- In a patient with ileal resection, ileoc-coecal vales are spared. Which of the following can develop?
- Bacterial overgrowth
- Malabsorption
- Steatorrhea
- Cholelithiasis
- Renal oxalate stones
--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Correct Answer - B:C:D:E
Answer- B, C, D, E
Patients with short-bowel syndrome invariably present with a history of several intestinal resections.--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Malabsorption, diarrhea (with or without steatorrhea) is an almost constant clinical findings.
Terminal ileum resection- watery diarrhea/ steatorrhea, malabsorbtion, megaloblastic anemia, oxalate kidney stones, cholesterol gall stones. - Alcohol is a risk factor for which of the following carcinoma(s)?
- Esophagus
- Liver
- Pancreas
- Cervix
- Larynx
--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Correct Answer - A:B:C:D:E
Answer- A, B, C, D, E--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Alcohol most strongly increased the risk for cancers of the oral cavity, pharynx, esophagus and larynx.
Significant increases in risk also existed for cancers of the stomach, colon, rectum, liver, female breast, and ovaries.
Alcoholic women are at high risk for in situ and invasive cervical cancer and for cancer of the vagina. - True regarding esophageal squamous cell carcinoma is/ are?
- Barrett's esophagus is a risk factor
- Common in middle third of esophagus
- Stomach, jejunum or colon can be used for replacement after surgical removal
- Chemoradiation has little role in inoperable patients
- Staging is done by CECT
--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Correct Answer - B:C:E
--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Answer- B, C, E
"The stomach remains the most Preferred esophageal substitute following esophagectomy for cancer.
Squamous cell carcinoma-
It is the most common type of esophageal carcinoma worldwide and in India. It usually occurs in middle 1/3rd (most common) and upper 1/3rd of esophagus. Some may also arise in lower 1/3rd.
Important risk factors---- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Plummer -Vinson- Paterson Kelly syndrome
Tylosis plamaris et plantaris
Human papilloma virus (HPV) infection
Flexible endoscopy with biopsy is the primary method for diagnosis of esophageal cancer.
CECT chest and abdomen and Positron emisison tomography (PET) are one for staging of esophageal cancer.--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Stomach, jejunum or colon can be used for replacement after surgical removal - True regarding acute sialedinitis is/are?
- Most common in submandibular glands
- Most common type is viral
- Can present with stasis of saliva
- There may be tender pre-auricular nodes
- Stone removal may be done by probing through oral route
--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Correct Answer - B:C:E
Answer- B, C, E, Most common type is viral, Can present with stasis of saliva, Stone removal may be done by probing through oral route
Sialadenitis is most common in the parotid gland.--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
The most common cause of acute inflammation of the salivary glands is mumps virus.
Sialadenitis due to bacterial infections is most commonly caused by Staphylococcus aureus.
Stone or a kink in the salivary duct can also diminish saliva flow/stasis of saliva.
Surgical management-
Abscesses require drainage--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Gland excision incases of recurrent acute sialadenitis. - True regarding chronic pancreatitis is/are?
- Can present with steatorrhea and malabsorption
- Presents with mid epigastric pain radiating to back
- Markedly raised level of amylase & lipase
- Predisposes to carcinoma
- Complete pancreactomy relieves pain in majority of patients
--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Correct Answer - A:B:D:E
Answer- A, Can present with steatorrhea and malabsorption
B,Presents with mid epigastric pain radiating to back--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
D,Predisposes to carcinoma E,Complete pancreactomy relieves pain in majority of patients
Etiology
Alcoholic pancreatitis - most common
Hyperparathyroidism
Hypertriglyceridemia--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Autoimmune
Clinical features-
Abdominal pain is the most common presenting symptom.
The patient experiences intermittent attacks of severe pain, often in the mid-abdomen or left upper abdomen and occasionally raditing in a bandlike fashion or locatized to the midback.
Chronic pancreatitis include maldigestion, malabsorption, diarrhea, bloating and weight loss. This may be due either to fear of eating or due to pancreatic exocrine insufficieny and steatorrhea & azotorrhea (protein malabsorption).--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Serum enzymes-
Serum amylase and lipase levels are normal or slightly elevated in chronic pancreatitis.
In later stage of chronic pancreatitis, atrophy of the pancreatitic parenchyma results in normal serum enzyme levels because of fibrosis of the pancrease.
