Download MBBS TMU 2nd Year 2016 MBS201A Pathology I Question Paper

Download MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine, Bachelor of Surgery) TMU (Teerthanker Mahaveer University) Second Year (2nd Year) 2016 MBS201A Pathology I Previous Question Paper

MBBS II (Second) Professional Examination 2015-16

Course Code: MBS201

Paper ID: 0322401

Pathology-I

Time: 2 Hours 40 Minutes

Max Marks: 30

Note: Attempt all questions. Draw proper diagrams to support

your answer.

Part `B'

1.

A 60 years old male presented with fatigue, weight loss and
heaviness in left hypochordrium for 6 months. The
hemogram showed Hb 10 gm/dl. TLC 5 lakhs/mm3. DLC-
neutrophils 55%, lymphocytes 4%, monocytes 2%,
basophils 6% metamyelocytes 10%, myelocyte 18%,
promyelocytes 2% and blasts 3%.

a)

What is the diagnosis? (1)

b)

Discuss the cytogenetic abnormality of the disease. (2)

c)

Draw and describe the peripheral smear findings in
detail. (2)

d)

Discuss in brief the natural history of disease. (2)

2.

Define embolism. Enumerate the type of Emboli and
discuss their pathphysiology. (7)

3.

Write short notes: (2x4=8)

a)

Tumor Markers

b)

Classification of Leukemia

c)

DIC

d)

Type I hypersensitivity reaction


4.

Differentiate between: (4+4)

a)

Necrosis and apoptosis

b)

Exudate and transudate.

MBBS II (Second) Professional Examination 2015-16

Roll No.

Student's Name



Student's Signature

Invigilator's Signature



Course Code: MBS201



Paper ID: 0322403

Pathology-I

Part `A'



Time: 20 Minutes

Max Marks: 10

Note: 1. Attempt all questions and return this part of the question paper to the invigilator after 20 Minutes.
2. Please tick () correct one only. Cutting, overwriting or any other marking are not allowed.
3. For answering please use Ball- pen only.

Q.1

Diabetic foot is an example of:

Q.10 All of the following are X ? linked

a)

Dry gangrene

recessive disorders except:

b)

Wet gangrene

a)

Hemophilia A and B

c)

Gas gangrene

b)

Chronic granulomlotus disease

d)

Necrotizing inflammation

c)

G6-PD deficiency

d) Sickle cell anima

Q.2

Class I HLA antigens are located on:



a) On all nucleated cells of the body

Q.11 Red cell membrane defects include the

b) B & T lymphocytes

following except:

c) Macrophage

a)

Spherocytosis

d) Complement system

b)

Ovalocytosis

c)

Leptocytosis

Q.3

In amyloidosis Beta pleate sheet will be

d)

Echinocytosis

seen in:
a)

X-ray crystallography

P.T.O.

b)

Electron microscope

Q.12 Erythroid cells continue to proliferate upto

c)

Spiral electron microscope

the stage of:

d)

Congo red stain

a)

Reticulocytes

b)

Late normoblast

Q.4.

Which among the following is NOT an

c)

Intermediate normoblast

autoimmune disease:

d)

Early normoblast

a)

Myasthenia gravis

b)

Systemic lupus erythematosus

Q.13 Which of the following statements about

c)

Grave's disease

carcinogrnesis is false:

d)

Sickle cell disease

a)

Asbestos exposure increase the
incidence of lung cancer

Q.5

Which of the complement component act as

b)

Papilloma viruses produce tumours

chemokines:

in animals but not in humans

a)

C3b

b)

C4b

c)

Exposure to aniline dyes

c)

C5a

d)

C4a

predisposes to cancer of the urinary
bladder

Q.6

Grading of tumors depend upon:

d)

Hepatitis B virus has been

a)

Degree of anaplasia

implicated in hepatocellular

b)

Metastatic spread

carcinoma

c)

Rate of growth of cells

d)

Degree of differentiation

Q.14 One of the following stains is specific for

Amyloid:
a)

Periodic Acid Schiff (PAS)

Q.7

Which of the following viral infection is

b)

Alizarin red

not known to produce any tumor:

c)

Congo red

a)

Polyoma virus

b)

EBV

d)

Von-Kossa

c)

HSV

d)

HTLV

Q.15 Cold agglutinin antibody in autoimmune

Q.8

Which one of the following is not used as a

hemolytic anemia affects:

tumor marker in testicular tumours:

a)

Mature erythrocyte

a)

AFP

b)

LDH

b)

Reticulocytes

c)

HCG

d) CEA

c)

Siderocytes

d)

Late erythroblast

Q.9

Teratogens are defined as agents which
induce:

Q.16 Which of the following is not included in

a)

Mitosis

TTP triad:

b)

Carcinogensis

a)

DIC

c)

Birth defect

b)

Thrombocytopenia

d)

Fallot's tetratogy

c)

Microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia

d)

Fibrin microthrombi

Q.17 Leucocyte alkaline prosplatosis (LAP)

score are elevated in:
a)

AML

b)

CML

c)

Myeloid metaplasia

d)

Myeloid leukaemoid reaction

Q.18 Leukaemic stage of cutaneous T cell

lymphoma is called:
a)

Hairy cell leukemia

b)

Adult T cell leukemia

c)

Mylosis funoides

d)

Sezary syndrome

Q.19 Isotretinoin treatment is effective in which

acute leukemia:
a)

All

b)

AML ? M2

c)

AML ? M6

d)

AML ? M3

Q.20

Gum hypertrophy is feature of the
following FAB type AML:
a)

FAB- M1

b)

FAB ? M2

c)

FAB ? M3

d)

FAB ? M4