better diagnosis of cancers
Which of the following elongation / initiation factor acts as a GTPase switch during the process of translation?
1. EF-tu
2. EF-R
3. Rho factor
4. Initiation factor-2
5. Elongation factor-2
Which of the following RNA(s) is/are required to read the genetic information contained in DNA and transfer it for the purpose of protein synthesis?
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1. mRNA
2. tRNA
3. rRNA
4. MIRNA
5. SIRNA
Which of among the followings is not a purine nucleotide base?
1. Adenine
2. Guanine
3. Thymine
4. Uracil
5. Cytosine
Pentose phosphate pathway takes place in which part of a cell?
1. Cytosol
2. Nucleus
3. Mitochondria
4. Lysosome
5. Golgi complex

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In which of the following condition(s) utilization of pyruvate is decreased?
1. Pernicious anemia
2. Scurvy
3. Rickets
4. Beri beri
5. Pellagra
Urea cycle enzymes include?
1. Argininosuccinase
2. Ornithine transcarbamoylase
3. Argininosuccinate synthase
4. Glutamate dehydrogenase
5. Carbamoyl-phospahte synthatase -1

MICROBIOLOGY

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Which of the following can be used to culture Ureoplasma ureolyticum?
1. Blood agar
2. McConkey agar
3. PPLO
4. SP4
5. Alkaline peptone water
Mycoplasma genitalum can cause which of the following infections?
1. Sepsis
2. Bacterial vaginosis
3. Non-gonococcal urithritis
4. Cervicitis
5. Osteomyelitis
True regarding Chikungunya virus is/are?
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1. It is DNA virus
2. Transmitted by aedes aegypti mosquito
3. Cannot be detected in the blood during the acute illness
4. Resides in muscle and joints during active phase
5. Mostly presents as fever and athralgia
Which of the following organisms can be grown on L-J media?
1. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
2. Mycobacterium fortuitum
3. Mycobacterium leprae
4. Mycobacterium bovis
5. Nocardia
True regarding Mycobacterium tuberculosis is/are?
1. All produce niacin
2. Can be differentiated from other mycobacteria by BACTEC NAP test
3. At least 100 fields on the slide should be examined before reporting it negative
4. Mycobacterium microti is a part of MTB complex
5. XpertMTB/Rif is specific test for MTB

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Among the following pathogenic protozoa, which are the members of "Mastigophora"?
1. Balantidium coli
2. Plasmodium vivax
3. Giardia lamblia
4. Toxoplasma gondii
5. Trypanosome cruzi
Which of the following statement) is/are true regarding Mucor?
1. Filamentous fungus found in decaying fruits and vegetables.
2. On tissue microscopy appear as septate hyphae with branching
3. Human infections are usually caused by thermophilic species
4. Vascular invasion is the most prominent feature of mucor infections
5. Colonies grow very rapidly at 37°C temperature
Which of the following statements is/are true regarding Meiliodosis?
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1. Caused by a saprophyte found in soil and water
2. Main source of infection is contaminated water
3. May take years or even decades before becoming symptomatic
4. Can present with fever and rash
5. Treatment includes long term mentainance on trimoxazole or doxycycline

PREVENTIVE & SOCIAL MEDICINE

In which of the following conditions live vaccine should not be given?
1. Pregnancy
2. Immunodeficiency
3. Tuberculosis
4. Active acute infection
5. Allergy to any adjuvant like aluminium hydroside
Which of the following is/are included seven priorities of national health policy 2017?
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1. Yatri suraksha (saving from road and rail accidents]
2. Improved screening of genetic diseases
3. Nirbhaya nari [action against gender violence]
4. Reducing the stress and improving the health of the work place
5. Emphasis on "make in India" programme for available cardiac instruments
Which of the following conditions can be diagnosed with surveillance under "Fever without localized signs" in integrated disease surveillance programme/IDSP?
1. Malaria
2. Typhoid
3. Leptospirosis
4. Hepatitis
5. Japanese encephalitis
Which of the following are undifferentiated fevers under the syndromic approach to tropical fevers?
1. Dengue
2. Malaria
3. Leptospirosis
4. Typhus
5. Borreliosis

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Which of the following statements is true regarding dengue?
1. Incubation period is about < 48 hours
2. Saddle back fever
3. Blanchable rashes over trunk and limbs
4. Maintains reservoir in rats
5. Self limiting disease
True regarding lymphatic filarisis eradication programme is/are?
1. Lymphatic filarisis control programme was started in 1965
2. Source reduction was the part of control strategy
3. Home remedies were included as a part of control strategy
4. Objectives included control through anti-larval measures
5. Aim for elimination was in year 2015
Which of the following vaccines should not be given in a child with egg allergy?
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1. Measles
2. Rubella
3. Influenza
4. Rubella
5. Yellow fever