Treatment-
i) Pancreaticduct drainage--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
In patients with a dilated pancreatic duct, a Roux-en-Y side-to-side pancreatico jejunostomy is indicated.
ii) Pancreatic resection-
If the disease is limited to the head of the pancreas, a Whipple operation (pancreaticoduodenectomy) can produce good results. - q-SOFA score includes?
- Pulse rate
- Respiratory rate
- Systolic blood pressure
- Altered mentation
- Mean arterial pressure
--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Correct Answer - B:C:D
--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Answer- B,Respiratory rate C,Systolic blood pressure D,Altered mentation
It is a validated ICU mortality prediction score, to help identify patients with suspected infection that are at high risk for poor outcome (defined as in-hospital mortality, or ICU length of stay >3 days) outside of the ICU.
The qSOFA simplifies the SOFA score drastically by only including its 3 clinical criteria.
It is used in patients > 18 years old in a non-ICU setting (pre-hospital, ward, emergency department, step down unit) with confirmed or suspected infection.
Low blood pressure - 1--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
HIGH RESPIRATORY RATE - 1
Altered mentation- 1 - True regarding leg ulcers & their location is/are?
- Arterial insufficiency - tip of the toes
- Arterial insufficiency - medial side of leg [above medial malleolus]
- Venous insufficiency - above lateral malleolus
- Diabetic neuropathic ulcer - planter aspect of metatarsal head
- Pressure ulcer - heel
--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Correct Answer - A:C:D:E
Answer- A, Arterial insufficiency - tip of the toes C,Venous insufficiency - above lateral malleolus D, Diabetic neuropathic ulcer - planter aspect of metatarsal head E, Pressure ulcer - heel--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Venous ulcer-
Located below the knee,most often on the inner part (medial) of the ankles. Those associated with lasser saphenous vein insufficiency may occur on outer side (lateral).
Associated with aching, swollen lower legs that feel more comfortable when elevated.
Arterial ulcer-
Usually found on the feet, heels or toes. Toes are afected most commonly especially tips.--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
The borders ofthe ulcer appear as though they have been 'punched out'.
Frequently painful, particularly at night in bed or when the legs are at rest and elevated.
Neurotrophic (diabetic) Ulcers-
Neuropathic ulcers usually occur on the plantar aspect of the foot under the metatarsal heads or on the plantar aspects of the toes.
Pressure ulcer (pressure sore /decubitus ulcer)---- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
The hip and buttock regions account for up to 70% of all pressure injuries, with ischial tuberosity, trochanteric, and sacral locations being most common.
The lower extremities account for an additional 15-25% of all pressure injuries, with malleolar, heel, patellar, and pretibial locations being most common. - TRUE statement regarding hepatocellular carcinoma is/are?
- Frequently associated with raised AFP
- Good prognosis even without resection
- Ultrasound guided biopsy is diagnostic
- There is extensive vascular invasion
- Most cases present with resectable tumor
--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Correct Answer - A:C:D
Answer- A, Frequently associated with raised AFP C,Ultrasound guided biopsy is diagnostic D, There is extensive vascular invasion--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
It is the most common primary malignant tumor of liver.
Most important risk factor for HCC is HBV infection.
Risk factors are chronic alcoholism, food contaminants
Clinical Features-
Hepatocellular carcinomas have a strong propensity for invasion of vascular channels. Extensive intrahepatic metastasis occurs and the tumour occasionally invades the portal vein or inferior venacava.--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Unresected hepatocellular carcinoma has a very poor prognosis.
The fibrolamellar variant of the HCC is associated with a more favorable prognosis.
Diagnosis-
Liver Biopsy under US or CT guidance- The diagnosis can be established by percutaneous core biopsy or aspiration biopsy in most patients if the biogsy site is selected.
MRI is the investigation of choice.--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Serological markers
Elevated level of serum alphafetoproteins are seen in 50 - 75% cases.
Treatment-
Only 15-20% of HCC are resectable because of multicentricity, bilobar involvement, portal vein invasion and lymphatic metastasis. - TRUE statement regarding pyogenic liver abscess is/ are?
- More common on left side of liver
- Surgical drainage is the treatment of choice
- Most common organism responsible is E. coli
- X-rays are diagnostic
- Diagnosis is confirmed by aspiration and culture
--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Correct Answer - C:E
Answer- C, Most common organism responsible is E. coli E, Diagnosis is confirmed by aspiration and culture
It can be multiloculated or a single cavity.
