Download MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine, Bachelor of Surgery) TMU (Teerthanker Mahaveer University) Second Year (2nd Year) 2017 MBS201 Pathology II Previous Question Paper
MBBS II (Second) Professional Examination 2016-17
Course Code:MBS201
Paper ID: 0322403
Pathology-II
Time: 2 Hours 40 Minutes
Max Marks: 30
Note: Attempt all questions. Draw proper diagrams to support
your answer.
Part `B'
1.
Describe the etiopathogenesis and pathological features of
peptic ulcer. (7)
2.
Differentiate between lobar pneumonia and broncho
pneumonia. (7)
3.
Write short notes on the following: (8x2=16)
a) Leiomyoma
b) Renal cell carcinoma
MBBS II (Second) Professional Examination 2016-17
Roll No.
Student's Name
Student's Signature
Invigilator's Signature
Course Code:MBS201
Paper ID: 0322403
Pathology-II
Part `A'
Time: 20 Minutes
Max Marks: 10
Note: 1. Attempt all questions and return this part of the question paper to the invigilator after 20 Minutes.
2. Please tick () correct one only. Cutting, overwriting or any other marking are not allowed.
3. For answering please use Ball- pen only.
Q.1
Krukenberg's tumor is a type of:
a)
Acute pulmonary edoma
a)
Epithelial tumor
b)
Acute pulmonary embolism
b)
Stromal tumor
c)
Chronic venous congestion
c)
Metastatic tumor
d)
Acute renal failure
d)
Germ cell tumor
Q.7
Aschoff's module is the characteristic
Q.2
Renal threshold of glucose is:
feature of:
a. 120 mg/dl
a)
Libman sacks endocarditis
b. 160 mg/dl
b)
Rheumatic carditis
c. 180 mg/dl
c)
Infective endocarditis
d. 170 mg/dl
d)
Non bacterial thrombotic
Q.3
What is not true about bronchial asthma:
a)
Basement membrane is thickened
Q.8
Major consequences of atherosclerosis
b)
Atopic asthma begins in old age &
include all except:
is mediated by IgG A6
a)
Myocardial infarction
c)
Protein
of
eosinophil
causes
b) Stidic
epithelial damage
c)
Aortic aneurysm
d)
Histamine and PGD2 causes
d) Infective embolism
bronchospasm
Q.9
Nephrotic syndrome includes:
Q.4. Patchy consolidation of lung is seen in:
a)
Microalbuminuria
a)
Lobar pneumonia
b)
Microscopic haematuria
b)
Interstitial pneumonia
c)
Hyperlipidemia
c)
Broncho pneumonia
d)
Enlarged kidney
d)
Bronchial asthma
Q.5
Isoenzyme CPR--MB is raised in:
Q.10 PNH is associated with a deficiency of:
a)
Rheumatic fever
a)
DAF
b)
Myocardial infarction
b) MIRL
c)
Viral myocarditis
c)
GPI anchored protein
d)
Viral hepatitis
d) All of the above
Q.6
Heart failure cells in lung alveoli denote:
P.T.O
Q.11 The commonest childhood leukemia is :
a)
AML
Q.19 What is false about basal cell carcinoma:
b)
ALL
a)
Most frequent site is head and neck
c)
CML
b)
Metastasizes to regional lymph
d)
CLL
nodes
c)
Arises in patients of xeroderma
Q.12 All of the following are germ cell tumors
pigmentosa
except:
d)
Peripheral palisading in nests of
a)
Choriocarcinoma
tumor cell
b)
Dysgerminoma
c)
Brenner's tumor
Q.20 Highest bacillary index is seen in:
d)
Teratoma
a)
Tuberculoid leprosy
b)
Borderline lepromatous leprosy
Q.13 Which type of breast cancer is likely to be
c)
Histoid leprosy
bilateral:
d)
Borderline tuberculoid leprosy
a)
Scirrhous carcinoma
b)
Ductal carcinoma
-
c)
Medullary carcinoma
d)
Lobular carcinoma
Q.14 Simple hyperplasia of endometrium is due
to:
a)
Low activity of estrogen and
progesterone
b)
prolonged continuous activity of
estrogen
c)
Excursive progesterone activity
d)
Sheehan's syndrome
Q.15 Adenomyosis is defined as the presence of
endometrial tissue in:
a)
Overy
b)
Myometrium
c)
Fallopian tube
d)
Vagina
Q.16 Pheochromocytoma is a tumor of:
a)
Adrenal Medulla
b)
Adrenal cortex
c)
Parathyroid
d)
Pituitary
Q.17 Giant cell tumor arises from:
a)
Diaphysis
b)
Epiphysis
c)
Metaphysis
d)
Articular cartilage
Q.18 Which of the following is a malignant
tumor of bone:
a)
Chondroma
b)
Osteoma
c)
Osteosarcoma
d)
Chondromyxoid fibroma
This post was last modified on 17 February 2022