Download MBBS KUHS Final Year 2007 August General Surgery Paper II Question Paper

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Name.............

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THIRD PROFESSIONAL M.B.B.S. (Part II) DEGREE EXAMINATION JUNE/AUGUST 2007

Paper II-GENERAL MEDICINE

Time: Three Hours

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Maximum: 60 Marks

Answer Sections A and B in separate answer-books.

Response sheet for MCQ be provided.

Section A

1. Multiple Choice Questions: Single response type-20 (separate sheet attached). (20 x ½ = 10 marks)

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2. Match the following: Single response type-6 (separate sheet attached). (6 x ½ = 3 marks)
3. Draw and label:
   1. Write normal JVP and label them.
   2. Schematic diagram of extra-pyramidal system. (2 x 1 = 2 marks)
4. Write briefly on:
   1. Chronic persistent hepatitis.

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   2. Risk factors for cholesterol gall stones.
   3. Causes of pancytopenia.
   4. Features of acute nephritis.
   5. ECG changes in hyperkalemia. (5 x 1 = 5 marks)

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5. Write short notes on:
   1. Viral myocarditis.
   2. Pulmonary stenosis.
   3. Management of hypertensive crisis.
   4. Management of Thyroid storm.
   5. Prevention of deep vein thrombosis. (5 x 2 = 10 marks)

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Section B

6. Read the paragraph and answer the following questions :-

   A 24-year old female is admitted with chest-pain, palpitation, breathlessness followed by weakness of left half of the body.

   1. What is the provisional diagnosis?
   2. List four common causes of stroke in young.

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   3. What are the clinical triads of mitral stenosis?
   4. Outline the management. (2+2+3+3 = 10 marks)
7. Write briefly on:
   1. Digoxin.
   2. Collapsing pulse.

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   3. Chest X-ray findings in co-arctation of aorta.
   4. Pancreatic abscess.
   5. Biological warfare.
   6. Types of gallstones.
   7. Platelet transfusion.

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   8. Dysuria.
   9. Pre-renal causes of ARF.
   10. Causes of hyperthyroidism. (10 x 1 = 10 marks)
8. Write short notes on:
   1. Diabetic ketoacidosis.

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   2. Bell's palsy.
   3. Management of parkinsonism.
   4. Entrapment of neuropathy.
   5. Sickle-cell anaemia.

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GENERAL MEDICINE-Paper II

I. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Note.-(1) Do not write anything on the question paper.

(2) Write your register number on the answer-sheet provided.

(3) Select one most appropriate response and encircle the corresponding alphabet against each question in the answer-sheet provided.

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1. High ESR is seen in:
   1. CHF
   2. Polycythemia vera.
   3. Multiple myeloma.
   4. Sickle-cell anaemia.

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2. Splenectomy is most useful in:
   1. Thrombocytopenia.
   2. Spherocytosis.
   3. H.S. purpura.
   4. Sickle-cell anaemia.

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3. Severity of mitral regurgitation is indicated by:
   1. A-soft S1
   2. Length of murmur.
   3. Presence of LVS3.
   4. Opening snap.

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4. Drug of choice in Atrial fibrillation:
   1. Amaidarone.
   2. Lignocaine.
   3. Quinidine.
   4. Digoxin.

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5. Commonest cause of embolism in CVA in young patient is:
   1. Mitral valve disease.
   2. Carotid artery thrombosis.
   3. Venous thrombosis.
   4. Tumour.

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6. CSF finding in pyogenic meningitis is:
   1. Protein ? sugar ?.
   2. Protein sugar ?.
   3. Chloride ? protein ?.
   4. protein? sugar.

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7. Massive albuminuria is feature of:
   1. Acute nephritis.
   2. Nephrotic syndrome.
   3. Nephrolithiasis.
   4. Acute tubular necrosis.

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8. Metabolic bone disease is a feature of:
   1. ARF.
   2. CRF.
   3. Nephritis.
   4. Nephropathy.

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9. Gigantism is feature of:
   1. Panhyperpituitarism.
   2. Panhypopituitarism.
   3. Hyperthyroidism.
   4. Hypothyroidism.

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10. SIADH is common in:
    1. Hypothalamic causes.
    2. Cortical lesion.
    3. Cerebellar lesion.
    4. Thyroid disease.

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11. Angina and syncope are most likely to be associated with:
    1. Mitral stenosis.
    2. Aortic stenosis.
    3. Mitral regurgitation.
    4. Tricuspid stenosis.

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12. Flatulence is the term used to describe:
    1. Passing of excessive wind.
    2. Passing of excessive stool.
    3. Passing of excessive fat in stool.
    4. Passing of excessive blood in stool.

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13. Gastric Inhibitory peptide (GIP):
    1. Increases insulin secretion.
    2. decreases insulin secretion.
    3. Enhances insulin action.
    4. None of the above.

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14. "Warm" autoimmune hemolytic anaemia is associated with all expect:
    1. lymphoid malignancy.
    2. Rheumatoid arthritis.
    3. Pneumonia.
    4. SLE.

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15. Neutropenia is seen in all the following except :
    1. Black race.
    2. Viral infection.
    3. Bacterial pneumonia.
    4. Felty's syndrome,

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16. Renal carbuncle may be diagnosed
    1. Plain X ray of abdomen.
    2. Clinical examination.
    3. USG abdomen.
    4. None of the above.

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17. In empty-sella syndrome
    1. Pituitary function is usually normal.
    2. Pituitary function is low.
    3. Pituitary function is high.
    4. None of the above.

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18. Ostéoporosis is seen in the following endocrine disease expect:
    1. Cushing's syndrome.
    2. Thyrotoxicosis.
    3. Hypogonadism.
    4. Short stature.

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19. Optic neuritis is an important toxic effect of:
    1. INH.
    2. Rifampicin.
    3. Ethambutol.
    4. Pyrazinamide.

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20. Argyl-Robertson pupil is characterised by the following except :
    1. Absence of light reflex.
    2. Retention of accommodation reflex.
    3. Dilated pupil.
    4. Improper response to mydriatics. (20 x ½ = 20 marks)

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GENERAL MEDICINE-Paper II

2. Match the following :-

   1	Pulsus paradoxus	(a) Cerebellar sign.
   2	Flapping tremor	(b) Cardiac tamponade.
   3	Dysmetria	(c) Liver-cell failure.
   4	Facial puffiness	(d) Renal oedema.
   5	Koilonychia	(e) Parkinsonism.
   6	Marked face	(f) Iron deficiency anaemia.
   		(g) Cortical lesion.
   		(h) Megaloblastic anaemia. (6 x ½ = 3 marks)