It usually involves the right lobe (-75%)
Clinical features--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
the classical description of hepatic abscess is - fever, jaundice and rt. upper quadrant pain; but this is rarely seen (-10% cases)
most common presentation includes ? fever with chills and abdominal pain (Fever is MC symptom)
Nonspecific symptoms like malaise and anorexia are also seen
Laboratory investigations
Abnormalities of LFTs are generally seen but are not severe.--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Alkaline phosphatase & transminases are mildly elevated
Bilirubin is elevated
Ultrasound and CT are the main diagnostic modalities.
Diagnosis is confirmed by aspiration and culture.
(Serology tests are helpful for diagnosing amoebic abscess not pyogenic liver abscess.)--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Treatment involves antibiotics and percutaneous catheter drainage - Poor prognosis of breast carcinoma is associated with?
- Over expression of Her-2/neu
- Increased estrogen & progesterone receptor expression
- Triple negative tumor
- < 2% cells in 'S' phase of mitosis
- > 65% cells expressing Ki-67 marker
--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Correct Answer - A:C:E
Answer- A,Over expression of Her-2/neu C, Triple negative tumor E, > 65% cells expressing Ki-67 marker
A diagnosis of triple negative breast cancer means that the three most common tlpes of receptors i.e. estrogen receptors (ER), Progesterone receptors (PR), and the hormone epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER-2/neu gene) are not present in the tumor cells.--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
This type of cancer is more common in women with BRCA1 gene mutations. - Luminal A breast cancer shows following feature?
- Low grade tumor
- Her2 /neu amplification
- Good prognosis
- High grade tumor
- ER negative
--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Correct Answer - A:C
Answer- A, Low grade tumor C, Good prognosis
Most common subtype.--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Low grade, Slow growing.
Best prognosis of all subtypes
Hormone-receptor (ER and/or PR) positive with high expression.
HER2 negative/ low expression
Low expression of the protein Ki-67--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
- True regarding epidural hematoma is/are?
- Arterial bleed
- More dangerous than subdural variety
- On CT scan it gives biconvex lenticular hyperdense appearance
- Located on lateral side of hemisphere
- Common after Injury at pterion
--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Correct Answer - A:B:C:D:E
Answer- A,Arterial bleed B,More dangerous than subdural variety C,On CT scan it gives biconvex lenticular hyperdense appearance D, Located on lateral side of hemisphere E,Common after Injury at pterion
Epidural hematoma brain injuries (also referred to as extradural hemorrhages) involve blood pooling between the outer membrane (the dura) and the skull
Cause---- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Injury to middle meningeal artery.
Accumulation of blood-
b/w skull and dura
Location-
lateral cerebral convexities--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Clinical features-
Classicalll lucid interval then coma, but more varialble.
Pupillary dilatation with contralateral then bilateral limb weakness.
Slowly evolving stupor then coma
Radiological features---- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Biconvex (lens shaped or lenticular)
In Acute cases ? Hyperdense (2/3) or mixed density (1/3).
In chronic cases ? Hypodense
Surgical intervention-
Urgent evacuation--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
- In acute abdomen examination signs which are elicited in supine position include?
- Ilio-psoas sign
- Obturator sign
- Rovsing sign
- Carnett sign
- Balance sign
--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Correct Answer - A:B:C:D
Answer- A,Ilio-psoas sign B,Obturator sign C,Rovsing sign D,Carnett sign
Psoas sign(Cope's psoas test or Obraztsova's sign)-
It indicates irritation to the iliopsoas group of hip flexors in the abdomen.--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
It is elicited by performing the psoas test by passively extending the thigh of a patient lying on his side or supine with knees extended.
A positive psoas sign on the right may suggest appendicitis.
Obturator Sign-
The obturator sign is based on the same principle as the psoas sign, that stretching a pelvic muscle irritated by an inflamed appendix causes pain.
To stretch the right obturator internus muscle and elicit the sign, the patient's right hip and knee and then internally rotates the right hip with a patient lying on his side or supine.--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Rovsing's sign-
The patient is said to have a positive Rovsing's sign and may have appendicitis.
It is done in supine position.
