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Download MBBS KUHS 2nd Year 2009 July Microbiology Paper I Question Paper

Download MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine and a Bachelor of Surgery) KUHS (Kerala University of Health Sciences) Second Year (2nd Year) 2009 July Microbiology Paper I Previous Question Paper

This post was last modified on 15 September 2021

KUHS MBBS Second Year Last 17 Years 2007-2024 Previous Question Papers


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SECOND PROFESSIONAL M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION, JULY 2009

MICROBIOLOGY-Paper I

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Time: Two Hours Maximum: 40 Marks

Answer Sections A and B in separate answer books.

Draw diagrams wherever necessary.

MCQs should be answered first in the response sheet provided.

Section A

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  1. Multiple choice questions, single response type-8 (separate sheet attached). (8 × ¼ = 4 marks)
  2. Match the following, single response type - 8 (separate sheet attached). (8 x ¼ = 4 marks)
  3. Draw and label:
    1. Structure of Immunoglobulin.
    2. Pneumococci-Negative staining.
    (2×1=2 marks)
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  5. Short answer questions:
    1. Name four organisms causing UTI
    2. What is opsonisation?
    3. What is Quellung reaction?
    4. What is Human leukocyte antigen?
    (4x1=4 marks)
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  7. Write short notes on:
    1. Primary atypical pneumonia.
    2. Halophilic vibrios.
    3. Malignant pustule.
    (3x2=6 marks)

Section B

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  1. A 2 year old child was brought to the hospital with high grade fever and vomiting. She was stuporous and had petechial rash. On examination neck rigidity present, kernigs sign positive.
    1. What is the clinical diagnosis?
    2. Briefly mention the pathogenicity.
    3. Write in detail about the laboratory diagnosis of the disease.
    1. What are the complications?
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    3. What is the treatment? Add a note on its prophylaxis. (1+2+3+3+1 = 10 marks)
  2. Short answer questions:
    1. What is transduction?
    2. Non-suppurative complications of streptococcus pyogenes infection.
    3. What is toxic shock syndrome?
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    5. What is the principle of ELISA test?
    (4x1=4 marks)
  3. Write short notes on:
    1. Delayed hypersensitivity.
    2. Immunofluorescence test.
    3. Q fever.
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    (3x2=6 marks)

I. MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Note:-(1) Do not write anything on the question paper.

(2) Write your register number on the answer-sheet provided.

(3) Select one most appropriate response and encircle the corresponding alphabet against each question in the answer-sheet provided.

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  1. Radial immuno diffusion is used for:
    1. Histocompactability.
    2. Detection of reaginic antibodies in serum.
    3. Shick test.
    4. Estimation of immunoglobulin classes in serum.
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  3. Which of the following bacteria has a polysaccharide capsule?
    1. Pneumococci.
    2. Enterococci.
    3. Haemophilus.
    4. Listeria monocytogenes.
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  5. Hide porter's disease is caused by:
    1. Haemophilus ducreyi
    2. Yersinia enterocolitica.
    3. Bacillus anthracis.
    4. Brucella melitensis.
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  7. Pathogenicity of shigella dysenteriae type I is due to:
    1. Cytotoxin.
    2. Enterotoxin.
    3. Invasiveness.
    4. Colonising factor.
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  9. The equipment for sterilizing glasswaves is:
    1. Sterilizer.
    2. Incinerator.
    3. Hot air oven.
    4. Inspissator.
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  11. Interleukin-2 (11-2) is produced by:
    1. B cells.
    2. Th2 cells.
    3. Thi cells
    4. Neutrophils.
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  13. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome occurs due to :
    1. T cell defects.
    2. B cell defects.
    3. Defects in phagocytosis.
    4. Both T and B cell defects.
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  15. Congenitally transmitted bacterial infection is:
    1. Cholera.
    2. Syphilis.
    3. Salmonellosis.
    4. Plague.
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II. Match the following

A 1 Widal test. (a) Thermoprecipitation.
2 Schick test. (b) Flocculation.
3 VDRL test. (c) Agglutination.
4 Ascoli's test. (d) Neutralisation.
(e) Immunofluorescence...
B 1 Wool sorters disease. (a) Streptococcus pyogenes.
2 Lymes disease. (b) Bacillus anthracis.
3 Necrotising fascitis. (c) Yersinia pestis.
4 Bacillary angiomatosis. (d) Borrelia burgdorferi.
(e) Bartonella henselae.

(8 x ¼ = 4 marks)

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