PHARMACOLOGY

Which of the following agent is a T-type calcium channel blocker?
1. Ethosuxamide
2. Zonasamide
3. Levetiracetam
4. Trimethadione
5. Mibefradil
Which of the following agent can be used for managing alcohol withdrawal in liver disease patient?
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1. Chlordiazepoxide
2. Diazepam
3. Lorazepam
4. Flunitrazepam
5. Oxazepam
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true regarding bioavailability?
1. It is the proportion [fraction] of unchanged drug that reaches the systemic circulation
2. Bioavailability of an orally administered drug can be calculated by comparing the Area Under Curve after oral and intravenous [iv] administration
3. Can be measured by plasma concentration and urinary excretion data
4. Low oral bioavailability always and necessarily mean poor absorption
5. Bioavailability is studies in phase '0' of a clinical trial
Which of the following drug has been approved by FDA to be used in the treatment of cystic fibrosis with G551D mutation?
1. Ivacaftor
2. Lumacaftor
3. Ataluren
4. Tezacaftor
5. VX-661

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Which among the following drugs can cause Kynaecomastia?
1. Calcium channel blockers
2. Penicillamine
3. Valproate
4. Omeprazole
5. Rifampicin
Which of the following agent is a racemic mixture of two enentiomers with different pharmacodynamics and pharmacokinetic properties?
1. Digoxin
2. Phenytoin
3. Levodopa
4. Esomeprazole
5. Verapamil
Which of the following agents have antisuicidal property?
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1. Lithium
2. Clozapine
3. Fluoxetine
4. Electoconvulsive therapy
5. Repeated intracranial transmagnetic stimulation
Which of the following is true regarding thiazide diuretics?
1. Act by blocking the sodium channels in interstitium
2. Retain responsiveness even if the GFR is decreased
3. Lead to decrease in absorption of sodium in distal tubule
4. Cause decreased renal blood flow
5. Can cause hyperglycemia
Goiterogens which interfere with lodine trapping include?
1. Vegetables of brassica family
2. Percholates
3. Para-amino ammonium sulphide (PAAS)
4. Idodides in large doses
5. Carbamizole

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Which of the following mentioned toxicity is associated with cisplatin use?
1. Neurotoxicity
2. Nephrotoxicity
3. Cardiac toxicity
4. Neuropathy
5. Ototoxicity
Which of the following agent acts by inhibiting alpha 2B beta 3 receptors?
1. Clopidogrel
2. Abciximab
3. Heparin
4. Tirofiban
5. Eptifibitide
Which of the following antibiotics cause time dependent killing?
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1. Aminoglycosides
2. Beta lactams
3. Macrolides
4. Linezolid
5. Clindamycin
Which among the following is considered a type 'C' adverse drug reaction?
1. Steroids-osteoporosis
2. Penicillin - anaphylaxis
3. Opioid-respiratory depression
4. Analgesics nephropathy
5. Warfarin bleeding
Which of the following statements are true regarding anticholinesterase?
1. They cannot inhibit pseudocholinesterase
2. They act by increasing the concentration of Ach by preventing its degradation
3. Reversible and irreversible anticholinesterases act by different mechanism of action
4. Anticholinesetrases inhibit the anionic site of acetylcholinesterase
5. All organophosphates anticholinesetrases are water soluble

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PATHOLOGY

In a case of Hodgkin's disease, classical Reid-Steenberg cells are positive for?
1. CD10
2. CD20
3. C130
4. CD4S
5. MUMI
Pierre Robbin syndrome is characterized by?
1. Micrognathia
2. Craniosynostosis
3. Glossoptests
4. Maxillary hypoplasia
5. Cleft palate

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Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the p53 gene?
1. Most common gene mutation found in human cancers
2. p53 mediated senescence is temperature sensitive cell cycle arrest
3. Works at G1/S check point
4. Also called "guardian of genomes"
5. Induces DNA repair by arresting the cell cycle at GI and inducing activation of DNA repair genes
Which of the following are the histological features of typical ulcerative colitis?
1. Crypt branching
2. Crypt distortion
3. Abundant lymphoplasmacytic infiltrate in basal layer
4. Granulorias
5. Hypertrophy of muscularis mucosal layer
All of the following statements are true regarding Marfan syndrome except!
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1. Autosomal dominant disease of connective tissue
2. Occurs due to mutation in fibrillin i gene
3. There is defect in enzyme lysyl hydroxylase
4. Defective and excessive production of transforming groseth factor beta
5. Results from defective collagen synthesis
Which of the following is correct paring of plasma protein and its designated function?
1. Cerulopalsmin-iron absorption
2. Hemopexin-heme binding
3. Heptaglobin-heme destruction
4. Transcortin-copper binding
5. Thyroxin binding globulin - thyroxin binding
Which of the following are involved in etiopathogenesis of SLE?
1. Interferon type 1
2. Interferon type 2
3. Failure of self tolerance in B cells
4. Exposure to UV rays
5. Early complement component deficiency

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All of the following are chromosomal disorders?
1. Noonan syndrome
2. Kleinfelter syndrome
3. Pradder Willi syndrome
4. Fragile X-syndrome
5. Turner syndrome
Which of the following is/are related to DICERI gene mutation?
1. Retinoblastoma
2. Pleuropulmonary blastoma
3. Ovarian sex cord tumor
4. Medulloepithelioma
5. Embryonal Rhabdomyosarcoma
Two most common cardiac tumors are?
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1. Myxoma
2. Fibroma
3. Sarcoma
4. Rhabdomyosarcoma
5. Metastasis
Which of the following result from defect in innate immunity?
1. Burtton's agammaglobulinemia
2. Chediak Higashi syndrome
3. Common variable immunodeficiency
4. De George syndrome