Carnett's sign-
Carnett's sign is a finding on clinical examination in which (acute) abdominal pain remains unchanged or increases when the muscles of the abdominal wall are tensed.--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
A supine patient can be asked to lift the head and shoulders from the examination table to tense the abdominal muscles.
Ballance sign-
The presence of a dull percussion note in both flanks of a patient lying in the left decubitus position. - FALSE statement regarding urotheilal bladder tumor is/are?
- Most common variety
- Schistostomiasis is not a risk factors
- Strongly related to smoking
- Pain is the most common presenting feature
- Most common site is trigone
--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Correct Answer - B:D
--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Answer- B,Schistostomiasis is not a risk factors D,Pain is the most common presenting feature
There are 3 types of bladder cancer-
1. Transitionl cell cancer- (90%)
2. Squamous cell carcinoma (5-10%)
3. Adenocarcinoma (2%)--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Risk factors-
Cigarette smoking- it's the most common etiological factor
Schistostoma haematobium - risk factor for both transitional cell carcinoma & SCC
Drugs such as Phenacetin & chlorphenazine
Clinical features---- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Painless haematuria is the presenting feature in 85-90% of bladder cancer patients.
Pain (secondary to clot retention, tumor extension into retro peritoneum or ureteral obstruction or metastasis in bony Pelvis) may rarely occur.
Site-
Trisone and adjacent postero-lateral wall - TRUE regarding hypertrophic gastric polyp is/are?
- Most common gastric polyp
- Pre-malignant
- Mostly non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
- More common in young adults
- Surgery is done if they are symptomatic
--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Correct Answer - A:E
Answer- A,Most common gastric polyp E,Surgery is done if they are symptomatic
They are the most common benign tumor of stomach.
Gastric polyps are of following types -
1) Hyperplastic polyp (75%)--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
It is the most common gastric polyp. It is non neoplastic. It has no malignant potential.
Hyperplastic polyps are also referred to as inflammatory polyps.
2) Adenomatous polyp (Adenoma)
Adenoma contains proliferative dysplastic epithelium and thereby has malignant potential.
Treatment---- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Gastric polyps that are symptomatic > 2cm or adenomatous, should be removed. - True statement(s) regarding lymphedema is/are?
- Can be complicated by cellulitis
- Congenital lymphedema is also known as Millroy's disease
- Commonly caused by Wouchreria bancrofti
- Lymphoedema congenita more likely to be unilateral
- Lymphedema precox is more common in males
--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Correct Answer - A:B:C
Answer- A,Can be complicated by cellulitis B,Congenital lymphedema is also known as Millroy's disease C,Commonly caused by Wouchreria bancrofti
Lymphedema is an interstitial edema of lymphatic origin.--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Types-
A. Primary lymphedema-
I) Congenital lymphedema-
More likely to be bilateral and involve whole leg.
Familial version of congenital lymphedema is called Milroy's disease.--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
2) Lymphedema precox-
Most common form of primary lymphedema (90%).
Familial verison is known as Meige's disease.
B. Secondary lymphedema
Common organisms causing lymphatic filariasis including Wuchereria bancrofti, Brugia malayi, Brugia timori.--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
The most common manifestation of lymphedema is edema.
Complications-
It can result in chronic eczema, dermatophytosis, onychomycosis, cellulitis, lymphangitis, lymphadenitis and in severe cases skin ulcers. - Steps taken to prevent post-operative incised wound infection is/are?
- Start antibiotics at least 1 day pre-operatively
- Shaving of hair
- One dose of antibiotic just before the incision
- Shower preoperatively using an antiseptic
- Prevent intraoperative hypothermia
--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Correct Answer - C:D:E
--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Answer- C, One dose of antibiotic just before the incision D,Shower preoperatively using an antiseptic E,Prevent intraoperative hypothermia
They are defined as infections that occur 30 days after surgery with no implant, or within 1 year if an implant is placed and infection appears to be related to surgery.
Most SSIs are caused by endogenous microorganisms present on the patient's skin when the surgical incision is made.
Gram positive bacteria such as Staphylococcus aureus are the most common causative skin-dwelling microorganisms.
Exogenous sources of microorganisms include surgical instruments, operating room surfaces, the air, and personnel.--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Hair removal was once theorized to reduce the risk of post-operative infection is actually associated with increased incidence of SSI.
