Download MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine, Bachelor of Surgery) TMU (Teerthanker Mahaveer University) Second Year (2nd Year) 2019 MBS203 Pharmacology II Previous Question Paper
MBBS II (Second) Professional Examination 2018-19
Course Code:MBS203
Paper ID: 03218206
Pharmacology-II
Time: 2 Hours 40 Minutes
Max Marks: 30
Note: Attempt all questions. Draw proper diagrams to support
your answer.
Part `B'
1.
Classify antihypertensive drugs. Describe important
adverse effects, contraindications & uses of captopril. (7)
2.
Classify antidiabetic drugs. Enumerate mechanism of
action and adverse effects of sulfonylureas. (7)
3.
Describe pharmacotherapy of the following conditions:
(2x4=8)
a)
Typhoid fever
b)
Pulmonary tuberculosis
c)
E.coli induced urinary tract infection
d)
Acute myocardial infarction
4.
Write short notes on: (2x4=8)
a) Hydrochorthiazide
b) Artensuate
c) Urokinase
d) LMW heparin
MBBS II (Second) Professional Examination 2018-19
Roll No.
Student's Name
Student's Signature
Invigilator's Signature
Course Code:MBS203
Paper ID: 03218206
Pharmacology-II
Part `A'
Time: 20 Minutes
Max Marks: 10
Note: 1. Attempt all questions and return this part of the question paper to the invigilator after 20 Minutes.
2. Please tick () correct one only. Cutting, overwriting or any other marking are not allowed.
3. For answering please use Ball- pen only.
Q.9
All are antithyroid drugs except:
Q.1
Digoxin is not indicated in:
a)
Propylthiouracil
a)
Atrial flutter
b)
I131
b)
Atrial fibrillation
c)
Sodium iodide
c)
High output failure
d)
Carbamazepine
d)
PSVT
Q.10 Which of the following antidiabetic drugs
Q.2
Which of the following antianginal agents
does not cause hypoglycemia:
is a calcium channel blocker:
a)
Metformin
a. Nitroglycerin
b)
Insulin
b. Dipyridamole
c)
Glipizide
c. Minoxidil
d
None of above
d. Nifedipine
P.T.O.
Q.3
Main clinical use of calcium channel
Q.11 All of the following preparations are of
blockers is:
newer insulin:
a)
Angina pectoris
a)
Lispro
b)
Hypertension
b)
Aspart
c)
Supraventricular tachyarrhythmia
c)
Glargine
d)
All of the above
d)
All of above
Q.4.
Nitrates are used for all of the following
conditions except:
Q.12 Steroids are indicated in the following form
a)
Congestive heart failure
of tuberculosis:
b)
Cyanide poisoning
a)
Meningitis
c)
Esophageal spasm
b)
Milliary tuberculosis
d)
Cardiac arrhythmia
c)
All of above
d)
Non of above
Q.5
Choose the selective blocker of beta-1
adrenoreceptors:
Q.13 Following drugs are bactericidal except:
a)
Labetalol
a)
Isoniazid
b)
Prazosin
b)
Penicillin
c)
Atenolol
c)
Tetracycline
d)
Propranolol
d)
Gentamicin
Q.14 Following are first line antituberc ular
Q.6
Potassium sparing diuretics include:
drugs except:
a)
Spironolactone
a)
Streptomycin
b)
Thiazide
b)
Ciprofloxacin
c)
Acetazolamide
c)
Rifampicin
d)
furosemide
d)
Ethambutol
Q.7
Most potent diuretic is:
Q.15 Following drugs are useful for
a)
Hydrochlorthiazide
pseudomonas aerogenosa:
b)
Amiloride
a)
Ciprofloxacin
c)
Furosemide
b)
Gentamicin
d)
Acetazolamide
c)
Carbencillin
d)
All of above
Q.8
Which of the following is a ovulation
inducing agent:
Q.16 Mechanism of action of aminoglycoside
a)
Tamoxifen
antibiotic is:
b)
Clomiphene citrate
a)
Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
c)
Mifepristone
b)
Inhibition of protein synthesis
d)
All of above
c)
Bacterial metabolism inhibition
d)
Inhibition of DNA gyrase
Q.17 Primaquine is indicated in radical cure of:
a)
P. falciparum
b)
P. vivax
c)
None of above
d)
Both (a) & (b)
Q.18 Which of the following is the common side
effect of ethambutol:
a)
Hepatotoxicity
b)
Renal toxicity
c)
Optic toxicity
d)
All of above
Q.19 Metronidazole is effective in the treatment
of:
a)
Amoebiasis
b)
Anaerobic infections
c)
Trichomonas vaginitis
d)
All of above
Q.20
Antidote of iron toxicity:
a)
Desferrioxamine
b)
Erythropoetin
c)
Both (a) & (b)
d)
None of above
This post was last modified on 17 February 2022