Download MBBS KUHS 2nd Year 2009 April Pathology Paper II Question Paper

Reg. No......

SECOND PROFESSIONAL M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION, APRIL 2009

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Pathology

Paper II-SYSTEMIC PATHOLOGY AND HAEMATOLOGY

Time: Two Hours Maximum: 40 Marks

Answer all the questions.

Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

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Answer Sections A and B in separate answer-books.

MCQs should be answered first in the response sheet provided.

Section A

1. Multiple Choice Questions. Single response type 8 (separate sheet attached). (8 × ½ = 4 marks)
2. Match the following. Single response type 8 (separate sheet attached). (8 × ½ = 4 marks)

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3. Draw and Label:
   1. Schizont of plasmodium vivax.
   2. Histology of Osteoclastoma. (2 × 1 = 2 marks)
4. Short answer questions:
   1. List 4 main groups of Non Hodgkin's Lymphoma according to WHO.
   2. What is restrictive cardiomyopathy?

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   3. What is the role of ANCAs in vasculitis?
   4. List 4 features (histologic) of alcoholic hepatitis. (4 × 1 = 4 marks)
5. Write short notes on:
   1. Multiple Myeloma.
   2. Classification of ovarian neoplasms.

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   3. Fibrocystic diseases of breast. (3 × 2 = 6 marks)

Section B

6. A 5 year old boy presented with pallor and splenomegaly. Peripheral smear showed normoblasts and reticulocytosis. Mild increase in bilirubin was seen.
   1. What is the probable diagnosis?
   2. What are the screening and specific tests you would do?

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   3. What are the finding in Bone Marrow and spleen?
   4. How will you classify this type of anaemia? (1+3+3+3 = 10 marks)

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7. Short answer questions:
   1. What is leukoplakia?

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   2. List 3 types of gall stones.
   3. What is the significance of vesicoureteric reflux?
   4. What is familial adenomatous polyposis coli? (4 × 1 = 4 marks)
8. Write short notes on:
   1. Types of Emphysema.

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   2. Malignant primary bone tumors.
   3. Neuroblastoma. (3 × 2 = 6 marks)

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Pathology

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Paper II-SYSTEMIC PATHOLOGY AND HAEMATOLOGY

I. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Note.-(1) Do not write anything on the question paper.

(2) Write your register number on the answer-sheet provided.

(3) Select one most appropriate response and encircle the corresponding alphabet against each question in the answer-sheet provided.

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1. Giant Metamyelocytes in bone marrow are a feature of:
   1. AML-M7.
   2. Myelofibrosis.
   3. Pernicious anaemia.
   4. Thalassemia.

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2. Which haemoglobin has a protection effect against sickling?
   1. Hb C.
   2. Hb D.
   3. Hb F.
   4. Hb A.

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3. Which of the following is NOT a myeloproliferative disorder?
   1. CML.
   2. Myelofibrosis.
   3. Myelodysplastic syndrome.
   4. Polycythemia vera.

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4. Nephritic-nephrotic syndrome is typically seen in which type of glomerulonephritis?
   1. Rapidly progressive.
   2. Lupus.
   3. Membranous.
   4. Membranoproliferative.

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5. The most common type of gastric polyp is:
   1. Hamartomatous.
   2. Hyperplastic.
   3. Adenomatous.
   4. Malignant.

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6. Bile Duct carcinoma is induced by:
   1. Fasciola hepatua.
   2. Clonarchis sinensis.
   3. Schistosoma mansoni.
   4. Entamoeba histolytica.

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7. The most common congenital cardiac anomaly is:
   1. ASD.
   2. VSD.
   3. PDA.
   4. Tetrology of Fallot.

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8. Which syndrome is associated with increased incidence of Leukemia?
   1. Down's.
   2. Marfan's.
   3. Alport's.
   4. Von Recklinghausen. (8 × ¼ = 4 marks)

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Pathology

Paper II-SYSTEMIC PATHOLOGY AND HAEMATOLOGY

II. Match the following:

Features and salivary gland neoplasia:

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Bowel lesions and their features in Microscopy:

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