Prevention strategies-
Preoperative:
L. Tobacco cessation at least 30 days prior to elective surgery
2. Antimicrobial prophylaxis--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Antimicrobial prophylaxis should be adrninistered only for Class I (clean wound) and II wounds (clean/contaminated wound). Patients with Class III (contaminated wound) or IV wounds (Dirty wound) are presumed to be taking antimicrobial therapy already.
c) Preoperative showering with chlorhexidine gluconate 4% solution the night before surgery.
Appropriate timing of administration:
30 to 60 minutes prior to incision
1-2 hours for antibiotics with longer periods of infusion, such as vancomycin.--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Perioperative techniques
Prevent intraoperative hypothermia
Treatment-
For superficial SSI this involves opening the wound at skin and subcutaneous level and clearing the wound. - True regarding opsite dressing is/are?
- Wound can be seen
- Vapor permeable
- Impermeable to bacteria
- Water permeable
- Increased chances of maceration
--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Correct Answer - A:B:C
Answer- A,Wound can be seen B, Vapor permeable C,Impermeable to bacteria
OPSITE post-op dressing
It is a transparent adhesive film. The film is moisture vapor permeable.
OPSITE helps prevent skin maceration.--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
OPSITE is resistant to water and boily fluids (waterproof).
It also acts as barrier to bacteria including MRSA.
Allow constant monitoring on the wound and peri-wound area as wound can be seen. - True statement (s) regarding spegalian hernia is/are?
- Protrudes through linea alba
- Occurs at the termination of transverse abdominis muscle
- Occurs at the lateral edge of rectus abdominis muscle
- Contents of hernia mostly include small intestine
- Surgery is the treatment of choice
--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Correct Answer - C:D:E
--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Answer- C,Occurs at the lateral edge of rectus abdominis muscle D,Contents of hernia mostly include small intestine E,Surgery is the treatment of choice
Spigelian hernias occur secondary to a defect in the transversus abdominis muscle and rectus sheath aponeurosis.
Spigelian hernia contents most often includes small intestine but can also include cecum appendix, sigmoid colon or omentum.
Spigelian hernia (or lateral ventral hernia)
A spigelian hernia is a hernia through the spigelian fascia close to the level of the arcuate line.--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Spigelian fascia is the aponeurotic layer between the rectus abdominis muscle medially and the semilunar line laterally.
Treatment-
Once a hernia appears, surgical treatment is the only way to repair it. - True regarding 2nd degree superficial burn is/are?
- Very painful
- Dry eschar formation
- No spontaneous healing
- Blister formation
- Capillary refilling present
--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Correct Answer - A:D:E
--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Answer- A,Very painful D,Blister formation E,Capillary refilling present
Superficial 2nd degress burn (Superficial partial thickness burn)
Involves only upper dermal layer
Blister formation occurs
Erythematous--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Blanch on touch
Quite painful
Heal without scarring in 1- 2 weeks - Diagnostic criteria for blood stream infection from central venous catheter includes all except?
- Colony count from catheter culture is 5 times more than peripheral blood culture
- Blood culture form catheter shows colony formation at least 2 hours before the peripheral blood culture
- Quantitative catheter tip culture showing >103 CFU/ catheter segment whereby the same organism [species and antibiogram] is isolated from the catheter segment and a peripheral blood sample
- Apparent source of blood stream infection present
- At least one positive peripheral blood culture
--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Correct Answer - D
--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Answer- D. Apparent source of blood stream infection present
It is defined as the presence of bacteremia originating frorn an intravenous catheter.
The most comlnon cause of nosocomial bacteremia.
Laboratory diagnosis-
CRBSI means a patient with an intravascular catheter has at least one positive blood culture obtained from a peripheral--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
vein, clinical manifestations of infections.
Long-term catheters-
Semi-quantitative growth of 15 cfu/catheter segment of the same microbe from both the insertion site culture, and the catheter hub culture strongly suggests that the catheter is the source ofa bloodstream infection. - A patient with history of trauma, presented with multiple fracture/bilateral femoral fracture, respiratory distress & red urine. For evaluation of patient all the following are included in major criteria of Gurd's criteria except?
- Unexplained decrease in platelets
- Tachycardia
- Petechiae
- CNS depression
- Pulmonary edema
--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Correct Answer - A:B
--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Answer- A,Unexplained decrease in platelets B,Tachycardia
Gurd's criterion is for the diagnosis of fat embolism syndrome.