FORENSIC MEDICINE

Conduct money is given in?
1. Civil case
2. Criminal case
3. Property dispute
4. Only 304 A casei
5. Medical negligence compensation cases

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Chronic arsenic poisoning is characterized by
1. Chronic constipation
2. Peripheral sensory motor neuropathy
3. Hypopigmentation
4. Increased risk of renal and bladder cancer
5. Lower limb gangrene
Hatter's shake are a feature of which poisoning!
1. Cannabis
2. Nux vohimica
3. Mercury
4. Copper
5. Arsenic
Activated charcoal is not used in the management of which poisoning?
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1. Paracetamol poisoning
2. Salicylate toxicity
3. Ethylene glycol poisoning
4. Cyanide poisoning
5. Kerosene poisoning
In which of the following hair cortex is thicker than medulla?
1. Pig
2. Horse
3. Reptile
4. Boys
5. Girls

PEDIATRICS

Which of the following is the most common cause of non-immune hydrops?
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1. Cytomegalo virus
2. Human papilloma virus
3. Herpes simplex virus
4. Hepatitis B virus
5. Parvovirus B 19
Which of the following can cause hypertension in children?
1. Multiple pituitary hormone deficiency
2. Hyperadrenalism
3. Pheochromocytoma
4. Hypothyroidism
5. Hyperthyroidism
Which of the following is not a correct pairing of mile stone and its age of developing?
1. 5 months - holding of objects with both hands
2. 6 months - transfer of objects
3. 6 months - tripod sitting
4. 9 months - pulls to sitting
5. 14 months - pincer grasp

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VACTERI anomalies include?
1. Ventriculomegaly
2. Cardiomegaly
3. Tracheal stenosis
4. Anorectal anomaly
5. Radial limb anomaly
Diphtheria in child is characterized by all of the following except?
1. Incubation period is mostly 2-5 days
2. Pharyngo tonsillar diphtheria commonly presents as sore throat.
3. Membrane can cover, pharyngeal walls, tonsils, uvula, soft palate and glottis
4. Fever, malaise & tachycardia
5. Anterior nares are the most common sites of infection
Which of the following is true regarding presentation of dehydration in a child?
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1. Reduced skin turgor - mild dehydration
2. Dry mucus membrane - moderate dehydration
3. Urine output <0.5ml/kg/hour-moderate dehydration
4. Fluid deficit of 150ml/kg - severe dehydration
5. Rapid and deep breathing - severe dehydration
Complications of hemolytic disease of newborn include all of the following except?
1. Thrombocytopenia
2. Late anemia of infancy
3. Inspissated bile syndrome
4. Hypoglycemia
5. Cerebral palsy
Congenital rubella syndrome is characterized by all of the following except?
1. Microcephaly
2. Patent ductus arteriosus
3. Hutchinson teeth
4. Deafness
5. Mental retardation

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ENT

Which of the following is/are associated with empty nose syndrome?
1. Widely patent nasal cavity
2. Previous history of nasal surgery with resection of turbinates
3. Chronic nasal discharge
4. Relieved by surgical resection of turbinates
5. Foul smell from the nose
Atresia / stenosis of ear canal is seen in?
1. Treacher Collins syndrome
2. Crouzon syndrome
3. De George syndrome
4. Pierre Robin syndrome
5. All of the above

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Which of the following statement() is/are true regarding subglottic cancer?
1. More common location than glottis and supraglottic location
2. Mostly earliest symptom is hoarseness
3. May present as stridor
4. May involve upper and middle jugular lymph nodes
5. It has worst prognosis than glottic and supraglottic variety
Which of the following is a feature of Ranula?
1. Mucus retention cyst
2. Spontaneous resolution is possible
3. Is a premalignant condition
4. Translucent
5. Is a rare parotid gland tumor

OPHTHALMOLOGY

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Which of the following can increase the intra ocular pressure?
1. Apple
2. Topical steroids
3. Ketamine
4. Norflox eye drops
5. Acetazolamide
Which of the following statements) is/are not true regarding acute angle closure glaucoma?
1. Aquous outflow blockage
2. Clear cornea
3. Cilliary congestion
4. Non-reactive pupil
5. Rapidly progressive vision loss
True statement regarding macula lutea is?
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1. Temporal to optic disc
2. Presents as blind spot in visual field
3. Appears as a dark spot on ophthalmoscopy
4. Brighter than surrounding retina
5. Rich blood supply
Correct regarding chalazion is/are?
1. Chronic lipo-granulomatous inflammatory lesion
2. Acute infection of glands of Zeis or Moh's
3. Occurs due to blockage of mebomian duct and impaction of sebaceous material
4. Presents as round firm swelling within eyelid
5. Always tender
This download link is referred from the post: PGI Chandigarh Last 10 Years 2011-2021 Solved Question Papers (PGIMER Previous Papers)
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This post was last modified on 11 August 2021

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