Download MBBS TMU 2nd Year 2020 MBS203 Pharmacology II Question Paper

Download MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine, Bachelor of Surgery) TMU (Teerthanker Mahaveer University) Second Year (2nd Year) 2020 MBS203 Pharmacology II Previous Question Paper

MBBS II (Second) Professional Examination 2019-20

Course Code:MBS203

Paper ID: 03219206

Pharmacology-II

Time: 2 Hours 40 Minutes

Max Marks: 30

Note: Attempt all questions. Draw proper diagrams to support

your answer.

Part `B'

1.

A patient is admitted in Medicine OPD and was diagnosed
as a case Acute angina pectoris. (2+3+2)

a)

Mention various drugs given in treatment of Acute angina
pectoris.

b)

Mention the Mechanism of action of Nitrates and their
common adverse effects.

c)

What is Mondays disease and its treatment?


2.

A patient is admitted in endocrine?OPD and was diagnosed
to be suffering from type-2 Diabetes mellitus. (3+2+2)

a)

Mention various oral and parenteral hypoglycaemic drugs.

b)

Can Insulin be advised in patient of type-2 Diabetes
mellitus? Mention names of ultra-long acting insulins.

c)

Explain why Beta-blockers should be carefully given in
patient of Diabetes mellitus.

3.

Write short notes on the following: (4x4=16)

a)

Drug therapy of anaerobic infections

b)

Drugs acting on platelets

c)

Immunomodulators

d)

Radioactive iodine





MBBS II (Second) Professional Examination 2019-20

Roll No.

Student's Name



Student's Signature

Invigilator's Signature



Course Code:MBS203



Paper ID: 03219206

Pharmacology-II

Part `A'



Time: 20 Minutes

Max Marks: 10

Note: 1. Attempt all questions and return this part of the question paper to the invigilator after 20 Minutes.
2. Please tick () correct one only. Cutting, overwriting or any other marking are not allowed.
3. For answering please use Ball- pen only.


Q.8

The most important mechanism of

Q.1

Angiotensin II causes rise in blood pressure

concurrent acquisition of multidrug

by:

resistance among bacteria is:

a)

Direct vasoconstriction

a)

Mutation

b)

Releasing adrenaline from adrenal

b)

Conjugation

medulla

c)

Transduction

c)

Increasing central sympathetic tone

d)

Transformation

d)

All of the above

Q.9

Select the antibiotic whose dose must be

Q.2

The following is a pressor peptide that can

reduced in patients with renal insufficiency:

be generated both in circulation as well as

a)

Ampicillin

locally in certain tissues:

b)

Chloramphenicol

a. Bradykinin

c)

Tobramycin

b. Angiotensin

d)

Erythromycin

c. Kallidin
d. Plasmin

P.T.O.

Q.10 The following anticancer drug has high

Q.3

Furosemide acts by inhibiting the following

emetogenic potential:

in the renal tubular cell:

a)

Vincristine

a)

Na+-K+-2Cl? cotransporter

b)

Chlorambucil

b)

Na+-Cl? symporter

c)

6-Mercaptopurine

c)

Na+-H+ antiporter

d

Cisplatin

d)

Na+ K+ ATPase



Q.4.

The primary site of action of thiazide

Q.11 What is true of docetaxel:

diuretics is:

a)

It is used as a reserve drug for

a)

Proximal tubule

refractory breast and ovarian cancer

b)

Ascending limb of loop of Henle

b)

It is a selective estrogen receptor

c)

Cortical diluting segment

modulator used for breast cancer

d)

Collecting ducts

c)

It is effective only in estrogen
receptor positive breast cancer

Q.5

The percentage of elemental iron in

d)

Both 'B' and 'C' are correct

hydrated ferrous sulfate is:



a)

5%

Q.12 Patients treated with the following

b)

10%

anticancer drug are likely to develop a
disulfiram like reaction on taking alcohol:

c)

20%

a)

Dacarbazine

d)

33%

b)

Procarbazine

c)

Melphalan

Q.6

The daily dietary requirement of vit B12 by

d)

Hydroxyurea

an adult is:
a)

1-3 microgram

Q.13 The drug of choice for neurocysticercosis

b)

50-100 microgram

is:

c)

0.1-0.5 mg

a)

Albendazole

d)

1-3 mg

b)

Niclosamide

Q.7

Which antibiotic is primarily bacteriostatic

c)

Praziquantel

but becomes bactericidal at higher

d)

Ivermectin

concentrations:

Q.14 Select the drug that is used orally to treat

a)

Erythromycin

scabies:

b)

Tetracycline

a)

Permethrin

c)

Chloramphenicol

b)

Ivermectin

d)

Ampicillin

c)

Praziquantel

d)

Crotamiton

Q.15 Pentamidine is a first line drug for the

following disease:
a)

Toxoplasmosis

b)

Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia

c)

Actinomycosis

d)

Leishmaniasis

Q.16 The drug of choice for Kala azar is:

a)

Pentamidine

b)

Amphotericin

c)

Sodium stibogluconate

d)

Ketoconazole

Q.17 The distinctive feature of secnidazole is:

a)

It is not absorbed after oral
ingestion

b)

It is recommended for single dose
treatment of intestinal amoebiasis

c)

It is effective in intestinal but not in
hepatic amoebiasis

d)

It is effective in both trichomonas as
well as monilial vaginitis

Q.18 Recrudescences attending 3 day artesunate

therapy of chloroquine resistant falciparum
malaria can be prevented by combining it
with a single dose of:
a)

Quinine

b)

Primaquine

c)

Tetracycline

d)

Mefloquine

Q.19 High molecular weight, pharmaco-

dynamically inert, nonantigenic substances
which form colloidal solution are used as:
a)

Osmotic purgatives

b)

Osmotic diuretics



c)

Plasma expanders



d)

All of the above

Q.20

Which hypolipidemic drug has been used to
control and prevent pancreatitis in familial
hypertriglyceridemia:
a)

Lovastatin

b)

Nicotinic acid

c)

Cholestyramine

d)

Clofibrate[B]