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Download MBBS TMU Final Year 2016 MBBS404A General Surgery I Question Paper

Download MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine, Bachelor of Surgery) TMU (Teerthanker Mahaveer University) Final Year (4th Year) 2016 MBBS404A General Surgery I Previous Question Paper

This post was last modified on 17 February 2022

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MBBS III (Third) Professional Part-2 Examination 2015-16

Course Code: MBS404

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Paper ID: 0314106

General Surgery - I

Time: 2 Hours 30 Minutes

Max Marks: 45

Note: Attempt all questions. Draw proper diagrams to support your answer.

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Part 'B'

  1. Define and classify goiter. Describe management of solitary thyroid nodule. (8)
  2. Classify Haemorrhage. Describe its pathophysiology and management. (8)
  3. Write short note on: (3x3=9)
    1. Cystic Hygroma
    2. Venous ulcer

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    3. Systemic inflammatory Response syndrome

Part 'C'

  1. Write short notes on the following: (3x4=12)
    1. Ulnar nerve injury at elbow: clinical features and diagnostic tests
    2. Osteoblastoma

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    3. Chronic osteomyelitis
    4. Congenital talipes equinovarus [CTEV]: describe deformity and conservative management techniques
  2. Describe the clinical features, management and complications of supracondylar fracture humerus in children. (2+2+4)

Roll No.

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Student's Signature

MBBS III (Third) Professional Part-2 Examination 2015-16

Student's Name

Invigilator's Signature

Course Code: MBS404

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Paper ID: 0314106

General Surgery - I

Part 'A'

Time: 30 Minutes

Note: 1. Attempt all questions and return this part of the question paper to the invigilator after 30 Minutes.

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2. Please tick (√) correct one only. Cutting, overwriting or any other marking are not allowed.

3. For answering please use Ball- pen only.

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  1. Q.1 The commonest source of post-operative infection is:

    1. Skin

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    2. Respiratory tract
    3. Urinary tract
    4. Wound

  2. Q.2 Most abundant extracellular electrolyte is:

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    1. Sodium
    2. Potassium
    3. Chloride
    4. Albumin

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  3. Q.3 Sodium depletion causes all of the following except:

    1. Results in the urine containing little or no chloride
    2. Can follow prolonged gastric aspiration combined with unlimited intake of water
    3. Causes subcutaneous tissues to feel lax
    4. Occurs during the first 24 hours after operation

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  4. Q.4 The following statement is true about Keloid:

    1. More common in whites than blacks
    2. Local recurrence is common after excision
    3. Malignant change occurs

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    4. Does not extend into normal skin

  5. Q.5 A decubitus ulcer is:

    1. Venous ulcer
    2. An ulcer in the region of face

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    3. A pressure sore
    4. An ulcer of tongue

  6. Q.6 Most important HLA for organ transplant-ation and tissue typing is:

    1. HLA- A

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    2. HLA-B
    3. HLA-C
    4. HLA-D

  7. Q.7 A clean incised wound heals by:

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    1. Excessive scarring
    2. Primary intention
    3. Secondary intention
    4. None of the above

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  8. Q.8 A portwine stain (naevus flammeus) is a:

    1. Permalignant lesion of skin
    2. Type of brusing of skin
    3. Type of haemangioma
    4. Type of melanoma

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  9. Q.9 A superficial partial thickness burn of skin:

    1. is insensitive
    2. will separate as slough in 2-3 weeks
    3. requires a free flap graft

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    4. Is sensitive

  10. Q.10 A white leg is due to:

    1. Femoral vein thrombosis
    2. Lymphatic obstruction

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    3. Femoral vein thrombosis and lymphatic obstruction
    4. Muscles

  11. Q.11 Causative organism of gas gangrene is all of the following except:

    1. Clostridium welchi

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    2. Clostridium oedematiens
    3. Clostridium septicum
    4. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

  12. Q.12 Immunocompetent cells all of the following except:

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    1. T lymphocytes
    2. B lymphocytes
    3. Reed Sternberg cell
    4. Reticulocytes