Gurd and Wilson's criteria for FES-
Axillary & subconjunctival petechiae
Hypxemia--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Central nervous system depression
Pulmonary edema - In classification of contaminated wound, which of the following are included?
- Resection of unprepared bowel
- Perforated appendix resection
- Resection of intestinal fistula
- Inguinal hernia repair
- Hysterectomy
--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Correct Answer - A:B
Answer- A, Resection of unprepared bowel B,Perforated appendix resection--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Class III (contaminated)-
Open, fresh accidental wounds. In addition, operations with major breaks in sterile technique (e.g., open cardiac massage) or gross spillage from the gastrointestinal tract, and incisions in which acute, nonpurulent inflammation is encountered.
Examples:Appendectomy (with perforation/ peritonitis) Bowel Resection (unprepared), bile spillage. - True about compression stocking are:
- Worn even after ulcer heals to prevent recurrence
- Worn in morning & taken off at night before bedtime
- Compression occurs maximum at calf
- Worn only at edema sites
- Provide calf pump
--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Correct Answer - A:B:E
--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Answer- A,Worn even after ulcer heals to prevent recurrence B,Worn in morning & taken off at night before bedtime E, Provide calf pump
These are specialized elastic hosiery designed to help prevent the occurrence of and guard against further progression of, venous disorders such as edema, phlebitis and thrombosis.
They also aid in the treatment & prevention of ulcers of the lower legs.
Compression stockings are tightest at the ankles and gradually become less constrictive toward the knees and thighs. Therefore the compression level is highest around the ankle and lessens towards the top of the hose.
Stockings are best applied upon waking before the person has got out of bed.--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
- Ulcerative colitis true statement is/are?
- No skip lesion
- Almost always includes rectum
- Can present with pain & bloody diarrhea
- More common in smokers
- Transmural involvement
--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Correct Answer - A:B:C
Answer- A,No skip lesion B,Almost always includes rectum C,Can present with pain & bloody diarrhea - Indications of hemorrhoidectomy in hemorrhoids include?
- Large first & second degree hemorrhoids
- Third & fourth degree hemorrhoids
- If not able to differentiate prolapsed hemorrhoids & lower rectal prolapse
- Complicated by strangulations
- Failure of conservative therapy
--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Correct Answer - B:D:E
--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Answer- B,Third & fourth degree hemorrhoids D,Complicated by strangulations E,Failure of conservative therapy
Operative hemorrhoidectomy (excisional hemorrhoidectomy)-
3rd & 4th degree: hemorrhoids
Other degree not cures by conservative methods
Mixed (combined internal/external) hemorrhoids--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Hemorrhoids complicated by strangulation - Sterile OT zone is?
- Changing room
- Scrub room
- Set up room
- Cleaner room and stores
- Anaeasthesia inducing room
--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Correct Answer - B:C:E
Answer- B,Scrub room C,Set up room E, Anaeasthesia inducing room
Zone- 3 (Sterile area)--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Operating Theatre
Scrub Room
Anesthesia Room
Set up Room - True about Phylloides tumor is/are?
- Associated with BRCA 1
- FNAC can diagnose reliability
- Treated with mastectomy
- Axillary lymph nodes are commonly involved
- Associated with BRCA 2
--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Correct Answer - C:E
Answer- C,Treated with mastectomy E,Associated with BRCA 2
It is a rare, predominantly benign tumor that occurs almost exclusively in the female breast. Phyllodes tumor is the most commonly occurring nonepithelial neoplasm of the breast.
Large tumor - simple mastectomy is done - Metabolic abnormality seen in congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is?
- Hypochloremic hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis
- Hyperchloremic hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis
- Hypochloremic hypokalemic metabolic acidosis
- Hyperchloremic hypokalemic metabolic acidosis
- None
--- Content provided by FirstRanker.com ---
Correct Answer - A
Answer- A. Hypochloremic hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis
Proiectile nonbillotrs vomiting is the initial synptoms of pyloric stenosis, The vomiting usually starts alter 3 weeks of age, but symptoms may develop as early as the Ist week of life and as late as the 5 months of life.
Hpyochloremic hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis. - Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis causes
- Bilious vomiting
- Non bilious vomiting
- Projectile vomiting
This download link is referred from the post: PGI Chandigarh Last 10 Years 2011-2021 Solved Question Papers (PGIMER Previous Papers)
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