Download RGUHS MBBS 2nd Year 2025 April 1026 Pathology Paper I Rs 4 and Rs 5 Question Paper

QP CODE : 1026

Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka

MBBS Phase - II (CBME) Degree Examination - 07-Apr-2025

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Time: Three Hours Max. Marks: 100

PATHOLOGY – PAPER I (RS-4 & RS-5)

Q.P. CODE: 1026

(QP contains two pages)

Your answers should be specific to the questions asked

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Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary

LONG ESSAYS 2 x 10 = 20 Marks

1. 65 year old male, known case of interstitial lung disease and pulmonary hypertension is brought to the emergency department with decreased urine output and altered sensorium. On examination pulse is 123 beats/min, BP- 96/60 mmhg, RR-28cycles/min with cold extremities.

   1. What is the probable clinical diagnosis?
   2. Discuss the pathogenesis and various organ changes.

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   3. Enumerate the laboratory findings.

2. 28 year old female presented with history of menorrhagia. She gives history of fever 15days back. On examination pallor and petechiae present. No splenomegaly. CBC reveals Hemoglobin- 7.6 gm/dl, WBC count- 6000 cells/cumm, Platelet- 28,000/cumm.

   1. What is the clinical diagnosis and why?
   2. Discuss the etiopathogenesis of the above condition

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   3. Enumerate the lab findings investigations

SHORT ESSAYS 8 x 5 = 40 Marks

3. Describe the various vascular events involved in acute inflammation.
4. Discuss antibody mediated hypersensitivity with examples.

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5. Define Hyperplasia. Briefly discuss the pathogenesis
6. Describe urinary Casts with a neat diagram.
7. List the difference between leukemoid reaction and chronic myeloid leukemia.
8. Pathology and laboratory diagnosis of Hereditary spherocytosis
9. Paraneoplastic syndromes.

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10. Role of p53 in carcinogenesis.

SHORT ANSWERS 10 x 3 = 30 Marks

11. Morphology of caseous necrosis
12. Bone marrow findings in megaloblastic anemia.
13. Microscopy of neuroblastoma.

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14. CSF findings in tuberculous meningitis.
15. Cerebral malaria.
16. Bombay blood group.
17. Chemokines.
18. Dystrophic Calcification.

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19. Three causes of target cells in peripheral smear.
20. Enumerate neoplasms found in patients with HIV infection.

Multiple Choice Questions 10 x 1 = 10 Marks

21. All of the following are powerful antioxidant EXCEPT
    1. Superoxide dismutase
    2. Ceruloplasmin

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    3. Transferin
    4. Nitric oxide synthase
22. Prolonged production of Acute phase proteins in chronic infection can cause
    1. Amyloidosis
    2. SLE

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    3. Myocardial infarction
    4. Rheumatoid arthritis
23. A decrease in organ size(atrophy) may be result of each of the following EXCEPT
    1. Lack of innervation
    2. Ageing

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    3. Metabolic storage disorder
    4. Reduction of hormone stimulation
24. A 30 year old woman got a cut on her finger while cutting vegetables. On examination the wound was clean and approximated with the help of sutures. By what day would you expect to see the formation of granulation tissue in this type of healing?
    1. Day 1-3
    2. Day 3-5

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    3. Day 5-7
    4. After 1 week
25. Vitamin K dependent clotting factors include all EXC?
    1. Factor VII
    2. Factor IX

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    3. Factor XI
    4. Factor X

22. Which of the following is matched correctly
    1. Huntington's disease- Autosomal recessive
    2. Familial hypercholesterolemia- X linked recessive

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    3. Marfan syndrome- X linked dominant
    4. Alkaptonuria- Autosomal recessive
23. EBV induced Burkitt's lymphoma causes following translocation
    1. 14:8
    2. 18:4

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    3. 8:14
    4. 4:18
24. All are examples of tumour suppressor genes implicated in human cancer EXCEPT
    1. RB gene
    2. RET

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    3. APC
    4. Tp-53
25. Most common presentation of paraneoplastic syndrome is
    1. Hypercalcemia
    2. Acanthosis nigricans

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    3. Cushing's syndrome
    4. Hypoglycemia
26. Lead poisoning produces following change in RBC's
    1. Pappenheimer bodies
    2. Heinz bodies

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    3. Howell-Jolly bodies
    4. Basophilic stippling

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