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  13. Q.13 In Tetanus infection:

    1. The toxin travels along nerves to the central nervous system
    2. Active immunity is conferred by giving human anti- tetanus globulin
    3. A child under one year age has an inborn immunity to the disease
    4. Causative organism is clostridium difficile

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  14. Q.14 In carcinoma of breast:

    1. Medullary carcinoma feels stony hard
    2. The atropic scirrhous type occurs in younger women
    3. Peau d'orange is a late sign of carcinoma

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    4. Malignant cells does not transgress the internal elastic lamina of a duct

  15. Q.15 The best site for an intramuscular injection is the:

    1. Forearm
    2. Inner lower quadrant of the buttock

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    3. Outer upper quadrant of the buttock
    4. Abdomen

  16. Q.16 Toe extension in foot is mainly function of nerve root:

    1. L3

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    2. L4
    3. L5
    4. S1

  17. Q.17 Positron emission tomography uses:

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    1. Glucose
    2. Iron
    3. Calcium
    4. Technicium 99

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  18. Q.18 Which of the following statement is not true about fracture of patella:

    1. Even undisplaced fractures require patellectomy
    2. Quadriceps expansion may be intact in direct injury
    3. Quadriceps expansion is ruptured when gap is palpable between patellar fragments
    4. Knee cannot be actively extend if quadriceps expansion is ruptured

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  19. Q.19 Stability of hip joint depends mainly on:

    1. Bony configuration
    2. Ischio-femoral ligament
    3. Pubo-femoral ligament

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    4. Transverse acetabular ligament

  20. Q.20 For a distended knee joint following position is most comfortable:

    1. Full extension
    2. 30° flexion

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    3. 60° flexion
    4. 90° flexion

  21. Q.21 Preferable treatment for six weeks old intrascapular fracture of femoral neck in a thirty five year old man:

    1. Hemi replacement arthroplasty

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    2. Crif with or without valgus Osteotomy
    3. Smith Peterson Nailing
    4. Moore's pin fixation

  22. Q.22 Regarding fracture of clavicle which of the following statement is incorrect:

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    1. Fracture is commonest in medial third
    2. Non union is rare.
    3. Most cases can be treated conservatively
    4. Fracture usually occurs due to indirect injury

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  23. Q.23 Malunited Colles' fracture produces which of the following deformity:

    1. Dinner fork deformity
    2. Madelung deformity
    3. Swan neck deformity
    4. Boutonniere deformity

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  24. Q.24 A patient develops compartment syndrome (swelling, pain and numbness) following manipulation and plaster for fracture of both bones of leg. What is the best treatment:

    1. Split the plaster
    2. Elevate the leg
    3. Infusion of low molecular weight dextran

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    4. Do operative decompression of facial compartment

  25. Q.25 Bumper fracture is the name given to:

    1. Fracture of lateral tibial condyle
    2. Fracture of patella

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    3. Fracture of lateral femoral condyle
    4. Fracture of tibial spine

  26. Q.26 What is the most serious disadvantage of external fixator:

    1. Pin tract infection

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    2. Loosening of pins
    3. Fracture cannot be compressed
    4. Another fracture can occur through pin tract

  27. Q.27 Which is the strongest ligament:

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    1. Ilio-femoral ligament
    2. Tendons and Menisci
    3. Ligaments
    4. Muscles

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  28. Q.28 First treatment priority in patient with multiple injuries is:

    1. Airway maintenance
    2. Bleeding control
    3. Circulatory volume restoration
    4. Splinting of fractures

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  29. Q.29 Commonest cause of failure of internal fixation is:

    1. Infection
    2. Corrosion
    3. Metal reaction

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    4. Stress fracture of implant

  30. Q.30 Bone graft works by providing:

    1. Bone induction factor
    2. Osteogenic cells

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    3. Living osteoblasts
    4. Mineral scaffold for vascular proliferation

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This post was last modified on 17 February 2022